CCIE, Cisco

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400-101 dumps
Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-101 Dumps Exam (20-33)Q&As:
Question No : 20 – (Topic 1) Which circumstance can cause packet loss due to a microburst?
A. slow convergence
B. a blocked spanning-tree port
C. process switching
D. insufficient buffers
400-101 exam 
Answer: D
Explanation:
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the network. Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shown as accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative of receive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to data bursts coming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds).

Question No : 21 – (Topic 1)
Which three features require Cisco Express Forwarding? (Choose three.)
A. NBAR
B. AutoQoS
C. fragmentation
D. MPLS
E. UplinkFast
F. BackboneFast
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QoS Features That Require CEF
These class-based QoS features are supported only on routers that run CEF.
•Network Based Application Recognition (NBAR) provides intelligent network classification. For more information, refer to Network Based Application Recognition.
• The AutoQoS -VoIP feature simplifies and speeds up the implementation and provisioning of QoS for VoIP traffic. This feature is enabled with the help of the auto qos voip command. CEF must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC before the auto qos command can be used. For more information about this feature and its prerequisites, refer to AutoQoS – VoIP.
Why Is CEF Needed in MPLS Networks?
Concerning MPLS, CEF is special for a certain reason; otherwise, this book would not explicitly cover it. Labeled packets that enter the router are switched according to the label forwarding information base (LFIB) on the router. IP packets that enter the router are switched according to the CEF table on the router. Regardless of whether the packet is switched according to the LFIB or the CEF table, the outgoing packet can be a labeled packet or an IP packet

Question No : 22 – (Topic 1) Which option is the most effective action to avoid packet loss due to microbursts?
A. Implement larger buffers.
B. Install a faster CPU.
C. Install a faster network interface.
D. Configure a larger tx-ring size.
400-101 dumps 
Answer: A
Explanation:
You can’t avoid or prevent them as such without modifying the sending host’s application/network stack so it smoothes out the bursts. However, you can manage microbursts by tuning the size of receive buffers / rings to absorb occasional microbursts.
Question No : 23 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps Which statement about the debug behavior of the device is true?
A. The device debugs all IP events for 172.16.129.4.
B. The device sends all debugging information for 172.16.129.4.
C. The device sends only NTP debugging information to 172.16.129.4.
D. The device sends debugging information every five seconds.
Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
Which statement about the effect of this configuration is true ?
A. The 192.168.2.1/24 network is summarized and advertised as 192.168.2.0/24
B. The 192.168.2.1/32 network appears in the route table on R1 ,but it is missing from its OSPF database.
C. The 192.168.2.1/32 network is missing from the OSPF database and the route table on R1.
D. The 192.168.2.1/32 network appears in the Rl OSPF database , but it is missing from its route table.
400-101 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
What is wrong with the configuration of this tunnel interface ?
A. ISATAP tunnels cannot use the EUI-64 address format.
B. The tunnel source of an ISATAP tunnel must always point to a loopback interface.
C. Router advertisements are disabled on this tunnel interface.
D. No tunnel destination has been specified.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 26
Which two statements about IGMP filtering are true?
A. It eliminates the need for a multicast RP.
B. It can be implemented on Layer-3 routed ports using the ipigmp access-list command.
C. It allows Anycast RP to operate within a single AS.
D. It supports IGMPv3 traffic only
E. It can be implemented on Layer-2 switchports using IGMP profiles.
400-101 vce 
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
What are two ways DHCPv6 guard can mitigate man-in-the-middle attacks?
A. An interface in the server device role can use ACLs to filter authorized servers.
B. An interface in the server device role can drop all DHCPv6 server messages.
C. An interface in the client device role can use ACLs to filter authorized servers.
D. An interface in the server device role can use prefix-lists to filter authorized DCHP reply messages.
E. An interface in the client device role blocks all DCHPv6 server messages by default.
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 28
You are the project manager of the BHG Project. You are creating a network diagram as shown in the figure:
Mary, a project team member, reports that an identified risk is likely to happen in the project that will affect the completion date of Activity D . She reports that the risk event will likely cause the duration of the activity to increase by six days. If this happens what is the earliest the project can complete?
A. 32 days
B. 29 days
C. 27 days
D. 26 days
400-101 exam 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If Activity D increases by six days, the duration of the project will not change. There is 11 days of float available for Activity D so it may delay by six days without affecting the project end date. What is float? Float or total float (TF) is the total amount of time that a schedule activity may be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project finish date, or violating a schedule constraint. It is calculated by using the critical path method technique and determining the difference between the early finish dates and late finish dates.
Answer options A, B, and C are incorrect. These are not valid answers for the question.

QUESTION 29
Sam is the project manager of the NQQ project. He and the project team have completed the stakeholder identification process for his project. What is the main output of the identify stakeholders process?
A. Communications management plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Requirements
D. Stakeholder management strategy
400-101 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to the PMBOK, the main output of the identify stakeholders process is the stakeholder register. The stakeholder register is a project management document that contains a list of the stakeholders associated with the project. It assesses how they are involved in the project and identifies what role they play in the organization. The information in this document can be very perceptive and is meant for limited exchange only. It also contains relevant information about the stakeholders, such as their requirements, expectations, and influence on the project. Answer option A is incorrect. The communications management plan is an output of communications planning. Answer option D is incorrect. The stakeholder management strategy is an output of stakeholder identification, but it is not the main output. Answer option C is incorrect. Requirements are not an output of the stakeholder identification process.

QUESTION 30
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Management has asked you not to communicate performance unless the CPI is less than 0.96 or the SPI dips below 0.98. What type of report would you create for management, if these instances develop in your project?
A. Cost variance report
B. Exceptions report
C. Performance management report
D. Schedule variance report

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The best answer is simply an exception report. An exception report refers and documents the major mistakes, mishaps, and goofs. In other words, it itemizes the important and critically significant piece of documentation that is vital to the proper and effective functioning of a project. It does not document what has gone right, but rather documents what has gone wrong. Answer option C is incorrect. A performance management report is not a valid project management report. Answer option A is incorrect. The question is asked about cost and schedule so this answer would not be appropriate for both the cost and the schedule. Answer option D is incorrect. The question is asked about cost and schedule so this answer would not be appropriate for both the cost and the schedule.

QUESTION 31
You are the project manager of the HQQ Project. Your project is running late by ten percent of where you should be at this time. Management is concerned. Considering that the project has a BAC of $567,899, you are thirty percent complete, and you have spent $179,450. What is this project’s to- complete performance index based on the current BAC?
A. 1.02
B. 0.010
C. 0.75
D. 0.95
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This project is not performing well on schedule, but moderately well on costs. The project’s TCPI based on the current BAC is 1.02. To-complete Performance Index (TCPI) is the measured projection of the anticipated performance required to achieve either the BAC or the EAC. TCPI indicates the future required cost efficiency needed to achieve a target EAC (Estimate At Complete).Once approved, the EAC supersedes the BAC as the cost performance goal. Any significant difference between TCPI and the CPI needed to meet the EAC should be accounted for by management in their forecast of the final cost. The formula for TCPI is as follows:
TCPI = {(BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC)}
Answer option D is incorrect. 0.95 is the project’s TCPI value based on the estimate at completion. Answer option C is incorrect. 0.75 is the project’s schedule performance index. Answer option B is incorrect. 0.010 is not a valid calculation.

QUESTION 32
Andy works as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. He is developing the schedule for the project. There are eight tools and techniques that a project manager can use to develop the project schedule. Which of the following is a tool and technique for the Schedule Development process?
A. Schedule compression
B. Reserve analysis
C. Variance analysis
D. Expert judgment
400-101 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Schedule compression is a tool used as part of the Schedule Development process. The tools and techniques for schedule development are as follows:
Schedule network analysis
Critical path method
Critical chain method
Resource leveling
What-if scenario analysis
Applying leads and lags
Schedule compression
Scheduling tool
Answer options D, B, and C are incorrect. These are not tools and techniques for schedule development.

QUESTION 33
You are the project manager for your organization. You have recorded the following duration estimates for an activity in your project: optimistic 20, most likely 45, pessimistic 90. What time will you record for this activity?
A. 48
B. 20o, 45m, 90p
C. 90
D. 45
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This is an example of a three-point estimate. A three-point estimate records the optimistic, most likely, and the pessimistic duration, and then records an average for the predicted duration Three-point estimate is a way to enhance the accuracy of activity duration estimates. This concept is originated with the Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT). PERT charts the following three estimates: Most likely (TM): The duration of activity based on realistic factors such as resources assigned, interruptions, etc. Optimistic (TO): The activity duration based on the best-case scenario Pessimistic (TP): The activity duration based on the worst-case scenario The expected (TE) activity duration is a weighted average of these three estimates:
TE = (TO + 4TM + TP) / 6 Duration estimates based on the above equations (sometimes simple average of the three estimates is also used) provide more accuracy. It can be calculated as follows:
TE = ( 20 + 45*4 + 90) / 6
= 290/6
=48
Answer options B, C, and D are incorrect. These are not the valid answers for this question.

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CCNA Cyber Ops, Cisco

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-255 Dumps Exam Q&As:

1.Where are the properties for the Event Server stored?
A.In the boot.ini file on the machine where the Event Server is running
B.In the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C.In the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) bootstrap file
D.In the Event Server service properties
210-255 exam Answer:B
2.Which three are benefits to the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)? (Choose three.)
A.Security
B.Administrative accessibility
C.Email notification
D.Reliability
Answer:A B D
3.Which web language was used to develop InfoView?
A.Perl
B.Java
C.PHP
D.C++
210-255 dumps Answer:B
4.How do you set-up a configuration template for a Web Intelligence Processing Server?
A.Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to the Server Template area and click on Add New Template.
B.Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to properties of the specific server and click on Add New Template.
C.Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to the Server Template area and click on Set Configuration Template.
D.Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to properties of the specific server and click on Set Configuration Template.
Answer:D
5.Which type of file does the replication process use to transfer content?
A.BIAR
B.REP
C.Binary
D.BOMain
210-255 pdf Answer:A
6.Which replication object would you schedule?
A.Replication Job
B.Replication List
C.Replication Connection
D.Replication Package
Answer:A
7.Which three application servers can you deploy Web Archive (WAR) files to using wdeploy? (Choose three.)
A.Oracle Containers for J2EE
B.SAP Netweaver

C.JRun
D.Sun Java Application Server
210-255 vce Answer:A B D
8.Which directory is the bootstrap file saved in by default on the Windows platform?
A.Web Services
B.Logging
C.FileStore
D.Win32_x86
Answer:D
9.Four users in the Human Resources department and six users in the Finance department need to edit existing Web Intelligence documents. How would you set-up a secure folder structure for the different departments so that each group of users can edit existing Web Intelligence documents?
A.Modify advanced rights on all groups.
B.Apply a predefined access level to all folders.
C.Create a custom access level and apply it to all folders.
D.Modify advanced rights on a top level folder.
210-255 exam Answer:C
10.What do you see when you view a Crystal Report instance that has both saved data and two successful instances?
A.The latest data from the database
B.The oldest data from the database
C.The oldest successful instance
D.The newest successful instance
Answer:D
11.A user belongs to both Group 1 and Group 2 and you want that user to see a specific folder. What folder security settings would you use to enable the user to view the folder?
A.Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2 and also not specified for the Everyone group
B.Set the view right to denied for Group 1 and granted for Group 2
C.Set the view right to not specified for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2
D.Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and denied for Group 2
E.Create a custom access level and grant for Group 1 and deny for Group 2
210-255 dumps Answer:A
12.What action would the Deployment Diagnostic Tool take when an InfoObject exists in the Central Management Server (CMS) system database, but the corresponding file cannot be found in the File Repository Server (FRS)?
A.Remove the InfoObject from the Central Management Server (CMS) system database, unless otherwise specified.
B.Create a blank report as a placeholder.
C.Notify the user to republish the object.
D.Reassign the InfoObject to a new file.
Answer:A
13.What is the difference between one-way replication and two-way replication?
A.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
  content only travels from Destination site to Origin site.
B.In one-way replication, content only travels from Destination site to Origin site. In two-way replication, content can travel from Origin site to Destination site, or from Destination site to Origin site.
C.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication, content also travels only from Origin site to Destination site but this operation can happen more than once.
D.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication, content also travels from Origin site to Destination site but this operation can happen more than once.
210-255 pdf Answer:D
14.Which statement is true of a single Replication Job?
A.Has two or more origin sites and no destination sites
B.Has only one origin site and only one destination site
C.Has one or more origin sites and only one destination site
D.Has one or more origin sites and possibly many destination sites
Answer:B
15.You are migrating content into a new system. Which task must you perform to maintain the system integrity (CUID)?
A.Define the LDAP configuration
B.List the groups to be migrated
C.Define custom security settings
D.List the active content folders
210-255 vce Answer:A
16.Which three parameters can you specify in the command line for wdeploy? (Choose three.)
A.Web Server Type
B.CMS Administrator Username
C.Deployment Parameters
D.Deployment Actions
Answer:A C D
17.In which two locations could you configure the port numbers for the local Central Management Server (CMS)? (Choose two.)
A.In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Startup tab for the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)
B.In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Configuration tab for the CMS
C.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Server settings for the CMS
D.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) settings
210-255 exam Answer:A C
18.Which servers should you examine if you are unable to schedule a Web Intelligence document? (Choose three.)
A.Web Intelligence Processing Server
B.Connection Server
C.Adaptive Job Server
D.Output File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer:A C D
19.How do you change the system database properties for the Central Management Server (CMS)?
A.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is
  pointing to the remote CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Configuration tab.
B.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is pointing to the local CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Startup tab.
C.Select the CMS in the Central Management Console (CMC), stop the service and go to the Configuration tab.
D.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA), which is pointing to the local CMS, stop the service and go to the Configuration tab.
210-255 dumps Answer:D
20.Where do you configure the Login action for Desktop Intelligence users in a 3-tier mode?
A.Under Settings in the Desktop Intelligence client
B.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence Cache Server
C.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Central Management Server (CMS)
D.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence application
Answer:C
21. As the Global Administrator of a CA Performance Management instance that hosts three tenants, you are only able to see two of the five available SNMP profiles. Why are you unable to view all five profiles?
A. Because in this instance,two profiles are associated with the tenant you are currently administering
B. Because Global Administrators typically need to refresh the screen before the full set of profiles appear
C. Because the Global Administrator must change an entry in the SNMP_549.xml file to see all SNMP profiles
D. Because the tenant administrators must change the permission of the SNMP profiles that they manage to enable the Global Administrator to see them
210-255 pdf Answer: A
22. If you register a Data Aggregator data source, a system group named Collections will appear in
CA Performance Center. Which feature characterizes collections?
A. They are always modifiable.
B. They are generally only used for report organization.
C. They are not tenant-specific but are always global in scope.
D. They are primarily used to control monitoring behavior using rules specified in monitoring
profiles.
Answer: A
23. When you create or edit a monitoring profile, you can use the Change Detection Rate option to set the frequency at which the Data Aggregator checks for changes. When you set the rate of detection, the Automatically Update Metric Families check box is selected by default. What happens if you clear this check box?
A. The Change Detection Rate field will no longer be editable.
B. The automatic updating of metric families will continue unless you also change settings for  specific metric families.
C. The Data Aggregator will continue to automatically monitor new components but will no longer retire old components.
D. The Events Display dashboard will need to be monitored and updates will need to be performed manually on the Polled Metric Families page.
210-255 vce Answer: D
24. How do you launch the New Vendor Certification wizard?
A. On the Inventory tab,right-click a device and click Import MIB.
B. In the Data Aggregator source,on the Vendor Certifications page,click New.
C. Use Web Services to import the vendor NIB and assign it to a particular metric family.
D. On the Vendor Certification dashboard,right-click an unassigned vendor certification and assign it to an unsupported device.
Answer: B
25. Which statement is FALSE?
A. The groups assigned to your user account determine the data you can view on dashboards.
B. A best practice is to create groups to meet strategicIT objectives rather than business objectives.
C. In the Groups tree,Service Provider Global Groups contain items not explicitly associated with a tenant IP domain.
D. Users can use the section of the Groups tree below their permission groups to change the data
context for summary or group dashboards.
210-255 exam Answer: B

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CCNA Security, Cisco

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-260 Dumps Exam Q&As:

DEMO
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps

What is the effect of the given command sequence?
A. It configures IKE Phase 1.
B. It configures a site-to-site VPN tunnel.
C. It configures a crypto policy with a key size of 14400.
D. It configures IPSec Phase 2.
210-260 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
What hash type does Cisco use to validate the integrity of downloaded images?
A. Sha1
B. Sha2
C. Md5
D. Md1
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
What security feature allows a private IP address to access the Internet by translating it to a public
address?
A. NAT
B. hairpinning
C. Trusted Network Detection
D. Certification Authority
210-260 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4. In SAS ETL Studio, what is stored as a metadata identity?
A. the location of the SAS Metadata Server
B. the libraries containing the data in the warehouse
C. a user or a group of users of the metadata environment
D. a list of the warehouse server names and port numbers
Answer: C
QUESTION  5. In SAS ETL Studio, when checking in objects from a project repository to a change-managed
repository, which objects are checked in?

A. all objects
B. the selected objects only
C. grouped objects and their associated objects
D. the selected objects and all associated objects
210-260 pdf Answer:A
QUESTION  6. In SAS ETL Studio, which alert actions can be selected from the Status Handling tab as a property of
the job? I.Send email. II.Abort the process. III.Send the entry to a dataset. IV.Call a macro from a SAS
Autocall Library.
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II, III and IV
Answer: D
QUESTION  7. In SAS ETL Studio, what can be used to register a metadata object in the Process Library? I.the
Metadata Importer II.the Metadata Transformer III.the Transformation Importer
IV.the Transformation Generator
A. II only
B. IV only
C. I and II
D. III and IV
210-260 vce Answer: D

QUESTION 8. In PGP, there are two conditions that can be present to provide for the validity of a certificate. What
are these two conditions?
A.The certificate has been digitally signed by your local trusted root Certificate Authority.
B.The certificate is digitally signed by at least one completely trusted key holder, who has a valid
certificate.
C.The certificate is digitally signed by at least two of the marginally trusted key holders, who have valid
certificates.
D.The certificate has been digitally signed by the sender trusted root Certificate Authority.
E.The certificate is digitally signed by the sender, who is authenticated by your local Certificate Authority.
Answer: BC
QUESTION  9. What is the average size of a biometric template?
A.Between 10 and 100 KB
B.Between 100 and 500 KB
C.Less than 1 KB
D.Less than 3 bytes
E.Between 500 KB and 1 MB
210-260 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION  10. Based on the provided image, what type of certification path will be used in this network?
A.Nested certification path
B.Hierarchical certification path
C.Functional certification path
D.Mesh certification path
E.Bridged certification path
Answer: D
QUESTION 11. When an OCSP responder provides a digitally signed response for each of the certificates sent to it by
the relying party in the original request, its reply consists of the certificate identifier, one of three status
values and a validity interval. What are the three status values?
A.Okay, Not Okay, Revoked
B.This Update, Next Update, Future Update
C.Good, Revoked, Unknown
D.Issuer Public Key, Hash of the Private Key, Unknown
E.Issuer Private Key, Thumbprint of the Public Key, Unknown
Answer: C
QUESTION 12. What format is used to list the information that is contained in the Issuer field of an X.509 digital

certificate?
A.FQDN
B.X.500 CN
C.CA Name
D.X.500 DN
E.Position of the CA in the CA hierarchy
210-260 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION 13. There are many certificate templates built into Windows 2000 Certificate Servers. Which of the
following user templates are valid for client authentication?
A.Smart Card Logon
B.Domain Controller
C.Authenticated Session
D.IPSec (Offline Request)
E.Smart Card User
Answer: ACE
QUESTION 14. One of the many extensions in an X.509 digital certificate is called the SubjectKeyIdentifier. What is
this extension used for?
A.The extension is used to verify the SubjectPrivateKeyInfo
B.The extension is used to match the hashes of the SubjectKeyAlgorithm
C.The extension is used only when the certificate is used for code signing from a defined Subject
D.The extension is used when matching the hash value of the public key on the certificate
E.The extension is used only if the certificate is sent from a Root CA
210-260 pdf 
Answer: D
QUESTION 15. Which of the following are hash algorithms?
A.MD5
B.SHA
C.RSA

D.3DES
E.AES
Answer: AB
QUESTION NO: 16
Which RAID level is the most commonly used for file servers, application server, web server,
databases, and other transaction-oriented applications?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 3
C. RAID 4
D. RAID 5
210-260 vce 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 17
Which utility typically enables abstraction of storage within a server?
A. Switch zoning
B. Logical Volume Manager (LVM)
C. SAN appliance
D. SMI-S Monitoring Tool
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
Your current backup solution includes a backup server and six tape drives within a tape library.
The routers are connected to the SAN and the servers are zoned on the SAN to see the array.
The server sends a set of commands to the tape routes causing the routers to talk directly to the
volumes and copy them to the tape drives. Which backup infrastructure type would describe this
process?
A. D2D (disc-to-disk)
B. 3PC (3rd party copy)
C. SSO (shared storage option)
D. D2R2T (disk to route to tape)
210-260 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 19
Which Security method is used to insure that a particular host only has access to a particular
LUN?
A. port binding
B. hard zoning
C. soft zoning
D. LUN masking
Answer: D

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CCNP Routing and Switching, Cisco

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-135 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 27
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
class B { int val;
public:
B(int v):val(v){}
int getV() const {return val;} bool operator < (const B & v) const { return val<v.val;} };
ostream & operator <<(ostream & out, const B & v) { out<<v.getV(); return out;}
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
int main() {
B t1[]={3,2,4,1,5};
B t2[]={5,6,8,2,1};
vector<B> v1(10,0);
sort(t1, t1+5);
sort(t2, t2+5);
set_symmetric_difference(t2,t2+5,t1,t1+5,v1.begin());
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), Out<B>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;
}

Program outputs:
A. 6 8 3 4 0 0 0 0 0 0
B. 3 4 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
C. 6 8 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
D. compilation error
E. 3 4 6 8 0 0 0 0 0 0
300-135 exam Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 28
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <functional>
using namespace std;
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
int main() {
int t[]={3,2,4,1,5,6,10,8,7,9};
vector<int> v1(t, t+10);
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), bind2nd(plus<int>(), 1));
for_each(v1.rbegin(), v1.rend(), Out<int>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;

}
Program outputs:
A. 3 2 4 1 5 6 10 8 7 9
B. 4 3 5 2 6 7 11 9 8 10
C. 9 7 8 10 6 5 1 4 2 3
D. 10 8 9 11 7 6 2 5 3 4
E. compilation error
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 29
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
class B { int val;
public:
B(int v=0):val(v){}
int getV() const {return val;}
operator int () const { return val;} };
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
struct Add {

B operator()(B & a, B & b) { return a+b; }};
int main() {
int t[]={1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10};
vector<B> v1(t, t+10);
vector<B> v2(10);
transform(v1.begin(), v1.end(), v2.begin(), bind1st(1,Add()));
for_each(v2.rbegin(), v2.rend(), Out<B>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
C. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
D. 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2
E. compilation error
300-135 dumps Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 30
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
int main () {
int t[] = {1,2,3,2,3,5,1,2,7,3,2,1,10, 4,4,5};

vector<int> v (t,t+15);
int number = count(v.begin(), v.end(), 2);
cout<< number<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 0
E. compilation error
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 31
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <deque>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <set>
using namespace std;
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; }
};

bool Compare(char a, char b) { return tolower(a) < tolower(b);}
int main() {
char s[]={“qwerty”};
char t1[]={“ert”};
char t2[]={“ERT”};
sort(s, s+6);
cout<<includes(s,s+6, t1,t1+3, Compare)<<” “<<includes(s,s+6, t2,t2+3, Compare)<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 0 0
B. 0 1
C. 1 0
D. 1 1
300-135 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 32
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
int main ()
{
std::vector<int>v1;
v1.push_back(10);
return 0;
}

A. compilation fails due to error in line 2
B. compilation fails due to error in line 5
C. exception is thrown during run time
D. code compiles and executes successfully
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 33
What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <set>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
int main(){
int t[] ={ 3, 4, 2, 1, 6, 5, 7, 9, 8, 0 };
vector<int>v(t, t+10);
set<int> s1(v.begin(),v.end());
s1.insert(v.begin(),v.end());
bool found = s1.find(7);
if (found){
cout<<“Element found!\n”;
}else {
cout<<“Element not found!\n”;
}
return 0;
}
A. program will display “Element found!”
B. program will display “Element not found!\n
C. code will not compile
D. changing type of variable found to int will make this code compile
300-135 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
#include <set>
using namespace std;
void myfunction(int i) {
cout << ” ” << i;
}
bool classifier(int v) {
return v%2==0;
}
int main() {
int t[] = { 1, 5, 2, 5, 2, 4, 4, 3, 3, 1 };
vector<int> v1(t, t+10);
set<int> s1(t, t+10);
replace(v1.begin(), v1.end(),classifier, 10);
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), myfunction);
return 0;

}
Program outputs:
A. 1 5 10 5 10 10 10 3 3 1
B. 1 5 2 5 2 4 4 3 3 1
C. compilation error
D. 10 10 2 10 2 4 4 10 10 10
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 35
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <deque>
#include <list>
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main ()
{
list<int>l1;
deque<int>d1;
for(int i=0; i<5; i++)
{
l1.push_back(i);l1.push_front(i);
d1.push_back(i);d1.push_front(i);
}
for(int i=0; i<d1.size(); i++)
{
cout<<d1[i]<<” “<<l1[i]<<” “;

}
cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
A. program displays 4 4 3 3 2 2 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4
B. runtime exception
C. compilation error due to line 11
D. compilation error due to line 12
E. compilation error due to line 16
300-135 exam Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 36
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <deque>
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main ()
{
int t[] = { 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 };
vector<int> v1(t, t + 10);
deque<int> d1(v1.begin(), v1.end());
deque<int> d2;
d2 = d1;
d2.insert(d1.rbegin(), 10);

for(int i = 0; i<d1.size(); i++)
{
cout<<d1[i]<<” “;
}
return 0;
}
A. program outputs: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B. program outputs: 10 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
C. program outputs: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
D. compilation error
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 37
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
cout<<100<<” “;
cout.setf(ios::hex);
cout<<100<<” “;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 100 64
B. 100 0x64
C. 0x64 0x64
D. 64 0x64
E. 100 100
300-135 dumps Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 38
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
cout.setf(ios::hex, ios::basefield);
cout<<100<<” “;
cout.flags(ios::showbase);
cout<<100<<” “;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 64 64
B. 64 0x64
C. 0x64 0x64
D. 64 100
E. compilation error
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
int main () {
int t[] = {1,2,3,2,3,5,1,2,7,3,2,1,10, 4,4,5};
vector<int> v (t,t+15);
vector<int>::iterator it = search_n(v.begin(), v.end(), 4, 2);
cout<< it?v.begin()<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 10
B. 3
C. 1
D. 15
E. compilation error
300-135 pdf Answer: D

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CCIE, Cisco

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Exam Code: 400-151
Exam Name: CCIE Data Center Written Exam
Q&As: 316

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-151 Dumps Exam Q&As:
Question: 24
Given the following SAS data set ONE:
ONE
COUNTRY CITY VISIT
—————————————–
USA BOSTON 10
UK LONDON 5
USA DALLAS 10
UK MARLOW 10
USA BOSTON 20
UK LONDON 15
USA DALLAS 10
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select country, city, sum(visit) as TOTAL
from one group by country, city
order by country, total desc;
quit;
Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. COUNTRY CITY TOTAL
—————————————–
UK MARLOW 10
UK LONDON 20USA BOSTON 50
USA DALLAS 20
B. COUNTRY CITY TOTAL
—————————————-
UK LONDON 20
UK MARLOW 10
USA BOSTON 50
USA DALLAS 20
C. COUNTRY CITY TOTAL
—————————————–
USA BOSTON 50
D. COUNTRY CITY TOTAL
—————————————–
UK MARLOW 10
UK LONDON 20
USA DALLAS 20
USA BOSTON 50
400-151 exam Answer: B
Question: 25
Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO:
ONE TWO
NUM CHAR1 NUM CHAR2
——————- ————————
1 A 2 X
2 B 3 Y
4 D 5 V
The following SAS program is submitted creating the output table THREE:
data three;
set one two;
run;
THREE
NUM CHAR1 CHAR2
—————————————
1 A
2 B
4 D
2 X
3 Y
5 V
Which one of the following SQL programs creates an equivalent SAS data set THREE?
A. proc sql;
create table three as
select *
from one
outer union corr
select *
from two;
quit;B. proc sql;
create table three as
select *
from one
outer union
select *
from two;
quit;
C. proc sql;
create table three as
select *
from one
outer union
select *
quit;
D. proc sql;
create table three as
select *
from one
union corr
select *
from two;
quit;
Answer: A
Question: 26
Which one of the following automatic SAS macro variables contains the return code from a
previously executed step?
A. &RC
B. &ERR
C. &SYSRC
D. &SYSERR
400-151 dumps Answer: D
Question: 27
The SAS data set ONE has a variable X on which an index has been created. The data sets ONE
and THREE are sorted by X. Which one of the following SAS programs uses the index to select
observations from the data set ONE?
A. data two;
set three;
set one key = X;
run;
B. data two;
set three key = X;
set one;
run;
C. data two;
set one;
set three key = X;
run;
D. data two;set three;
set one (key = X);
run;
Answer: A
Question: 28
Given the following SAS data set ONE:
ONE
REP AREA COST
————————————
SMITH NORTH 100
SMITH SOUTH 200
JONES EAST 100
SMITH NORTH 300
JONES WEST 100
JONES NORTH 200
JONES NORTH 400
SMITH NORTH 400
JONES WEST 100
JONES WEST 300
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select rep, area, count(*) as TOTAL
from one group by rep, area;
quit;
Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. REP AREA COUNT
———————————————–
JONES EAST 100
JONES NORTH 600
JONES WEST 500
SMITH NORTH 800
SMITH SOUTH 200
B. REP AREA TOTAL
———————————————–
JONES EAST 100
JONES NORTH 600
JONES WEST 500
SMITH NORTH 800
SMITH SOUTH 200
C. REP AREA TOTAL
———————————————–
JONES EAST 1
JONES NORTH 2
JONES WEST 3
SMITH NORTH 3
JONES WEST 3
SMITH NORTH 3
SMITH SOUTH 1
C. REP AREA TOTALJONES EAST 1
JONES NORTH 2
JONES WEST 3
SMITH NORTH 3
SMITH SOUTH 1
SMITH NORTH 3
SMITH SOUTH 1
400-151 pdf Answer: D
Question: 29
Which one of the following SAS procedures changes a permanent format of a variable stored in a
SAS data set?
A. MODIFY
B. FORMAT
C. CONTENTS
D. DATASETS
Answer: D
Question: 30
Given the following SAS data set SASUSER.HIGHWAY:
SASUSER.HIGHWAY
STEERING SEATBELT SPEED STATUS COUNT
————————————————————————
absent no 0-29 serious 31
absent no 0-29 not 1419
absent no 30-49 serious 191
absent no 30-49 not 2004
absent no 50+ serious 216
The following SAS program is submitted:
%macro highway;
proc sql noprint;
select count(distinct status)
into :numgrp
from sasuser.highway;
%let numgrp = &numgrp;
select distinct status
into :group1-:group&numgrp
from sasuser.highway;
quit;
%do i = 1 %to &numgrp;
proc print data = sasuser.highway;
where status = “&&group&i” ;
run;
%end;
%mend;
%highway
How many reports are produced by the above program?
A. 0
B. 1C. 2
D. 5
400-151 vce Answer: C
Question: 31
Text is sent to the SAS compiler as a result of macro execution. Which one of the following SAS
System options writes that text to the log?
A. MPRINT
B. MLOGIC
C. MSOURCE
D. SOURCE2
Answer: A
Question: 32
Given the following SAS data set ONE:
ONE
CATEGORY AGE SALARY BONUS
—————————————————
M 28 200 .
M 25 100 10
F 100 50
F 25 200 10
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
create table two as
select category, salary + bonus as EARNINGS
from one; quit;
Which one of the following represents the data values stored in the data set TWO?
A. CATEGORY EARNINGS
————————————-
M 200
M 110
F 150
F 210
B. CATEGORY EARNINGS
————————————
M .
M 110
F 150
F 210
C. CATEGORY SALARY BONUS EARNINGS
—————————————————————
M 200 . 200
M 100 10 110
F 100 50 150
F 200 10 210
D. CATEGORY SALARY BONUS EARNINGS
—————————————————————
M 200 . .
M 100 10 110
M 200 . 200
M 100 10 110
F 100 50 150
F 200 10 210
400-151 exam Answer: B
Question: 33
Which one of the following SAS SORT procedure options eliminates identical consecutive
observations?
A. NODUP
B. UNIQUE
C. DISTINCT
D. NODUPKEY
Answer: A
Question: 34
The following SAS program is submitted:
data temp;
array points{3,2}_temporary_ (10,20,30,40,50,60);
score = points{2,1}
run;
Which one of the following is the value of the variable SCORE in the data set TEMP?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
400-151 dumps Answer: C
Question: 35
The following SAS FORMAT procedure is submitted:
proc format lib = sasuser;
value tempc low < 0 = ‘BELOW FREEZING’
0 < 5 = ‘COLD’
5 < 10 = ‘MILD’
10 < 15 = ‘WARM’
15 high = ‘HOT’;
run;
How is the value 10 displayed when the format TEMPC is applied?
A. 10
B. MILD
C. WARM
D. BELOW FREEZING
Answer: C
Question: 36
Which one of the following SAS programs uses the most amount of memory resources for outputbuffers?
A. data new(bufsize = 1000 bufno = 5);
set temp;
run;
B. data new(bufsize = 1000 bufno = 2);
set temp;
run;
C. data new(bufsize = 2000 bufno = 3);
set temp;
run;
D. data new(bufsize = 4000 bufno = 1);
set temp;
run;
400-151 pdf Answer: C

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CCNA, Cisco

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QUESTION 11
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1? 200-125 pdf
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.)
A. It uses consistent route determination.
B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.
C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.
E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.
F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 13
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Correct Answer: AB
200-125 dumps QUESTION 14
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 15
Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols?
A. transport type all
B. transport output all
C. transport preferred all
D. transport input all
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs? 200-125 dumps
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco APIC-EM
D. Cisco IOS-XE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? 200-125 pdf (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 18
Which function does IP SLA ICMP ECHO operation perform to assist with troubleshooting
A. packet-loss detection
B. congestion detection
C. hop-by-hop response time
D. one way jitter measurement
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which command can you enter to display the operational status of the network ports on a router?
A. show interface switchport
B. show ip interface brief
C. show running-config interface fastethernet 0/1
D. show interface status
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Under normal operations, cisco recommends that you configure switch ports on which vlan? 200-125 dumps
A. on the default vlan
B. on the management vlan
C. on the native vlan
D. on any vlan except the default vlan
Correct Answer: D

Read more: https://www.lead4pass.com/200-125.html dumps pdf questions and answers free update.

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Cisco, ICND1

Vendo: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 239 Q&As
Last Updated: Apr 27, 2017
Exam Information:http://www.lead4pass.com/100-105.html

Cisco’s Own 100-105 PDF Analysis

Cisco has posted useful information, in fairly large volume, about the new 100-105 pdf. (Kudos to Cisco!) In particular, Cisco has broken down the content of the new exams as well. You should read their content as well, because:

  • Cisco does own the exam, so any insights directly from Cisco are very valuable
  • Their materials give much more of the context of what the exam changes mean to networkers compared to what I have written here
  • They do get into some detail about what has changed in the 100-105 pdf exam topics, with different emphasis than what I have written

This post and three other upcoming posts are an analysis of the literal exam topic documents, old and new. As you might guess, when writing the books, I have to get into the minutia of the 100-105 pdf exam topics and what they mean, so these posts take those observations at that few get to (or have to) think about.

100-105 pdf

♥♥Lead4pass Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 100-105 PDF Exam Q&As ♥♥

QUESTION 61
A BlackBerry device user who is active on a BlackBerry Enterprise Server files an email message to a subfolder in the email application and notices the email message no longer appears in the Messages list on the BlackBerry device. Why is this email message no longer viewable in the main Messages list? (Choose one.)
A. The user has the option Hide Filed Messages set to Yes
B. The current theme active on the BlackBerry device is hiding this email message
C. A corrupt Desktop [CMIME] service book
D. Folder redirection is enabled
E. The BlackBerry device email message database is corrupt

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
Which two of the following statements describe how an IT policy would facilitate an organization requirement to have secure data for all. Which two of the following statements describe how an IT policy would facilitate an organization requirement to have secure data for all computing-based BlackBerry devices? (Choose two.)
A. The BlackBerry device could be unlocked remotely
B. Content Protection could be enforced
C. By setting the Media Access policy to not allowed
D. BlackBerry Infrastructure can be notified to maintain backups of all traffic
E. BlackBerry device logging can be enabled to store every keystroke entered and recorded on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 63
Which of the following is an encryption standard that is used by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server  to communicate with BlackBerry devices? (Choose one.)
A. HTTPS
B. AES
C. TKIP
D. DES
E. TLS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
A BlackBerry device user has an email notification indicator and no unread email messages in the Messages folder. Which two of the following troubleshooting steps can be taken to remove the icon? (Choose two.)
A. Perform a hard reset on the BlackBerry device and see if the icon persists
B. Uninstall and reinstall the Messages application
C. Check all sub folders in the Messages folder for unread email messages
D. Delete the Desktop [CMIME] service book and then restore the CMIME service book to clear the Messages database
E. Perform a Reconcile Now to update all unread email messages

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 65
A BlackBerry device user Phone application is not present on the BlackBerry device, but it has been determined that the user is already running the most current version of the BlackBerry Device Software. How can the application loader tool be used to resolve the issue? (Choose one.)
A. Download and install updated Phone Application software from the service provider website
B. Run BlackBerry Diagnostics to verify the presence of BlackBerry Device Software on the BlackBerry device
C. Use the application loader tool to re-install the existing BlackBerry Device Software
D. Look for an earlier version of the Phone application on the service provider website and re- install it
E. Remove all installed applications to free up space for the Phone application

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
A BlackBerry device user on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server does not have a Send option when trying to compose or reply to email messages. Which two of the following steps can be taken to troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)
A. Perform a hard reset on the BlackBerry device and see if the issue persists
B. Uninstall and reinstall the messaging application
C. Delete all email messages and resend
D. Delete and resend the Desktop [CMIME] service book
E. Delete and resend Desktop [CICAL]

Correct Answer: AD 100-105 pdf
QUESTION 67
Which file should be edited to enable advanced logging in BlackBerry Desktop Manager? (Choose one.)
A. Dmtrace.log
B. Jvm.log
C. Tiff.log
D. iloptcfg.cfg
E. Sync.log

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 68
BlackBerry Media Sync is used for which of the following? (Choose one.)
A. Synchronizing with the My Music folder
B. Synchronizing with the media card inserted in the computer
C. Synchronizing music from Napster
D. Synchronizing non-DRM music from Apple iTunes
E. Synchronizing music between BlackBerry devices

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
Several users have just been given BlackBerry devices and want to use the Switch Device Wizard to copy information from their old devices. Which two of the following devices are compatible to do this? (Choose two.)
A. Nokia N95
B. Palm Treo 650
C. Windows Mobile 5.0 based devices
D. Motorola RAZR
E. Samsung F406

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 70
When using the backup and restore tool, which two of the following items are backed up from the BlackBerry device? (Choose two.)
A. Third party applications
B. Email messages
C. BlackBerry device password
D. The Address Book database
E. The Password list

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 71
What setting must be enabled on the BlackBerry device when connected to a computer to allow dragging and dropping of files to and from a media card inserted into the BlackBerry device? (Choose one.)
A. Mass Storage Mode Support
B. Encryption mode
C. Auto Enable Mass Storage Mode When Connected must be set to
D. JavaScript transfer protocol
E. Media Transfer Protocol

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 72
Which BlackBerry device series features a SureType keyboard? (Choose one.)
A. 88xx series
B. 83xx series
C. 86xx series
D. 81xx series
E. 87xx series

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 73
Which of the following would indicate if a BlackBerry device user has incorrectly installed BlackBerry Desktop Software for usage with a BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose one.)
A. There is no wireless enterprise activation icon on the user BlackBerry
B. There is no Email Settings icon in BlackBerry Desktop Manager
C. There is a Personal Email Setup icon on the user BlackBerry
D. BlackBerry Desktop Manager keeps asking the user to provide the login credentials for their personal email account
E. The user BlackBerry device is no longer able to send/receive enterprise email messages

Correct Answer: B

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I breezed through the first 10 questions. I got stuck on Question 11. I’ve used 25 minutes of the 100-105 pdf at this point and I am starting to freak out. JUST BREATHE. Next thing I know I’ve ripped through 25 questions and i’m at question 36 with an hour to spare. I ended up finishing the exam with 27 minutes left on the clock.

Not that it is a race, but my point is if you don’t know the answer to a question 100% then just use logic to deduct the answers you know aren’t correct, make your best choice and move on. But do not make the mistake of thinking that just because you’re reading this post, I’ve covered every point Cisco makes in their material about the 100-105 pdf exams – make sure and read their pages. Note that http://www.lead4pass.com/100-105.html is a great place to start.

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CCDE, Cisco

images (1)Exam Code: 352-001

Exam Name: ADVDESIGN (CCDE)

352-001 Exam Total Q&A: 315 Questions and Answers

Last Update: 2017-01-30

352-001 Actual Test Detail: http://www.examtrue.com/352-001.html

Exam Description
Cisco CCDE® Written Exam [352-001] version 2.1 is a 2-hour test with 90−110 questions that test a candidate’s combined knowledge of routing protocols, internetworking theory and design principles. The exam assesses a candidate’s understanding of network design in the areas of routing, tunneling, Quality of Service, Management, Cost, Capacity, and Security. This exam combines in-depth technical concepts with Network Design principles and is intended for a Network Professional with at least 7 years of experience in Network Engineering or Advanced Network Design. Product-specific knowledge including version of code, implementation and operations specific concepts is not tested on the CCDE exam. The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed.

The following 352-001 PDF topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

CCDE Written Exam Topics v2.1 (Recommended for candidates who are scheduled to take the exam on July 25, 2016 and beyond)

QUESTION 1
A network designer is redesigning an enterprise campus network to ensure that Ethernet switches
proactively attempt to reconnect after a fiber cut. In the design, they will have to address areas
where fiber cuts exist on campus from past troubleshooting, where a single fiber is disconnected in
the fiber pair, leading to looping. Which feature could be implemented in the design to allow the
Spanning Tree Protocol on the switches to be protected?

A. loop guard
B. UniDirectional Link Detection
C. UniDirectional Link Detection aggressive mode
D. root guard
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION 2
A switched network is being designed to support a manufacturing factory. Due to cost constraints,
fiber-based connectivity is not an option. Which design allows for a stable network when there is a
risk of interference from the manufacturing hardware in use on the factory floor?

A. Design the network to include UDLD to detect unidirectional links and take them out of service.
B. Design the network to include EtherChannel bundles to prevent a single-link failure from taking
down a switch interconnection point.
C. Design the network to include loop guard to prevent a loop in the switched network when a link
has too much interference.
D. Design the network to include BackboneFast on all devices to accelerate failure convergence
times.
Answer: A
Explanation:

 

QUESTION 3
A service provider has a Resilient Ethernet Protocol ring running as a metro backbone between its
locations in one city. A customer wants to connect one site with one box redundant to the Resilient
Ethernet Protocol ring at two different service provider locations. How can this be done without
producing any Layer 2 loops within the network design?

A. Spanning tree at the service provider side only must be enabled.
B. Spanning tree at the customer side only must be enabled.
C. Flex Links at the service provider side only must be enabled.
D. Flex Links at the customer side only must be enabled.
E. EtherChannel at the service provider side and the customer side must be enabled.
F. Spanning tree at the service provider side and the customer side must be enabled.
G. Flex Links at the service provider side and the customer side must be enabled.
Answer: D
Explanation:

 

QUESTION 4
You have created a network design that has two point-to-point Metro Ethernet circuits extending a
single production VLAN between two data centers. Under normal circumstances, one circuit will
carry traffic and spanning tree will block the other. If the company wants you to make use of both
circuits to carry production traffic, which two technologies and features will you investigate to
integrate into your network design? (Choose two.)
A. EtherChannel
B. MST
C. Multichassis EtherChannel
D. PVST+
Answer: A,C
Explanation: 070-410 exam

 

QUESTION 5
Voice traffic between two campus enterprise networks is growing. The network designers decide
to add a second 10-Mb Metro Ethernet service parallel to their original 10-Mb service in order to
provide more bandwidth and diversity. The QoS profile will be the same on the new 10-Mb service
due to the voice stability on the first Metro Ethernet link. When the second link is added to the
OSPF domain, which traffic design consideration would have the most impact on the voice traffic
when both links are active?

A. per-destination IP address basis
B. per-flow basis
C. per-packet basis
D. per-source IP address basis
Answer: C
Explanation:

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CCNA Security, Cisco

Test Number: 210-260
Total Questions: 226
Vendor Name: CISCO
Cert Name: CCNA SECURITY
Test Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Official Site: http://www.examtrue.com/
For More Details: http://www.examtrue.com/210-260.html

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Fundamentals of VPN Technology and Cryptography

1. What algorithms in a VPN provide the confidentiality? (Choose all that apply.)
a. MD5
b. SHA-1
c. AES
d. 3DES

2. A remote user needs to access the corporate network from a hotel room from a laptop.
What type of VPN is used for this?
a. Site-to-site VPN
b. Dial-up VPN
c. PPP VPN
d. Remote-access VPN

3. Which type of VPN technology is likely to be used in a site-to-site VPN?
a. SSL
b. TLS
c. HTTPS
d. IPsec

4. Which two of the following are benefits of VPNs?
a. Hashing
b. Confidentiality
c. Diffie-Hellman
d. Data integrity

5. Which of the following are symmetrical encryption ciphers? (Choose all that apply.)
a. SHA1
b. AES
c. RSA
d. 3DES

6. What is the primary difference between a hash and Hashed Message Authentication
Code (HMAC)?
a. Keys
b. MD5
c. SHA1
d. AES

7. What is used to encrypt the hash in a digital signature?
a. Sender’s public key
b. Sender’s private key
c. Receiver’s public key
d. Receiver’s private key

8. What are valid options to protect data in motion with or without a full VPN? (Choose
all that apply.)
a. TLS
b. SSL
c. HTTPS
d. IPsec

9. Why is the public key in a typical public-private key pair referred to as public?
a. Because the public already has it.
b. Because it is shared publicly.
c. Because it is a well-known algorithm that is published.
d. The last name of the creator was publica, which is Latin for public.

10. What is the key component used to create a digital signature?
a. Ink
b. Public key
c. Private key
d. AES

11. What is the key component used to verify a digital signature?
a. Sender’s public key
b. Receiver’s public key
c. AES
d. One-time PAD

12. What is another name for a hash that has been encrypted with a private key?
a. MD5
b. SHA-1
c. AES
d. Digital signature

13. What are the primary responsibilities for a certificate authority (CA)? (Choose all that
apply.)
a. Verification of certificates
b. Issuing identity certificates
c. Maintaining client’s private keys
d. Tracking identity certificates

14. Which of the following is not a way for a client to check to see whether a certificate
has been revoked?
a. Look at the lifetime of the certificate itself
b. CRL
c. OSCP
d. LDAP

15. Which of the following could be found in a typical identity certificate? (Choose all
that apply.)
a. CRL locations
b. Validity date
c. Public key of the certificate owner
d. Serial number

16. Which standard format is used to request a digital certificate from a CA?
a. PKCS#7
b. PKCS#10
c. LDAP
d. TLS/SSL/HTTPS

17. When obtaining the initial root certificate, what method should be used for validation
of the certificate?
a. Sender’s public key
b. Telephone
c. HTTPS/TLS/SSL
d. Receiver’s private key

18. Which method, when supported by both the client and the CA, is the simplest to use
when implementing identity certificates on the client?
a. PKCS#7
b. PKCS#10
c. SCEP
d. LDAP

Fundamentals of IP Security

1. Which technology is a primary method that IPsec uses to implement data integrity?
a. MD5
b. AES
c. RSA
d. DH

2. What are the source and destination addresses used for an encrypted IPsec packet?
a. Original sender and receiver IP addresses
b. Original sender’s and outbound VPN gateway’s addresses
c. Sending and receiving VPN gateways
d. Sending VPN gateway and original destination address in the packet

3. Which phase is used for private management traffic between the two VPN peers?
a. IPsec
b. IKE Phase 1
c. IKE Phase 2
d. IKE Phase 3

4. Which of the following are negotiated during IKE Phase 1?
a. Hashing
b. DH group
c. Encryption
d. Authentication method

5. What method is used to allow two VPN peers to establish shared secret keys and to
establish those keys over an untrusted network?
a. AES
b. SHA
c. RSA
d. DH    200-310 vce

6. Which of the following is not part of the IKE Phase 1 process?
a. Negotiation of the IKE Phase 1 protocols
b. Running DH
c. Authenticating the peer
d. Negotiating the transform set to use

7. How is the negotiation of the IPsec (IKE Phase 2) tunnel done securely?
a. Uses the IKE Phase 1 tunnel
b. Uses the IPsec tunnel
c. Uses the IKE Phase 2 tunnel
d. Uses RSA

8. What are the two main methods for authenticating a peer as the last step of IKE Phase
1? (Choose all that apply.)
a. RSA signatures, using digital certificates to exchange public keys
b. PSK (pre-shared key)
c. DH Group 2
d. TCP three-way handshake

9. Which component acts as an if-then statement, looking for packets that should be
encrypted before they leave the interface?
a. crypto isakmp policy
b. crypto map
c. crypto ipsec transform-set
d. crypto access-list (access list used for cryptography)

10. What is true about symmetrical algorithms and symmetrical crypto access lists used
on VPN peers?
a. Symmetrical algorithms use the same secret (key) to lock and unlock the data.
Symmetrical ACLs between two VPN peers should symmetrically swap the
source and destination portions of the ACL.
b. Symmetrical algorithms like RSA use the same secret (key) to lock and unlock the
data. Symmetrical ACLs between two VPN peers should symmetrically swap the
source and destination portions of the ACL.
c. Symmetrical algorithms use the same secret (key) to lock and unlock the data.
Symmetrical ACLs between two VPN peers should be identical.
d. Symmetrical algorithms use the same secret (key) to lock and unlock the data.
Symmetrical ACLs between two VPN peers require that only symmetrical algorithms
be used for all aspects of IPsec.

11. Which one of the following commands reveal the ACLs, transform sets, and peer
information and indicate which interface is being used to connect to the remote IPsec
VPN peer?
a. show crypto map
b. show crypto isakmp policy
c. show crypto config
d. show crypto ipsec sa

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CCIE, Cisco

Total Questions: 745
Test Number: 350-018
Vendor Name: Cisco
Cert Name:  CCIE
Test Name: CCIE Security written (Version 4.0)
Official Site: http://www.passcerty.com/
Test Information: http://www.passcerty.com/350-018.html

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Question: 1
Which statement is valid regarding SGACL?
A. SGACL mapping and policies can only be manually configured.
B. Dynamically downloaded SGACL does not override manually configured conflicting policies.
C. SGACL is access-list bound with a range of SGTs and DGTs.
D. SGACL is not a role-based access list.
Answer: C   
Explanation:
A role-based access control list bound to a range of SGTs and DGTs forms an SGACL
Reference:

 

Question: 2
Of which IPS application is Event Store a component?
A. InterfaceApp
B. AuthenticationApp
C. SensorApp
D. NotificationApp
E. MainApp
Answer: E   
Explanation:
Cisco IPS software includes the following applications:
MainApp—Initializes the system, starts and stops the other applications, configures the OS, and performs upgrades. It contains the following components:
–ctlTransSource (Control Transaction server)—Allows sensors to send control transactions. This is used to enable the master blocking sensor capability of Attack Response Controller (formerly known as Network Access Controller).
–Event Store—An indexed store used to store IPS events (error, status, and alert system messages) that is accessible through the CLI, IDM, IME, ASDM, or SDEE.
Reference:

 

Question: 3
Refer to the exhibit.
1
Which two statements about this debug output are true? (Choose two.)
A. The request is from NHC to NHS.
B. The request is from NHS to NNC.
C. 192.168.10.2 is the remote NBMA address.
D. 192.168.10.1 is the local VPN address.
E. 69.1.1.2 is the local non-routable address.
F. This debug output represents a failed NHRP request.
Answer: A, D   70-697 exam

 

Question: 4
Which statement describes RA?
A. The RA is not responsible to verify users request for digital certificates.
B. The RA is part of private key infrastructure.
C. The RA has the power to accept registration requests and to issue certificates.
D. The RA only forwards the requests to the CA to issue certificates.
Answer: D

 

 

Question: 5
Refer to the exhibit
2
Against which type of attack does the given configuration protect?
A. pharming
B. a botnet attack
C. phishing
D. DNS hijacking
E. DNS cache poisoning
Answer: B

 

Question: 6
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the description on the left onto the associated items on the right.
3
Answer:
Collection of similar programs that work together to execute specific tasks – botnet
Independent malicious program copies itself from one host to another host over a network and carries other programs – Viruses
Programs that appear to have one function but actually perform a different function – Trojan horse
Programs that modify other programs and that attach themselves to other programs on execution – Worms
Reference:

 

Question: 7
Refer to the exhibit.
4
Which option describes the behavior of this configuration?

A. The switch initiates the authentication.
B. The client initiates the authentication.
C. The device performs subsequent IEEE 802.1X authentication if it passed MAB authentication. If the device fails IEEE 802.1X, it will start MAB again.
D. Devices that perform IEEE 802.1X should be in the MAC address database for successful authentication.
E. IEEE 802.1x devices must first authenticate via MAB to perform subsequent IEEE 802.1X authentication. If 802.1X fails, the device is assigned to the default guest VLAN.
Answer: C

Question: 8
Which two statements about the RC4 algorithm are true? (Choose two.)

A. The RC4 algorithm is an asymmetric key algorithm.
B. In the RC4 algorithm, the 40-bit key represents four characters of ASCII code.
C. The RC4 algorithm is faster in computation than DES.
D. The RC4 algorithm uses variable-length keys.
E. The RC4 algorithm cannot be used with wireless encryption protocols.
Answer: C, D

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