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400-101 dumps
Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-101 Dumps Exam (20-33)Q&As:
Question No : 20 – (Topic 1) Which circumstance can cause packet loss due to a microburst?
A. slow convergence
B. a blocked spanning-tree port
C. process switching
D. insufficient buffers
400-101 exam 
Answer: D
Explanation:
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the network. Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shown as accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative of receive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to data bursts coming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds).

Question No : 21 – (Topic 1)
Which three features require Cisco Express Forwarding? (Choose three.)
A. NBAR
B. AutoQoS
C. fragmentation
D. MPLS
E. UplinkFast
F. BackboneFast
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QoS Features That Require CEF
These class-based QoS features are supported only on routers that run CEF.
•Network Based Application Recognition (NBAR) provides intelligent network classification. For more information, refer to Network Based Application Recognition.
• The AutoQoS -VoIP feature simplifies and speeds up the implementation and provisioning of QoS for VoIP traffic. This feature is enabled with the help of the auto qos voip command. CEF must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC before the auto qos command can be used. For more information about this feature and its prerequisites, refer to AutoQoS – VoIP.
Why Is CEF Needed in MPLS Networks?
Concerning MPLS, CEF is special for a certain reason; otherwise, this book would not explicitly cover it. Labeled packets that enter the router are switched according to the label forwarding information base (LFIB) on the router. IP packets that enter the router are switched according to the CEF table on the router. Regardless of whether the packet is switched according to the LFIB or the CEF table, the outgoing packet can be a labeled packet or an IP packet

Question No : 22 – (Topic 1) Which option is the most effective action to avoid packet loss due to microbursts?
A. Implement larger buffers.
B. Install a faster CPU.
C. Install a faster network interface.
D. Configure a larger tx-ring size.
400-101 dumps 
Answer: A
Explanation:
You can’t avoid or prevent them as such without modifying the sending host’s application/network stack so it smoothes out the bursts. However, you can manage microbursts by tuning the size of receive buffers / rings to absorb occasional microbursts.
Question No : 23 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps Which statement about the debug behavior of the device is true?
A. The device debugs all IP events for 172.16.129.4.
B. The device sends all debugging information for 172.16.129.4.
C. The device sends only NTP debugging information to 172.16.129.4.
D. The device sends debugging information every five seconds.
Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
Which statement about the effect of this configuration is true ?
A. The 192.168.2.1/24 network is summarized and advertised as 192.168.2.0/24
B. The 192.168.2.1/32 network appears in the route table on R1 ,but it is missing from its OSPF database.
C. The 192.168.2.1/32 network is missing from the OSPF database and the route table on R1.
D. The 192.168.2.1/32 network appears in the Rl OSPF database , but it is missing from its route table.
400-101 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
What is wrong with the configuration of this tunnel interface ?
A. ISATAP tunnels cannot use the EUI-64 address format.
B. The tunnel source of an ISATAP tunnel must always point to a loopback interface.
C. Router advertisements are disabled on this tunnel interface.
D. No tunnel destination has been specified.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 26
Which two statements about IGMP filtering are true?
A. It eliminates the need for a multicast RP.
B. It can be implemented on Layer-3 routed ports using the ipigmp access-list command.
C. It allows Anycast RP to operate within a single AS.
D. It supports IGMPv3 traffic only
E. It can be implemented on Layer-2 switchports using IGMP profiles.
400-101 vce 
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
What are two ways DHCPv6 guard can mitigate man-in-the-middle attacks?
A. An interface in the server device role can use ACLs to filter authorized servers.
B. An interface in the server device role can drop all DHCPv6 server messages.
C. An interface in the client device role can use ACLs to filter authorized servers.
D. An interface in the server device role can use prefix-lists to filter authorized DCHP reply messages.
E. An interface in the client device role blocks all DCHPv6 server messages by default.
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 28
You are the project manager of the BHG Project. You are creating a network diagram as shown in the figure:
Mary, a project team member, reports that an identified risk is likely to happen in the project that will affect the completion date of Activity D . She reports that the risk event will likely cause the duration of the activity to increase by six days. If this happens what is the earliest the project can complete?
A. 32 days
B. 29 days
C. 27 days
D. 26 days
400-101 exam 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If Activity D increases by six days, the duration of the project will not change. There is 11 days of float available for Activity D so it may delay by six days without affecting the project end date. What is float? Float or total float (TF) is the total amount of time that a schedule activity may be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project finish date, or violating a schedule constraint. It is calculated by using the critical path method technique and determining the difference between the early finish dates and late finish dates.
Answer options A, B, and C are incorrect. These are not valid answers for the question.

QUESTION 29
Sam is the project manager of the NQQ project. He and the project team have completed the stakeholder identification process for his project. What is the main output of the identify stakeholders process?
A. Communications management plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Requirements
D. Stakeholder management strategy
400-101 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to the PMBOK, the main output of the identify stakeholders process is the stakeholder register. The stakeholder register is a project management document that contains a list of the stakeholders associated with the project. It assesses how they are involved in the project and identifies what role they play in the organization. The information in this document can be very perceptive and is meant for limited exchange only. It also contains relevant information about the stakeholders, such as their requirements, expectations, and influence on the project. Answer option A is incorrect. The communications management plan is an output of communications planning. Answer option D is incorrect. The stakeholder management strategy is an output of stakeholder identification, but it is not the main output. Answer option C is incorrect. Requirements are not an output of the stakeholder identification process.

QUESTION 30
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Management has asked you not to communicate performance unless the CPI is less than 0.96 or the SPI dips below 0.98. What type of report would you create for management, if these instances develop in your project?
A. Cost variance report
B. Exceptions report
C. Performance management report
D. Schedule variance report

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The best answer is simply an exception report. An exception report refers and documents the major mistakes, mishaps, and goofs. In other words, it itemizes the important and critically significant piece of documentation that is vital to the proper and effective functioning of a project. It does not document what has gone right, but rather documents what has gone wrong. Answer option C is incorrect. A performance management report is not a valid project management report. Answer option A is incorrect. The question is asked about cost and schedule so this answer would not be appropriate for both the cost and the schedule. Answer option D is incorrect. The question is asked about cost and schedule so this answer would not be appropriate for both the cost and the schedule.

QUESTION 31
You are the project manager of the HQQ Project. Your project is running late by ten percent of where you should be at this time. Management is concerned. Considering that the project has a BAC of $567,899, you are thirty percent complete, and you have spent $179,450. What is this project’s to- complete performance index based on the current BAC?
A. 1.02
B. 0.010
C. 0.75
D. 0.95
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This project is not performing well on schedule, but moderately well on costs. The project’s TCPI based on the current BAC is 1.02. To-complete Performance Index (TCPI) is the measured projection of the anticipated performance required to achieve either the BAC or the EAC. TCPI indicates the future required cost efficiency needed to achieve a target EAC (Estimate At Complete).Once approved, the EAC supersedes the BAC as the cost performance goal. Any significant difference between TCPI and the CPI needed to meet the EAC should be accounted for by management in their forecast of the final cost. The formula for TCPI is as follows:
TCPI = {(BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC)}
Answer option D is incorrect. 0.95 is the project’s TCPI value based on the estimate at completion. Answer option C is incorrect. 0.75 is the project’s schedule performance index. Answer option B is incorrect. 0.010 is not a valid calculation.

QUESTION 32
Andy works as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. He is developing the schedule for the project. There are eight tools and techniques that a project manager can use to develop the project schedule. Which of the following is a tool and technique for the Schedule Development process?
A. Schedule compression
B. Reserve analysis
C. Variance analysis
D. Expert judgment
400-101 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Schedule compression is a tool used as part of the Schedule Development process. The tools and techniques for schedule development are as follows:
Schedule network analysis
Critical path method
Critical chain method
Resource leveling
What-if scenario analysis
Applying leads and lags
Schedule compression
Scheduling tool
Answer options D, B, and C are incorrect. These are not tools and techniques for schedule development.

QUESTION 33
You are the project manager for your organization. You have recorded the following duration estimates for an activity in your project: optimistic 20, most likely 45, pessimistic 90. What time will you record for this activity?
A. 48
B. 20o, 45m, 90p
C. 90
D. 45
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This is an example of a three-point estimate. A three-point estimate records the optimistic, most likely, and the pessimistic duration, and then records an average for the predicted duration Three-point estimate is a way to enhance the accuracy of activity duration estimates. This concept is originated with the Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT). PERT charts the following three estimates: Most likely (TM): The duration of activity based on realistic factors such as resources assigned, interruptions, etc. Optimistic (TO): The activity duration based on the best-case scenario Pessimistic (TP): The activity duration based on the worst-case scenario The expected (TE) activity duration is a weighted average of these three estimates:
TE = (TO + 4TM + TP) / 6 Duration estimates based on the above equations (sometimes simple average of the three estimates is also used) provide more accuracy. It can be calculated as follows:
TE = ( 20 + 45*4 + 90) / 6
= 290/6
=48
Answer options B, C, and D are incorrect. These are not the valid answers for this question.

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Exam Code: 400-151
Exam Name: CCIE Data Center Written Exam
Q&As: 316

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-151 Dumps Exam Q&As:
Question: 24
Given the following SAS data set ONE:
ONE
COUNTRY CITY VISIT
—————————————–
USA BOSTON 10
UK LONDON 5
USA DALLAS 10
UK MARLOW 10
USA BOSTON 20
UK LONDON 15
USA DALLAS 10
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select country, city, sum(visit) as TOTAL
from one group by country, city
order by country, total desc;
quit;
Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. COUNTRY CITY TOTAL
—————————————–
UK MARLOW 10
UK LONDON 20USA BOSTON 50
USA DALLAS 20
B. COUNTRY CITY TOTAL
—————————————-
UK LONDON 20
UK MARLOW 10
USA BOSTON 50
USA DALLAS 20
C. COUNTRY CITY TOTAL
—————————————–
USA BOSTON 50
D. COUNTRY CITY TOTAL
—————————————–
UK MARLOW 10
UK LONDON 20
USA DALLAS 20
USA BOSTON 50
400-151 exam Answer: B
Question: 25
Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO:
ONE TWO
NUM CHAR1 NUM CHAR2
——————- ————————
1 A 2 X
2 B 3 Y
4 D 5 V
The following SAS program is submitted creating the output table THREE:
data three;
set one two;
run;
THREE
NUM CHAR1 CHAR2
—————————————
1 A
2 B
4 D
2 X
3 Y
5 V
Which one of the following SQL programs creates an equivalent SAS data set THREE?
A. proc sql;
create table three as
select *
from one
outer union corr
select *
from two;
quit;B. proc sql;
create table three as
select *
from one
outer union
select *
from two;
quit;
C. proc sql;
create table three as
select *
from one
outer union
select *
quit;
D. proc sql;
create table three as
select *
from one
union corr
select *
from two;
quit;
Answer: A
Question: 26
Which one of the following automatic SAS macro variables contains the return code from a
previously executed step?
A. &RC
B. &ERR
C. &SYSRC
D. &SYSERR
400-151 dumps Answer: D
Question: 27
The SAS data set ONE has a variable X on which an index has been created. The data sets ONE
and THREE are sorted by X. Which one of the following SAS programs uses the index to select
observations from the data set ONE?
A. data two;
set three;
set one key = X;
run;
B. data two;
set three key = X;
set one;
run;
C. data two;
set one;
set three key = X;
run;
D. data two;set three;
set one (key = X);
run;
Answer: A
Question: 28
Given the following SAS data set ONE:
ONE
REP AREA COST
————————————
SMITH NORTH 100
SMITH SOUTH 200
JONES EAST 100
SMITH NORTH 300
JONES WEST 100
JONES NORTH 200
JONES NORTH 400
SMITH NORTH 400
JONES WEST 100
JONES WEST 300
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select rep, area, count(*) as TOTAL
from one group by rep, area;
quit;
Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. REP AREA COUNT
———————————————–
JONES EAST 100
JONES NORTH 600
JONES WEST 500
SMITH NORTH 800
SMITH SOUTH 200
B. REP AREA TOTAL
———————————————–
JONES EAST 100
JONES NORTH 600
JONES WEST 500
SMITH NORTH 800
SMITH SOUTH 200
C. REP AREA TOTAL
———————————————–
JONES EAST 1
JONES NORTH 2
JONES WEST 3
SMITH NORTH 3
JONES WEST 3
SMITH NORTH 3
SMITH SOUTH 1
C. REP AREA TOTALJONES EAST 1
JONES NORTH 2
JONES WEST 3
SMITH NORTH 3
SMITH SOUTH 1
SMITH NORTH 3
SMITH SOUTH 1
400-151 pdf Answer: D
Question: 29
Which one of the following SAS procedures changes a permanent format of a variable stored in a
SAS data set?
A. MODIFY
B. FORMAT
C. CONTENTS
D. DATASETS
Answer: D
Question: 30
Given the following SAS data set SASUSER.HIGHWAY:
SASUSER.HIGHWAY
STEERING SEATBELT SPEED STATUS COUNT
————————————————————————
absent no 0-29 serious 31
absent no 0-29 not 1419
absent no 30-49 serious 191
absent no 30-49 not 2004
absent no 50+ serious 216
The following SAS program is submitted:
%macro highway;
proc sql noprint;
select count(distinct status)
into :numgrp
from sasuser.highway;
%let numgrp = &numgrp;
select distinct status
into :group1-:group&numgrp
from sasuser.highway;
quit;
%do i = 1 %to &numgrp;
proc print data = sasuser.highway;
where status = “&&group&i” ;
run;
%end;
%mend;
%highway
How many reports are produced by the above program?
A. 0
B. 1C. 2
D. 5
400-151 vce Answer: C
Question: 31
Text is sent to the SAS compiler as a result of macro execution. Which one of the following SAS
System options writes that text to the log?
A. MPRINT
B. MLOGIC
C. MSOURCE
D. SOURCE2
Answer: A
Question: 32
Given the following SAS data set ONE:
ONE
CATEGORY AGE SALARY BONUS
—————————————————
M 28 200 .
M 25 100 10
F 100 50
F 25 200 10
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
create table two as
select category, salary + bonus as EARNINGS
from one; quit;
Which one of the following represents the data values stored in the data set TWO?
A. CATEGORY EARNINGS
————————————-
M 200
M 110
F 150
F 210
B. CATEGORY EARNINGS
————————————
M .
M 110
F 150
F 210
C. CATEGORY SALARY BONUS EARNINGS
—————————————————————
M 200 . 200
M 100 10 110
F 100 50 150
F 200 10 210
D. CATEGORY SALARY BONUS EARNINGS
—————————————————————
M 200 . .
M 100 10 110
M 200 . 200
M 100 10 110
F 100 50 150
F 200 10 210
400-151 exam Answer: B
Question: 33
Which one of the following SAS SORT procedure options eliminates identical consecutive
observations?
A. NODUP
B. UNIQUE
C. DISTINCT
D. NODUPKEY
Answer: A
Question: 34
The following SAS program is submitted:
data temp;
array points{3,2}_temporary_ (10,20,30,40,50,60);
score = points{2,1}
run;
Which one of the following is the value of the variable SCORE in the data set TEMP?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
400-151 dumps Answer: C
Question: 35
The following SAS FORMAT procedure is submitted:
proc format lib = sasuser;
value tempc low < 0 = ‘BELOW FREEZING’
0 < 5 = ‘COLD’
5 < 10 = ‘MILD’
10 < 15 = ‘WARM’
15 high = ‘HOT’;
run;
How is the value 10 displayed when the format TEMPC is applied?
A. 10
B. MILD
C. WARM
D. BELOW FREEZING
Answer: C
Question: 36
Which one of the following SAS programs uses the most amount of memory resources for outputbuffers?
A. data new(bufsize = 1000 bufno = 5);
set temp;
run;
B. data new(bufsize = 1000 bufno = 2);
set temp;
run;
C. data new(bufsize = 2000 bufno = 3);
set temp;
run;
D. data new(bufsize = 4000 bufno = 1);
set temp;
run;
400-151 pdf Answer: C

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Total Questions: 745
Test Number: 350-018
Vendor Name: Cisco
Cert Name:  CCIE
Test Name: CCIE Security written (Version 4.0)
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Question: 1
Which statement is valid regarding SGACL?
A. SGACL mapping and policies can only be manually configured.
B. Dynamically downloaded SGACL does not override manually configured conflicting policies.
C. SGACL is access-list bound with a range of SGTs and DGTs.
D. SGACL is not a role-based access list.
Answer: C   
Explanation:
A role-based access control list bound to a range of SGTs and DGTs forms an SGACL
Reference:

 

Question: 2
Of which IPS application is Event Store a component?
A. InterfaceApp
B. AuthenticationApp
C. SensorApp
D. NotificationApp
E. MainApp
Answer: E   
Explanation:
Cisco IPS software includes the following applications:
MainApp—Initializes the system, starts and stops the other applications, configures the OS, and performs upgrades. It contains the following components:
–ctlTransSource (Control Transaction server)—Allows sensors to send control transactions. This is used to enable the master blocking sensor capability of Attack Response Controller (formerly known as Network Access Controller).
–Event Store—An indexed store used to store IPS events (error, status, and alert system messages) that is accessible through the CLI, IDM, IME, ASDM, or SDEE.
Reference:

 

Question: 3
Refer to the exhibit.
1
Which two statements about this debug output are true? (Choose two.)
A. The request is from NHC to NHS.
B. The request is from NHS to NNC.
C. 192.168.10.2 is the remote NBMA address.
D. 192.168.10.1 is the local VPN address.
E. 69.1.1.2 is the local non-routable address.
F. This debug output represents a failed NHRP request.
Answer: A, D   70-697 exam

 

Question: 4
Which statement describes RA?
A. The RA is not responsible to verify users request for digital certificates.
B. The RA is part of private key infrastructure.
C. The RA has the power to accept registration requests and to issue certificates.
D. The RA only forwards the requests to the CA to issue certificates.
Answer: D

 

 

Question: 5
Refer to the exhibit
2
Against which type of attack does the given configuration protect?
A. pharming
B. a botnet attack
C. phishing
D. DNS hijacking
E. DNS cache poisoning
Answer: B

 

Question: 6
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the description on the left onto the associated items on the right.
3
Answer:
Collection of similar programs that work together to execute specific tasks – botnet
Independent malicious program copies itself from one host to another host over a network and carries other programs – Viruses
Programs that appear to have one function but actually perform a different function – Trojan horse
Programs that modify other programs and that attach themselves to other programs on execution – Worms
Reference:

 

Question: 7
Refer to the exhibit.
4
Which option describes the behavior of this configuration?

A. The switch initiates the authentication.
B. The client initiates the authentication.
C. The device performs subsequent IEEE 802.1X authentication if it passed MAB authentication. If the device fails IEEE 802.1X, it will start MAB again.
D. Devices that perform IEEE 802.1X should be in the MAC address database for successful authentication.
E. IEEE 802.1x devices must first authenticate via MAB to perform subsequent IEEE 802.1X authentication. If 802.1X fails, the device is assigned to the default guest VLAN.
Answer: C

Question: 8
Which two statements about the RC4 algorithm are true? (Choose two.)

A. The RC4 algorithm is an asymmetric key algorithm.
B. In the RC4 algorithm, the 40-bit key represents four characters of ASCII code.
C. The RC4 algorithm is faster in computation than DES.
D. The RC4 algorithm uses variable-length keys.
E. The RC4 algorithm cannot be used with wireless encryption protocols.
Answer: C, D

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