Microsoft, Microsoft SharePoint Applications

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Exam Code: 70-488
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions
Q&As: 131

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70-488 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-488 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 73
S5600 control panel box must be safe FC hard disk or SSD hard disk (S5300 and S5500 control
box control boxes do not have this requirement), control box, hard disk drives and other types of
hard disk box for SATA hard drives or FC drives or SSD drives.
A. True
B. False
70-488 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 74
How many hard drives to create a complete RAID5 requires at least?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 75
SSDs Compared to traditional mechanical hard drives advantages excluding Which?
A. Higher IOPS
B. Larger capacity
C. Low noise
D. Less prone to mechanical wear
70-488 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 76
Upgrade for S5000 need to upgrade SES, and then upgrade the controller software
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 77
In S5000T product features can be completed without interruption of business are. (Choose three)
A. Expand storage capacity
B. Hardware module upgrades
C. Online Upgrade
D. A copy of the full amount LUN
70-488 pdf Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 78
Full range of products in accordance with the storage location and classification, which of the
following products do not belong to the network storage products? (Choose two)
A. S2600
B. CSS
C. iNVS
D. S5000 S5000T
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 79
After storing the file import license, you need to reboot the array
A. True
B. False
70-488 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 80
After the windows system scan to LUN storage resources, you first need to initialize the LUN
space operations.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 81
Network storage system includes morphological SAS, NAS, SAN.
A. True
B. False
70-488 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 82
Fibre Channel protocol support topology what? (Choose three)
A. Point
B. Switched
C. Hybrid
D. Arbitrated loop
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 83
The following are journaled file system? (Choose three)
A. fat32
B. ntfs
C. jfs
D. xfs
70-488 dumps Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 84
In S5000T, for example, the principle of fault diagnosis for storage devices: (Choose three)
A. First diagnosis of external factors,internal factors after diagnosis.
B. First diagnosis overall,partial diagnosis.
C. First analysis of high-level alarm,low level alarm after analysis.
D. First check service after checking storage
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 85
S5000T redundant disk array control module includes box: (Choose three)
A. Backplane Modules
B. Controller Module
C. The battery module
D. Power – Fan Module
70-488 pdf Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 86
Optical fiber cables, including: (Choose three)
A. Core
B. Cladding
C. Shield
D. Cover
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 87
iSCSI host adapter (HBA) is responsible for implementing iSCSI layer and the TCP / IP protocol
stack functionality
A. True
B. False
70-488 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 88
About SUSE 10.0 under the open iSCSI service operation is correct: (Choose three)
A. rcopen-iscsi start
B. / etc / init.d / open-iscsi stop
C. / etc / init.d / open-iscsi status
D. / etc / init.d / iscsi restart
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 89
In the same RAID group, allowing simultaneous failure of two members of the panel and still full
RAID -level data may have () (Choose three)
A. RAID1
B. RAID 6
C. RAID 5
D. RAID01
70-488 exam Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 90
Master Boot Record (MBR) partition supports a maximum volume of 2 PB
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 91
NAS server does not support the agreement are:
A. ftp
B. iSCSI
C. CIFS
D. NFS
70-488 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 92
The role of multi- path software: (Choose three)
A. High Availability
B. Load Balancing
C. Active I / O path testing and automatic path to recovery
D. Improve reading array cache hit rate
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 93
Linux mount the file system under which command?
A. umount
B. mount
C. mout
D. unmount
70-488 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 94
In the same S5000T storage system, you cannot set multiple hot spare
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 95
The following hardware instead of using the FC protocol to communicate is:
A. iSCSI card
B. FC drives
C. FC switch
D. FC HBA card
70-488 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 96
Which of the following operating systems are Linux system? (Choose three)
A. WSS
B. SLES
C. RHEL
D. CentOS
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 97
RAID5 disk utilization levels of RAID group (N: number of member disks):
A. N / (N-1)
B. 100%
C. (N-1) / N
D. 1 / (2N)
70-488 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 98
SAN storage system power down operations require strict accordance with the instructions, the
power-up sequence is generally: hard disk storage box – storage control box – switch – server ;
under the power-up sequence is generally: Confirm hosting business stop – next server power –
switch power off – the control box under the power – the hard frame power ;
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 99
If the S2600 is full with 12 hard drives, it is recommended to configure several RAID group
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
70-488 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 100
The old version has been installed on the application server UltraPath for Windows; a new version
of UltraPath for Windows can perform an upgrade installation directly
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 101
Direct Connect networking advantages S5000T description right there () (Choose two)
A. Network build low cost;
B. Proprietary data channel can ensure maximum throughput applications between servers and
storage devices
C. Not fully utilize the storage capacity of the device is connected
D. Multiple servers to share data on the disk array
70-488 pdf Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 102
Which of the following documents are Open-iSCSI default configuration file:
A. / etc / iscsi / iscsid.conf
B. / etc / iscsi / initiatorname.iscsi
C. / etc / iscsi / send_targets
D. / etc / iscsi / nodes
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 103
T3200/T3500 G2 does not support cascading, networking is very simple, two business
management network port and an Ethernet port to connect to the switch via the network cable.
A. True
B. False
70-488 vce Answer: A

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Microsoft, Microsoft Specialist

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Exam Code: 70-694
Exam Name: Virtualizing Enterprise Desktops and Apps
Updated: Aug 21, 2017
Q&As: 112

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-694 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 32
Which two features of FileMaker Pro 12 require indexing in order to work? (Choose two.)
A. The List function
B. Auto-complete using existing values
C. Dynamic value lists based on FileMaker tables
D. Dynamic subsummary reports in Browse mode
E. The ExecuteSQL calculation function with a JOIN in the query
70-694 exam Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 33
Which statement is true of a container field set to Store container data externally in FileMaker Pro
12?
A. The field cannot have the Interactive content option selected in the Inspector in Layout mode.
B. Data will not be stored externally if the file is transferred to an iOS device and used via
FileMaker Go 12.
C. Externally stored container data will not be backed up by FileMaker Server 12 scheduled
backup routines.
D. Externally stored container data can be stored on a local hard drive or a Storage Area Network
(SAN) device, but cannot be stored on a Network Attached Storage (NAS) device.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 34
Given the following Relationships Graph for a FileMaker Pro 12 database, where Employee,
Manager, and Trainer are all table occurrences sharing the same source table:

Assuming the relevant fields also exist in these tables, which two sets of data can be shown in
portals without modifying the graph? (Choose two.)
A. A portal of students that have not enrolled in a class
B. A portal of trainers that have taught their own manager
C. A portal of the classes that have been attended by a manager’s team
D. A portal showing a non-repeating list of courseware titles taught by a trainer
E. A portal of classes in which a manager enrolled with one or more of the manager’s team
70-694 dumps Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
For which two is it possible to specify conditional formatting? (Choose two.)
A. A Tab panel
B. The body part of a layout
C. The title of a chart object
D. A merge symbol (e.g. « CurrrentDate »)
E. An inserted graphic formatted as a button
F. A rectangle object being used as a graphical background
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36

Which statement is true regarding layout themes in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. A Touch theme (e.g. River Touch) must be used for a layout to be compatible with iOS devices.
B. Changing a layout to the Classic theme of the Basic theme group will leave all objects and their
styles unaffected.
C. The style attributes for a new object (e.g. field or text box) added to a layout will be determined
by the layout part in which it is created
D. Changing a layout’s theme will optionally update all layouts sharing the same original theme by
choosing Update matching layouts in the Change Theme dialog.
E. Holding down the Control (Windows) or Command (Mac OS X) keys while clicking the Apply
theme styles button of the Inspector, the object styles of the currently selected object will be
applied to all objects of the same type on the layout.
70-694 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
Which statement is true regarding layout objects in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. Along with line styles, corner radius settings are set individually for each tab panel in a tab
control.
B. Fill patterns can only be applied to shapes (i.e. rectangles, rounded rectangles, and ovals) in
Layout mode.
C. A text object set as a field’s Label using the Accessibility Inspector is automatically grouped
with the field.
D. Object Effects (Engraved, Embossed, and Drop Shadow) can only be applied to fields, buttons,
or text objects.
E. An object Name set using the Inspector is the same as the object Title set using the
Accessibility Inspector and can be edited in either place.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 38
Which statement is true about portals in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. Conditional formatting can be applied to a portal row.
B. An OnObjectEnter script trigger applied to a portal will activate once for each portal row as a
user tabs from field to field across rows.
C. A portal set with only a bottom anchor containing fields set with only a top anchor will increase
row height as the layout is expanded vertically.
D. Records in a portal can become unsorted if the developer unchecks “Keep records in sorted
order” in the Portal Setup > Sort Records dialog.
E. If there are multiple portals on a layout, the Go to Portal Row [First] script step will activate the
portal closest to the top left corner of the layout.
70-694 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
The text field productCode has a script trigger set to activate OnObjectKeystroke and runs the
following script:
If [Length (File::productCode) > 7]
Exit Script [Result: 0]
Else
Set Field [File::productCode; File::productCode & “-“]
End If
The field productCode has the value of 12-1415. A user types a 6 in the field at the end of the
value.
What is the resulting value in the field after the script trigger has processed?
A. 12-1415
B. 12-1415-
C. 12-14156
D. 12-14156-
E. 12-1415-6
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40

Which two statements are true if a layout is configured with an OnRecordLoad script trigger
enabled in both Browse and Find modes? (Choose two.)
A. It will be activated by entering Find mode.
B. It will be activated by creating a new window.
C. It will be activated when records are imported.
D. It will not be activated while switching records in Table view.
70-694 exam Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 41
Which default layout theme will be chosen by FileMaker Pro 12 for layouts automatically created
when a new table is added to the file?
A. The theme of the most recently edited layout
B. The theme of the most recently viewed layout
C. The theme of the most recently created layout
D. The Classic theme of the Basic theme group
E. The Cool theme of the Classic Refined theme group
F. The Cool Gray theme of the FileMaker Millennium theme group
70-694 dumps Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
Which statement is true about the sort order of data in portals in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. The sort setting applied to the portal in Layout mode can only include fields from the portal’s
table.
B. If the relationship that defines the portal’s record set includes a Sort records setting, unindexed
fields in the sort setting will be ignored.
C. If the relationship that defines the portal’s record set includes a Sort records setting, any sort
setting applied to the portal in Layout mode will be ignored.
D. If there are multiple sorted relationships defined between the layout’s table occurrence and the
portal’s table occurrence, the portal records will be sorted based upon the relationship closest to
the portal’s table occurrence.
E. If there are multiple sorted relationships defined between the layout’s table occurrence and the
portal’s table occurrence, the portal records will combine the Sort records settings of all of those
relationships, sub-sorting by the relationships closest to the portal’s table occurrence.
Answer: D
Explanation:

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Microsoft, Windows Server 2012

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Exam Code: 070-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Aug 14, 2017
Q&As: 503

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16.Your NetBackup environment will consist of four media servers and a robot with
two tape drives. The media servers and the robot are SAN attaches. Each media
servers also functions as a large file server on the network.
Which three goals will be addressed by implementing the Shared Storage Option in
this environment? (Choose three)
A. minimized network traffic during the backup window
B. high performance on the four local media server backups
C. high performance on remote(network) client backups
D. improved tape drive usage among media servers.
E. improved performance data collection for backups
070-410 exam Answer: A,B,D
17.Your environment uses a SAN for disk access.
Which feature of NetBackup 5.0 Advanced Client is appropriate?

A. fast backups
B. off-host backups
C. referential backups D.
incremental backups
Answer: B
18.You are in the process of disaster recovery planning. Your focus is on the
recovery of IT systems. In your evaluation of the environment you must collect
data regarding the physical locations.
Which list contains the main categories of disasters?
A. logical (hardware-related)
logical (software-related)
environmental
B. management failures
Logical (software-related)
environmental
C. SPDFA logical(software
related) environmental(software
related) D. hardware failure
logical(software-related)
environmental
070-410 dumps Answer: D
19.You are encountering problems with host names and network connections. You have
already verified that the correct client and server host names are configured in
NetBackup.
Which commands do you use to verify name resolution on UNIX and Windows clients?
A. bpexpdate
B. bpclntcmd
C. bptest
D. bpverify
Answer: B
20.Your NetBackup environment will consist of two media servers (Server A and Server B)
and a robot with four tape drives. Each media server also functions as a large files server
on the network.
Which design best uses the available hardware?
A. configures Server A as the robot control host, configure the four drives on ServerB
B. configure Server A as the robot control host, configure two drives on each media

server
C. configures both media servers as the robot control hosts, configure the four drives on
ServerA
D. configure both media servers as the robot control hosts, configure two drives on each
media server
070-410 pdf Answer: B

21.This standard addresses restricting physical access to electronic PHI data through interface devices to
authorized users:
A. Facility Security Plan
B. Person or Entity Authentication

C. Workstation Security
D. Contingency Plan
E. Access Control
Answer: C
22.An addressable Implementation Specification of Facility Access Controls is:
A. Unauthorized Access
B. Security Configurations
C. Accountability
D. Maintenance Records
E. Media Disposal
070-410 vce Answer: D
23.This HIPAA security category covers the use of locks, keys and administrative measures used to
control access to computer systems:
A. Technical Safeguards
B. Technical Services
C. Physical Security Policy
D. Administrative Safeguards
E. Physical Safeguards
Answer: E
24.Media Re-use is a required implementation specification associated with which security standard?
A. Facility Access Controls
B. Workstation Use
C. Workstation Security
D. Device and Media Controls
E. Access Control
070-410 exam Answer: D
25.This is a standard within Physical Safeguards
A. Contingency Operations
B. Workstation Use
C. Security Incident Management
D. Disaster Recovery E. Disposal
Answer: B
26.How does EnCase verify that the evidence file contains an exact copy of the suspect hard drive? How does
EnCase verify that the evidence file contains an exact copy of the suspect’s hard drive?
A. By means of a CRC value of the suspect hard drive compared to a CRC value of the data stored in the
evidence file.By means of a CRC value of the suspect? hard drive compared to a CRC value of the data
stored in the evidence file.
B. By means of an MD5 hash of the suspect hard drive compared to an MD5 hash of the data stored in the
evidence file.By means of an MD5 hash of the suspect? hard drive compared to an MD5 hash of the data
stored in the evidence file.
C. By means of a CRC value of the evidence file itself.
D. By means of an MD5 hash value of the evidence file itself.
070-410 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
27.By default, EnCase will display the data from the end of a logical file, to the end of the cluster, in what color:
A. Red
B. Red on black
C. Black on red
D. Black
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
28.A SCSI drive is pinned as a master when it is:
A. The only drive on the computer.
B. The primary of two drives connected to one cable.
C. Whenever another drive is on the same cable and is pinned as a slave.
D. A SCSI drive is not pinned as a master.
070-410 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
29.The following GREP expression was typed in exactly as shown. Choose the answer(s) that would result. [^a-z]
Tom[^a-z]
A. Tomato
B. om? ? RP

C. Toms
D. Stomp
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
30.This question addresses the EnCase for Windows search process. If a target word is within a logical file, and it
begins in cluster 10 and ends in cluster 15 (the word is fragmented), the search:
A. Will not find it unlessile slack is checked on the search dialog box.
B. Will find it because EnCase performs a logical search.
C. Will not find it because EnCase performs a physical search only.
D. Will not find it because the letters of the keyword are not contiguous.
070-410 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
31.An evidence file was archived onto five CD-Rom disks with the third file segment on disk number three. Can
the contents of the third file segment be verified by itself while still on the CD?
A. No. Archived files are compressed and cannot be verified until un-archived.
B. No. All file segments must be put back together.
C. Yes. Any segment of an evidence file can be verified through re-computing and comparing the CRCs, even
if it is on a CD.
D. No. EnCase cannot verify files on CDs.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
32.The case file should be archived with the evidence files at the termination of a case.
A. True
B. False
070-410 exam Correct Answer:
Explanation
33.A signature analysis has been run on a case. The result “Bad Signature ” means:
A. The file signature is known and does not match a known file header.

B. The file signature is known and the file extension is known.
C. The file signature is known and does not match a known file extension.
D. The file signature is unknown and the file extension is known.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
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MCSA, Microsoft

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Exam Code: 70-743
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA: Windows Server 2016
Updated: Aug 10, 2017
Q&As: 107

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QUESTION 1
What is a legally secure contract for NSN and a Customer?
A. If NSN has a long-running relationship with the customer, so a “gentlemen’s” or “verbal” agreement is
enough, especially in some countries.
B. A PO with the payment terms defined is sufficient, provided NSN had contractual relationship with the
customer in the past.
C. Terms and conditions documenting the commitments of both parties needs to be written and signed.
D. A detailed customer Purchase Order with a description of the Services Ordered is sufficient.
70-743 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
What is CaPM’s PRIMARY responsibility in the tendering process?
A. To help the Account Manager to prepare a Customer Care Contract.
B. To support the Account Manager to negotiate the Care Contract with the Customer.
C. To consult the Service Engagement Manager to ensure availability of price options for Care Services.
D. To act as the CT contact to the Care organisation and to support the CT in all tendering activities
where Care services are being considered.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
When does the Care phase start?
A. When the network, sub-network or deliverables get Customer final acceptance.
B. When the project phase is completed.
C. When the Account Manager receives the final payment from the Customer.
D. When the Care Plan has been accepted by the Customer.
70-743 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Who should NOT participate in a Care Services tender?
A. Service Product Manager.
B. Cost Manager.
C. Care Program Manager.
D. R&D Engineer.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
The following action must take place if NSN are not SOX Compliant:
A. NSN will be fined 2.5 times the annual value of the contract.
B. CT Head will be dismissed from NSN with 30 days notice.
C. A new Contract signed and Customer Purchase Order issued as soon as possible.
D. We must receive a Customer Purchase Order within 5 working days.
70-743 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
How many milestones (gates) are defined in the contract renewal process?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which of the following statements is true to be SOX Compliant in SDM-EX4-Care Contract Management?
A. NSN must have a letter of intent from the Customer’s Legal Department.
B. NSN must have a written, signed Contract and a Customer Purchase Order.
C. NSN must have a Customer Purchase Order for the actual Care we are delivering.
D. NSN must have a Contract defined in CDB and a Customer Purchase Order.
70-743 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
A customer pays for a 5-year warranty contract. What contract type is used in CDB/SAP?
A. Care Agreement.
B. Warranty Standard contract.
C. Warranty Extended contract.
D. 1st Warranty Standard and the next 4 as Warranty Extended contract.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Who approves free of charge services included in the Care Contract?
A. Care Program Manager.
B. Head of CT after consulting Sales Director.
C. Depending on NSN policy regarding discounts the person may vary.
D. Sales Director.
70-743 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
According to the contract renewal process, when should be the first contract proposal presented to the
customer ? (T = expiration time of current contract)
A. T – 4 months.
B. T – 3 months.
C. As soon as prepared.
D. T – 6 months.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
A customer has a free 3-year warranty contract. What contract type is used in CDB/SAP?
A. Care Agreement.
B. Warranty Standard contract.
C. Warranty Extended contract.
D. 1st Warranty Standard and Warranty Extended for the next 2 years.
70-743 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
In which documents are the Care service level commitments with the customer officially stated?
A. Account plan.
B. Project Plan.
C. Care Agreement.
D. Care Plan.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
What standard response times for trouble resolution and technical query should be proposed to a new
customer?
A. Response times which are defined in a Service Level Agreement between Care Services and Business
Unit / Product Line.
B. Response times in other CTs in the same country.
C. Response times which are defined in the global Care Contract Template.
D. Customer requirements.
70-743 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
A large price increase is demanded when renewing a 3rd Party Service Contract. What should be done in
this case?
A. Care Program Manager should inform the customer about higher service fee for the coming period.
B. Care Program Manager should check the existing Frame or local Agreements to see if the increase is
allowed in the 3rd party contract.
C. The Logistics Coordinator should rise a new Purchase Order for the higher value.
D. CaPM should reject the offer/invoice and just order what was agreed before.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
What is the next step after receiving a quotation for renewal of services from 3rd party suppliers?
A. Care Program Manager should contact the 3rd Party Service Manager to check the renewal options in
the existing Frame or Local Agreement.
B. Care Program Manager should ask Logistics Coordinator to raise a Purchase Order.
C. Care Program Manager should contact the Supplier to discuss further discounts.
D. Care Program Manager should contact the appropriate Product Line and ask for advice.
70-743 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
A Care Program Manager has to enable a customer’s NOLS access. Who has to be involved?
A. F&C and the CT must be involved.
B. Legal and NOLS support is required to set up a separate agreement.
C. This can be done by the Care Program Manager alone.
D. This is an administrative task handled by NOLS support.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
A contract is renewed in which the terms, conditions and price have remained the same but the scope has
changed. In order to maintain SOX compliance what should be done?
A. A simple contract extension is needed in CDB as the major terms and conditions are the same.
B. A new contract should be created in CDB as the scope has changed.
C. Terms and conditions are the same, only scope has been changed. So a simple contract extension is
all that is needed.
D. If a contract is renewed, it is mandatory to create a new contract in CDB.
70-743 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
What needs to be done if a 3rd Party Service Contract is due to expire?
A. Care Program Manager should contact the 3rd Party Service Manager and supplier representatives to
renew the contract.
B. Care Program Manger should inform Product Line.
C. Care Program Manager should inform the Customer to renew the contract directly with the supplier.
D. The Care Program Manager should inform the Service Engagement Manager.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
A contract is about to expire but there is already a PO for the next year from the customer. Is there a need
for CSDA?
A. No, because CSDA is to ensure that NSN doesn’t deliver services without money. If there is a PO
already in place before expiration, the CaPM just updates the contract end date.
B. No, because PO is in place and invoicing is uninterrupted. After getting the written consent of the CT
head and F&C Controller, contract prolongation in CDB is the next step and delivery continues.
C. Yes, CSDA is still needed because the contract is not signed. It means NSN is legally still vulnerable
and management needs to grant written approval to acknowledge the higher risk.
D. Yes, NSN needs to send a CSDA to inform higher management that a contract expired but delivery
continues as the PO is in place.
70-743 dumps Correct Answer: C

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Microsoft, Windows Server 2012

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Exam Code:70-417
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Updated: Feb 23, 2017
Q&As: 427
Exam Information: http://www.teststarter.com/70-417.html
  Printable PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B2TyWAkDAzwIX090cjRidExIaGs

QQ截图20170302143240

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Share some Microsoft Specialist 70-417 Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed. On Server1, you create and start a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 is configured as shown in the following table.
QQ图片20170302143813
You plan to create a checkpoint of VM1.
You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of disk space used for the checkpoint of VM1.
What should you do before you create the checkpoint?
A. Decrease the Maximum RAM.
B. Convert Disk1.vhd to a dynamically expanding disk.
C. Run the Stop-VM cmdlet.
D. Run the Resize-VHD cmdlet.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
For checkpoints created when the virtual machine is stopped The checkpoint contains the state of the hard
disks only. For checkpoints created when the virtual machine is running The checkpoint contains the state
of the hard disks and the data in memory. Note: A checkpoint saves the state of each virtual hard disk that
is attached to a virtual machine and all of the hard disk’s contents, including application data files. For
virtual machines on Hyper-V and VMware ESX Server hosts, a checkpoint also saves the hardware
configuration information. By creating checkpoints for a virtual machine, you can restore the virtual
machine to a previous state.

QUESTION 2
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
QQ图片20170302143939
You install a network monitoring application on VM2.
You need to ensure that all of the traffic sent to VM3 can be captured on VM2.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: J
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With Hyper-V Virtual Switch port mirroring, you can select the switch ports that are monitored as well as
the switch port that receives copies of all the traffic. And since Port mirroring allows the network traffic of a
virtual machine to be monitored by copying the traffic and forwarding it to another virtual machine that is
configured for monitoring, you should configure port mirroring on VM2.
References:

QUESTION 3
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
QQ图片20170302144101
You plan to schedule a complete backup of Server1 by using Windows Server Backup.
You need to ensure that the state of VM1 is saved before the backup starts.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: I
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Integration Services settings on virtual machines include services such as operating system
shutdown, time synchronization, data exchange, Heartbeat, and Backup (volume snapshot services). This
snapshot will ensure that the state of VM1 is saved prior to backup.
References:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd405549(v=vs.85).aspx Exam Ref 70-410, Installing and
Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create and Configure
virtual machine settings, p. 144

QUESTION 4
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
QQ图片20170302144205
VM3 is used to test applications.
You need to prevent VM3 from synchronizing its clock to Server1.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: I
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Integration Services settings on virtual machines includes services such as operating system shutdown,
time synchronization, data exchange, Heart beat, and Backup (volume snapshot services. Thus you
should disable the time synchronization using Integration Services.
References:

QUESTION 5
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
QQ图片20170302144301
VM2 sends and receives large amounts of data over the network.
You need to ensure that the network traffic of VM2 bypasses the virtual switches of the parent partition.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: K
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Single-root I/O virtualization -capable network adapters can be assigned directly to a virtual machine to
maximize network throughput while minimizing network latency and the CPU overhead required for
processing network traffic.
References:

QUESTION 6
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1.
You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. The imagex.exe command
B. The ocsetup.exe command
C. The setup.exe command
D. The dism.exe command
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The DISM command is called by the Add-WindowsFeature command. Here is the systax for DISM:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /featurename:Server- Gui- Shell /
featurename:Server-Gui-Mgmt
QQ图片20170302144402

QUESTION 7
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You plan to create an image of Server1.
You need to remove the source files for all server roles that are not installed on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. dism.exe
B. servermanagercmd.exe
C. ocsetup.exe
D. imagex.exe
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Dism utility can be used to create and mount an image of Server1.
References:

QUESTION 8
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has following storage
spaces:
Data
Users
Backups
Primordial
You add an additional hard disk to Server1.
You need to identify which storage space contains the new hard disk.
Which storage space contains the new disk?
A. Primordial
B. Data
C. Backups
D. Users
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012.
You create a group Managed Service Account named gservice1.
You need to configure a service named Service1 to run as the gservice1 account.
How should you configure Service1?
A. From a command prompt, run ss.exe and specify the config parameter.
B. From a command prompt, run ss.exe and specify the sdset parameter.
C. From the Services console, configure the General settings.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run Set-Service and specify the -PassThrough parameter.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Services are often run with default settings — for example, a service might be disabled automatically at
startup. You can use the Services snap-in to change the default settings for a service.
* To configure how a service is started using the Windows interface
1. ClickStart , click in theStart Search box, typeservices.msc , and then press ENTER.
2. Optionally, export and save a list of the existing settings. To do this, right-clickServices , selectExport
List , and save the settings list.
3. In the details pane, right-click the service that you want to configure, and then clickProperties .
4. On theGeneral tab, inStartup type , clickAutomatic ,Manual ,Disabled , orAutomatic (Delayed Start) .
5. To specify the user account that the service can use to log on, click theLog On tab, and then do one of
the following:
Etc

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Data1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
Standard.
You need to configure Data1 to run a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter.
You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you perform?
A. An online servicing by using Dism
B. An offline servicing by using Dism
C. An upgrade installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
D. A clean installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There are a couple of ways to install the GUI from the command prompt, although both use the same tool –
DISM (Deployment Image Service Manager). When you are doing it for a single (local) server, the
command is:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /featurename:…
References:
Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter 2: Deploying Servers, p. 44
Exam Ref 70-410: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter 1: Installing and Configuring
Servers, p. 19-22

 

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Microsoft, Microsoft SharePoint Applications

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70-488 Exam
Microsoft 70-488 exam Question 1

You develop a reusable workflow on a development site by using SharePoint Designer. The workflow must be made available to a test site on a different SharePoint environment. You need to deploy and start the workflow on the test site by using Microsoft Visual Studio 2012. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

70-488 exam

Answer: 

70-488 exam

 

Microsoft 70-488 exam Question 2

A company’s IT department implements a Help Desk Ticketing system that involves workflow development by using SharePoint Designer and InfoPath. The Help Desk Ticket workflow involves multiple steps and tasks that have serial approvals of multiple users and groups with custom task email messages. The Approver accidently rejects a workflow step, and the workflow has stopped. The Approver then corrects the step. You need to continue the workflow to reflect the updated approval. Which activity should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate action from the list of actions in the answer area.)
70-488 exam

Answer: 

70-488 exam

 

Microsoft 70-488 exam Question 3

You develop a SharePoint app to create an approval workflow for expense reports. The app must collect  user input before starting the workflow. You need to use ASP.NET forms in the workflow. Which form  type should you use?

A. Workflow input form
B. Workflow initiation form
C. Workflow task form
D. Workflow modification form
Answer: B

 

Microsoft 70-488 exam Question 4

You plan to create a workflow design by using Microsoft Visio 2013 and then import the design into SharePoint Designer 2013. You need to ensure that you have repetition capability. Which shape should you use?

A. Stage
B. Assign a Task
C. Step
D. Loop

Answer: A
070-410 exam Microsoft 70-488 exam Question 5
You plan to create a SharePoint Business Process Automation (BPA) project. You need to process items for approval with the least amount of developer effort. Which tool should you use?A. Remote Event Receiver
B. Out-of-the-box workflow
C. SharePoint Designer workflow
D. Work Item Timer Job
Answer: B
Microsoft 70-488 exam Question 6
You need to create a workflow custom activity to use in a custom action in SharePoint by using  Microsoft Visual Studio 2012. Which five actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the  appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
70-488 exam
Answer:
70-488 exam

Microsoft 70-488 exam Question 7

Contoso uses a SharePoint site that contains subsites. Each subsite represents different projects. Each  project site is based on a team site template and stores information and documents. Contoso has five teams: Manufacturing, Sales, Administration, Marketing, and IT. You must create a different look and feel for each team site such that any visitor to the site can identify the team by looking at the colors, fonts, and background image of the site. You need to create a different look and feel for each team.What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the complete solution. Choose all that  apply.)

A. Open Contoso Corporate Microsoft PowerPoint Slides Template, save the template as ContosoCorporate.master, and then upload it to the Theme Gallery.
B. From SharePoint Designer, go to Content Types. Right-click and select Content Type Settings.
C. Get a site background image for each team and upload it to the site collection images library. Then create a new master page for each team site by using the Master Page Gallery. Set the version to 15.
D. From the Web Designer Galleries, choose Composed Looks and create a new item for each team site. Specify the title, URL of the master page, theme, background image, and font schema file.
E. On the Site Settings page in the Look and Feel section, choose Change the look.
F. Create a new font XML schema with a font specification for each team.

Answer: BCD

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Microsoft, Windows Server 2012

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70-410 Dumps Exam Question Question No:1

You work as an administrator at ABC.com.The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com.ABC.com has a domain controller,named ABC-DC01,which has Windows Server 2012 installed.Another ABC.com domain controller,named ABC-DC02,has Windows Server 2008 R2 installed.You have deployed a server,named ABC-SR15,on ABC.com’s perimeter network.ABC-SR15 is running a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 . You have been instructed to make sure that ABC-SR15 is part of the ABC.com domain. Which of the following actions should you take?

  1. You should consider making use of Set-Computer Windows PowerShell cmdlet on ABC-SR15.
  2. You should consider making use of Get-Computer Windows PowerShell cmdlet on ABC-SR15.
  3. You should consider making use of Test-Computer Windows PowerShell cmdlet on ABC-SR15.
  4. You should consider making use of Add-Computer Windows PowerShell cmdlet on ABC-SR15.

Answer: D

70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 2

You work as an administrator at ABC.com.The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com.All servers in the ABC.com domain,including domain controllers,have Windows Server 2012 installed.You have configured a server, named ABC-SR07,as a VPN server.You are required to configure new firewall rules for workstation connections.You want to achieve this using the least amount of administrative effort.Which of the following actions should you take?

  1. You should consider making use of the Enable-NetFirewallRule cmdlet.
  2. You should consider making use of the New-NetFirewallRule cmdlet.
  3. You should consider making use of dism.exe from the command prompt.
  4. You should consider making use of dsadd.exe from the command prompt.

Answer: B

70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 3

Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains three domains. A group named Group1 is configured as a domain local distribution group in the forest root domain. You plan to grant Group1 read-only access to a shared folder named Share1. Share1 is located in a child domain. You need to ensure that the members of Group1 can access Share1. What should you do first?

A. Convert Group1 to a global distribution group.
B. Convert Group1 to a universal security group.
C. Convert Group1 to a universal distribution group.
D. Convert Group1 to a domain local security group

Answer: B

70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 4

You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You connect three new hard disks to Server1.
You need to create a storage space that contains the three disks. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Provide fault tolerance if a single disk fails.
– Maximize the amount of files that can be stored in the storage space.
What should you create?

A. A simple space
B. A spanned volume
C. A mirrored space
D. A parity space

Answer: D

70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 5

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. You create and enforce the default AppLocker executable rules. Users report that they can no longer execute a legacy application installed in the root of drive C. You need to ensure that the users can execute the legacy application. What should you do?

A. Modify the action of the existing rules.
B. Create a new rule.
C. Add an exception to the existing rules.
D. Delete an existing rule.

Answer: B   200-355 dumps

Explanation:

AppLocker is a feature that advances the functionality of the Software Restriction Policies feature. AppLocker contains new capabilities and extensions that reduce administrative overhead and help administrators control how users can access and use files, such as executable files, scripts, Windows Installer files, and DLLs. By using AppLocker, you can:

Define rules based on file attributes that persist across application updates, such as the publisher name (derived from the digital signature), product name, file name, and file version. You can also create rules based on the file path and hash.

Assign a rule to a security group or an individual user. Create exceptions to rules. For example, you can create a rule that allows all users to run all Windows binaries except the Registry Editor (Regedit.exe). Use audit-only mode to deploy the policy and understand its impact before enforcing it. . Create rules on a staging server, test them, export them to your production environment, and then import them into a Group Policy Object. Simplify creating and managing AppLocker rules by using Windows PowerShell cmdlets for AppLocker. AppLocker default rules AppLocker allows you to generate default rules for each of the rule types.

Executable default rule types:
Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all applications. Allow members of the Everyone group to run applications that are located in the Windows folder. Allow members of the Everyone group to run applications that are located in the Program Filesfolder. Windows Installer default rule types:

Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all Windows Installer files. Allow members of the Everyone group to run digitally signed Windows Installer files. Allow members of the Everyone group to run all Windows Installer files located in the Windows\Installer folder. Script
default rule types:

Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all scripts. Allow members of the Everyone group to run scripts located in the Program Files folder. Allow members of the Everyone group to run scripts located in the Windows folder. DLL default rule types:( this on can affect system performance ) Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all DLLs. Allow members of the Everyone group to run DLLs located in the Program Files folder.

Allow members of the Everyone group to run DLLs located in the Windows folder. You can apply AppLocker rules to individual users or to a group of users. If you apply a rule to a group of users, all users in that group are affected by that rule. If you need to allow a subset of a user group to use an application, you can create a special rule for that subset. For example, the rule “Allow Everyone to run Windows except Registry Editor” allows everyone in the organization to run the Windows operating system, but it does not allow anyone to run Registry Editor. The effect of this rule would prevent users such as Help Desk personnel from running a program that is necessary for their support tasks.

To resolve this problem, create a second rule that applies to the Help Desk user group: “Allow Help Desk to run Registry Editor.” If you create a deny rule that does not allow any users to run Registry Editor, the deny rule will override the second rule that allows the Help Desk user group to run

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70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 6

Your company has a main office and two branch offices. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. In the main office, you have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is configured to use an IPv4 address only. You need to assign an IPv6 address to Server 1. The IP address must be private and routable. Which IPv6 address should you assign to Server1?

A. fe80:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
B. ff00:3fff:65df:145c:dca8::82a4
C. 2001:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
D. fd00:ab32:14:ad88:ac:58:abc2:4

Answer : D

 

70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 7

Your company has a remote office that contains 600 client computers on a single subnet. You need to select a subnet mask for the network that will support all of the client computers. The solution must minimize the number of unused addresses. Which subnet mask should you select?

A. 255.255.252.0
B. 255.255.254.0
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.128

Answer : A

70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 8

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 contains a single virtual machine named VM1. You need to ensure that a user named User1 can manage the virtual machine settings of VM1. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to User1. To which group should you add User1?

A. Server Operators
B. Administrators
C. Power Users
D. Hyper-V Administrators

Answer: D

70-410 Dumps Exam Question Question No : 9

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains five domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The contoso.com domain contains two user accounts named Admin1 and Admin2.
You need to ensure that Admin1 and Admin2 can configure hardware and services on all of the member servers in the forest. The solution must minimize the number of privileges granted to Admin1 and Admin2.
Which built-in groups should you use?

A. Administrators local groups
B. Administrators domain local groups
C. Domain Admins global groups
D. Server Operators global groups

Answer: A

70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 10

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains a user named User1 and a global security group named Group1. You need to modify the SAM account name of Group1. Which cmdlet should you run?

A. Add-AdPrincipalGroupMembership
B. Install-AddsDomainController
C. Install-WindowsFeature
D. Install-AddsDomain
E. Rename-AdObject
F. Set AdAccountControl
G. Set-AdGroup
H. Set-User

Answer: G    70-417

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MCSA: Windows 10, Microsoft

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 70-697 Exam
Question:1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains Windows 10 Enterprise client computers. Your company has a subscription to Microsoft Office 365. Each user has a mailbox that is stored in Office 365 and a user account in the domain. Each mailbox has two email addresses. You need to add a third email address for each user.
What should you do?
A. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the E-mail attribute for each user.
B. From Microsoft Azure Active Directory Module for Windows PowerShell, run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
C. From Active Directory Domains and Trust, add a UPN suffix for each user.
D. From the Office 365 portal, modify the Users settings of each user.
Answer: B  200-355 dumps

Question:2
Your Windows 10 Enterprise work computer is a member of an Active Directory domain. You use your domain account to log on to the computer. You use your Microsoft account to log on to a home laptop. You want to access Windows 10 Enterprise apps from your work computer by using your Microsoft account. You need to ensure that you are able to access the Windows 10 Enterprise apps on your work computer by logging on only once. What should you do?
A. Add the Microsoft account as a user on your work computer.
B. Enable Remote Assistance on your home laptop.
C. Connect your Microsoft account to your domain account on your work computer.
D. Install SkyDrive for Windows on both your home laptop and your work computer.
Answer: C

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MCSD, Microsoft

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MCSD, Microsoft

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