CAMS Certification, Cams, Capm, Cism, Cissp, Cscp, Cva Exam Certification 2020, capm certification, cism certification, cissp certification, isaca cism, isc2 cissp, nacva cva exam, pmi capm

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Certified Associate in Project Management | CAPM – PMI

MI’s Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) is an entry-level certification for project practitioners, designed for those with less experience.

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ISACA’s Certified Information Security Manager (CISM) certification indicates expertise in information security governance, program development and management, incident management and risk management. Take your career out of the technical realm to management!

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Latest ACAMS Cams certification exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What are some of the shortcomings in using letters regulatory? Choose 3 answers
A. They can be time-consuming
B. They are based on a pre-existing mutual treaty between the countries
C. They are usually restricted to obtainingevidence that can be used for prosecution and other judicial proceedings
D. They must be approved in advance by the countries judicial authorities
Correct Answer: ABD


QUESTION 2
What kind of person should perform the independent testing of an institution\\’s anti-money laundering program?
A. A certified specialist in the anti-money laundering field
B. A former anti-money laundering officer from a similar institution
C. A person who reports directly to the Board of Directors or a Board Committee
D. A retired government regulator or federal law enforcement officer
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
During a law enforcement investigative interview regarding potential money laundering, the suspect starts making
assertions and statements that the investigator believes are false.
How should the investigator respond?
A. Inform the suspect that deception is obvious and continue the interview
B. Advise the suspect that the interview will be terminated if there is suspicion of deception
C. Direct the interview in another direction until there is better rapport before returning back to the troubling questions
D. Ask questions of a material nature about the suspected false statements without revealing the suspected deception
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
According to the Financial Action Task Force 40 Recommendations, Designated Non-Financial Businesses and
Professionals include which entities?
A. Commodities traders
B. Money services businesses
C. Hawala operators
D. Real estate agents
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What should an effective anti-money laundering training program include?
A. Computer-based modules titles differently for each job description in the bank
B. Random testing of employees to ensure proper understanding ofpolicies
C. Real-life money laundering examples
D. Lists of anti-money laundering regulations
Correct Answer: C

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Latest PMI Capm exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the
project management plan?
A. Corrective action
B. Defect repair
C. Preventative action
D. Probable action
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?
A. Project Scope Management
B. Project Time Management
C. Project Communications Management
D. Project Quality Management
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
One of the outputs of the project schedule is a detailed plan. What is the main purpose of that detailed plan?
A. It represents how and when the project will deliver the products, services, and results defined in the project scope
B. It creates a formal record of the project and shows the organizational commitment to the project
C. It describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated
D. It provides the needs of a stakeholders or stakeholder group
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the
plan. This describes:
A. scope creep.
B. a change request.
C. work performance information.
D. deliverables.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000
EV = $40,000
A. 1
B. 0.4
C. 0.5
D. 0.8
Correct Answer: D

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Latest Isaca Cism exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
An information security manager is recommending an investment in a new security initiative to address recently
published threats. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in the business case?
A. Business impact if threats materialize
B. Availability of unused funds in the security budget
C. Threat information from reputable sources
D. Alignment of the new initiative with the approved business strategy
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Effective IT governance is BEST ensured by:
A. utilizing a bottom-up approach.
B. management by the IT department.
C. referring the matter to the organization\\’s legal department.
D. utilizing a top-down approach.
Correct Answer: D
Effective IT governance needs to be a top-down initiative, with the board and executive management setting clear
policies, goals and objectives and providing for ongoing monitoring of the same. Focus on the regulatory issues and
management priorities may not be reflected effectively by a bottom-up approach. IT governance affects the entire
organization and is not a matter concerning only the management of IT. The legal department is part of the overall
governance process, but cannot take full responsibility.

QUESTION 3
Which of the following activities should take place FIRST when a security patch for Internet software is received from a
vendor?
A. The patch should be validated a hash algorithm.
B. The patch should be applied to critical systems.
C. The patch should be deployed quickly to systems that are vulnerable.
D. The patch should be evaluated in a testing environment.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is the MOST effective solution for preventing individuals external to the organization from
modifying sensitive information on a corporate database?
A. Screened subnets
B. Information classification policies and procedures
C. Role-based access controls
D. Intrusion detection system (IDS)
Correct Answer: A
Screened subnets are demilitarized zones (DMZs) and are oriented toward preventing attacks on an internal network by
external users. The policies and procedures to classify information will ultimately result in better protection but they will
not prevent actual modification. Role-based access controls would help ensure that users only had access to files and
systems appropriate for their job role. Intrusion detection systems (IDS) are useful to detect invalid attempts but they will
not prevent attempts.


QUESTION 5
Which of the following should be the MOST important criteria when defining data retention policies?
A. Capacity requirements
B. Audit findings
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Industry best practices
Correct Answer: C

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Latest ISC certification Cissp exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What principle focuses on the uniqueness of separate objects that must be joined together to perform a task? It is
sometimes referred to as “what each must bring” and joined together when getting access or decrypting a file. Each of
which does not reveal the other?
A. Dual control
B. Separation of duties
C. Split knowledge
D. Need to know
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Split knowledge involves encryption keys being separated into two components, each of which does not
reveal the other. Split knowledge is the other complementary access control principle to dual control.
In cryptographic terms, one could say dual control and split knowledge are properly implemented if no one person has
access to or knowledge of the content of the complete cryptographic key being protected by the two rocesses.
The sound implementation of dual control and split knowledge in a cryptographic environment necessarily means that
the quickest way to break the key would be through the best attack known for the algorithm of that key. The principles
of
dual control and split knowledge primarily apply to access to plaintext keys. Access to cryptographic keys used for
encrypting and decrypting data or access to keys that are encrypted under a master key (which may or may not be
maintained under dual control and split knowledge) do not require dual control and split knowledge. Dual control and
split knowledge can be summed up as the determination of any part of a key being protected must require the collusion
between two or more persons with each supplying unique cryptographic materials that must be joined together to
access the protected key.
Any feasible method to violate the axiom means that the principles of dual control and split knowledge are not being
upheld.
Split knowledge is the unique “what each must bring” and joined together when implementing dual control. To illustrate,
a box containing petty cash is secured by one combination lock and one keyed lock. One employee is given the
combination to the combo lock and another employee has possession of the correct key to the keyed lock.
In order to get the cash out of the box both employees must be present at the cash box at the same time. One cannot
open the box without the other. This is the aspect of dual control.
On the other hand, split knowledge is exemplified here by the different objects (the combination to the combo lock and
the correct physical key), both of which are unique and necessary, that each brings to the meeting. Split knowledge
focuses on the uniqueness of separate objects that must be joined together.
Dual control has to do with forcing the collusion of at least two or more persons to combine their split knowledge to gain
access to an asset. Both split knowledge and dual control complement each other and are necessary functions that
implement the segregation of duties in high integrity cryptographic environments.
The following are incorrect answers:
Dual control is a procedure that uses two or more entities (usually persons) operating in concert to protect a system
resource, such that no single entity acting alone can access that resource. Dual control is implemented as a security
procedure that requires two or more persons to come together and collude to complete a process. In a cryptographic
system the two (or more) persons would each supply a unique key, that when taken together, performs a cryptographic
process. Split knowledge is the other complementary access control principle to dual control.
Separation of duties – The practice of dividing the steps in a system function among different individuals, so as to keep a
single individual from subverting the process.
The need-to-know principle requires a user having necessity for access to, knowledge of, or possession of specific
information required to perform official tasks or services.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Schneiter, Andrew (2013-04-15). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition :
Cryptography (Kindle Locations 1621-1635). . Kindle Edition.
and
Schneiter, Andrew (2013-04-15). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition :
Cryptography (Kindle Locations 1643-1650). . Kindle Edition.
and
Shon Harris, CISSP All In One (AIO), 6th Edition , page 126

QUESTION 2
The hashing algorithm in the Digital Signature Standard (DSS) generates a message digest of:
A. 130 bit
B. 56 bits
C. 120 bits
D. 160 bits
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What process is used to accomplish high-speed data transfer between a peripheral device and computer memory,
bypassing the Central Processing Unit (CPU)?
A. Direct memory access
B. Interrupt processing
C. Transfer under program control
D. Direct access control
Correct Answer: A
With DMA, a DMAcontroller essentially takes control of the memory busses and manages the data transfer directly.
Answer interrupt processing involves an external signal interrupting the normal CPU program flow. This interrupt causes
the CPU to halt processing and jump to another program that services the interrupt. When the interrupt has been
serviced, the CPU returns to continue executing the original program. Program control transfer, answer c, is
accomplished by the processor executing input/output (I/O) instructions. Answer Direct access control is a distracter.

QUESTION 4
Which of the following entails identification of data and links to business processes, applications, and data stores as well
as assignment of ownership responsibilities?
A. Security governance
B. Risk management
C. Security portfolio management
D. Risk assessment
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is commonly used for retrofitting multilevel security to a database management system?
A. trusted front-end.
B. trusted back-end.
C. controller.
D. kernel.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: If you are “retrofitting” that means you are adding to an existing database management system (DBMS).
You could go back and redesign the entire DBMS but the cost of that could be expensive and there is no telling what
the
effect will be on existing applications, but that is redesigning and the question states retrofitting. The most cost effective
way with the least effect on existing applications while adding a layer of security on top is through a trusted front-end.
Clark-Wilson is a synonym of that model as well. It was used to add more granular control or control to database that did
not provide appropriate controls or no controls at all. It is one of the most popular model today. Any dynamic website with a back-end database is an example of this today.
Such a model would also introduce separation of duties by allowing the subject only specific rights on the objects they
need to access.
The following answers are incorrect:
trusted back-end. Is incorrect because a trusted back-end would be the database management system (DBMS). Since
the question stated “retrofitting” that eliminates this answer.
controller. Is incorrect because this is a distractor and has nothing to do with “retrofitting”. kernel. Is incorrect because
this is a distractor and has nothing to do with “retrofitting”. A security kernel would provide protection to devices and
processes but would be inefficient in protecting rows or columns in a table.

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Latest APICS Cscp exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
JIT uses what method to move items through the system?
A. push
B. pull
C. backward scheduling
D. forward scheduling
E. available to promise
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
A remanufacturer of equipment is most likely to have what type of supply chain?
A. Modular logistics
B. Reverse logistics
C. Mixed model
D. Lateral
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which of the following planning systems examine both independent and dependent demand items:
A. DRP
II. MPS
III. MRP
B. I
C. II C. III
D. I and II
E. II and III
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A company that is having difficulties prioritizing resources against a long list of improvement projects should use which
of the following processes?
A. Control chart
B. Competitive benchmarking
C. Pareto analysis
D. Six Sigma
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
All of the following are pillars of supply chain excellence, EXCEPT:
A. human resources
B. organizational design
C. information technology
D. financial performance
E. organizational measurement
Correct Answer: D

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Latest NACVA certification Cva exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
There is an additional ____________ valuation rule, which requires that the appraiser determine whether any of the
extraordinary payment rights, if exercised in conjunction with any qualified distribution rights, would lower the total value
of the preferred security.
A. Lower of
B. Separate Command
C. Mandatory redemption rights
D. Lower in
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
The capital asset pricing model is part of a larger body of economic theory known as capital market theory. Capital
market theory also includes:
A. Security analysis
B. Portfolio management theory
C. A normative theory
D. Systematic theory
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 3
The sales comparison approach is based on the economic principles of:
A. Efficient markets
B. Special financing and other terms regarding each sales transactions
C. Age of each property
D. Supply and demand
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
There is a general consensus among appraisers that there is little or no difference in controlling interest market values
between S corporations and C corporations under most circumstances, and that any difference depends on:
A. Finding a seller that there may be differences in value at the shareholder level for noncontrolling interests.
B. Finding a buyer that there may be differences in value at the shareholder level for noncontrolling interests.
C. Finding a dealer that there may be differences in value at the shareholder level for non- controlling interests.
D. Finding a broker that there may be differences in value at the shareholder level for non- controlling interests.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
The rate of interest that, when applied to the expected future payments equal to the debt security\\’s observed market
price is called the:
A. Yield to maturity
B. Return on investment
C. Market interest
D. Interest earning
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6

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Exam Code: 070-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Aug 14, 2017
Q&As: 503

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16.Your NetBackup environment will consist of four media servers and a robot with
two tape drives. The media servers and the robot are SAN attaches. Each media
servers also functions as a large file server on the network.
Which three goals will be addressed by implementing the Shared Storage Option in
this environment? (Choose three)
A. minimized network traffic during the backup window
B. high performance on the four local media server backups
C. high performance on remote(network) client backups
D. improved tape drive usage among media servers.
E. improved performance data collection for backups
070-410 exam Answer: A,B,D
17.Your environment uses a SAN for disk access.
Which feature of NetBackup 5.0 Advanced Client is appropriate?
A. fast backups
B. off-host backups
C. referential backups D.
incremental backups
Answer: B
18.You are in the process of disaster recovery planning. Your focus is on the
recovery of IT systems. In your evaluation of the environment you must collect
data regarding the physical locations.
Which list contains the main categories of disasters?
A. logical (hardware-related)
logical (software-related)
environmental
B. management failures
Logical (software-related)
environmental
C. SPDFA logical(software
related) environmental(software
related) D. hardware failure
logical(software-related)
environmental
070-410 dumps Answer: D
19.You are encountering problems with host names and network connections. You have
already verified that the correct client and server host names are configured in
NetBackup.
Which commands do you use to verify name resolution on UNIX and Windows clients?
A. bpexpdate
B. bpclntcmd
C. bptest
D. bpverify
Answer: B
20.Your NetBackup environment will consist of two media servers (Server A and Server B)
and a robot with four tape drives. Each media server also functions as a large files server
on the network.
Which design best uses the available hardware?
A. configures Server A as the robot control host, configure the four drives on ServerB
B. configure Server A as the robot control host, configure two drives on each media
server
C. configures both media servers as the robot control hosts, configure the four drives on
ServerA
D. configure both media servers as the robot control hosts, configure two drives on each
media server
070-410 pdf Answer: B
21.This standard addresses restricting physical access to electronic PHI data through interface devices to
authorized users:
A. Facility Security Plan
B. Person or Entity Authentication
C. Workstation Security
D. Contingency Plan
E. Access Control
Answer: C
22.An addressable Implementation Specification of Facility Access Controls is:
A. Unauthorized Access
B. Security Configurations
C. Accountability
D. Maintenance Records
E. Media Disposal
070-410 vce Answer: D
23.This HIPAA security category covers the use of locks, keys and administrative measures used to
control access to computer systems:
A. Technical Safeguards
B. Technical Services
C. Physical Security Policy
D. Administrative Safeguards
E. Physical Safeguards
Answer: E
24.Media Re-use is a required implementation specification associated with which security standard?
A. Facility Access Controls
B. Workstation Use
C. Workstation Security
D. Device and Media Controls
E. Access Control
070-410 exam Answer: D
25.This is a standard within Physical Safeguards
A. Contingency Operations
B. Workstation Use
C. Security Incident Management
D. Disaster Recovery E. Disposal
Answer: B
26.How does EnCase verify that the evidence file contains an exact copy of the suspect hard drive? How does
EnCase verify that the evidence file contains an exact copy of the suspect’s hard drive?
A. By means of a CRC value of the suspect hard drive compared to a CRC value of the data stored in the
evidence file.By means of a CRC value of the suspect? hard drive compared to a CRC value of the data
stored in the evidence file.
B. By means of an MD5 hash of the suspect hard drive compared to an MD5 hash of the data stored in the
evidence file.By means of an MD5 hash of the suspect? hard drive compared to an MD5 hash of the data
stored in the evidence file.
C. By means of a CRC value of the evidence file itself.
D. By means of an MD5 hash value of the evidence file itself.
70-410 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
27.By default, EnCase will display the data from the end of a logical file, to the end of the cluster, in what color:
A. Red
B. Red on black
C. Black on red
D. Black
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
28.A SCSI drive is pinned as a master when it is:
A. The only drive on the computer.
B. The primary of two drives connected to one cable.
C. Whenever another drive is on the same cable and is pinned as a slave.
D. A SCSI drive is not pinned as a master.
070-410 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
29.The following GREP expression was typed in exactly as shown. Choose the answer(s) that would result. [^a-z]
Tom[^a-z]
A. Tomato
B. om? ? RP
C. Toms
D. Stomp
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
30.This question addresses the EnCase for Windows search process. If a target word is within a logical file, and it
begins in cluster 10 and ends in cluster 15 (the word is fragmented), the search:
A. Will not find it unlessile slack is checked on the search dialog box.
B. Will find it because EnCase performs a logical search.
C. Will not find it because EnCase performs a physical search only.
D. Will not find it because the letters of the keyword are not contiguous.
070-410 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
31.An evidence file was archived onto five CD-Rom disks with the third file segment on disk number three. Can
the contents of the third file segment be verified by itself while still on the CD?
A. No. Archived files are compressed and cannot be verified until un-archived.
B. No. All file segments must be put back together.
C. Yes. Any segment of an evidence file can be verified through re-computing and comparing the CRCs, even
if it is on a CD.
D. No. EnCase cannot verify files on CDs.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
32.The case file should be archived with the evidence files at the termination of a case.
A. True
B. False
070-410 exam Correct Answer:
Explanation
33.A signature analysis has been run on a case. The result “Bad Signature ” means:
A. The file signature is known and does not match a known file header.
B. The file signature is known and the file extension is known.
C. The file signature is known and does not match a known file extension.
D. The file signature is unknown and the file extension is known.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
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Microsoft, Windows Server 2012

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Exam Code:70-417
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Updated: Feb 23, 2017
Q&As: 427
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QQ截图20170302143240

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Share some Microsoft Specialist 70-417 Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed. On Server1, you create and start a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 is configured as shown in the following table.
QQ图片20170302143813
You plan to create a checkpoint of VM1.
You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of disk space used for the checkpoint of VM1.
What should you do before you create the checkpoint?
A. Decrease the Maximum RAM.
B. Convert Disk1.vhd to a dynamically expanding disk.
C. Run the Stop-VM cmdlet.
D. Run the Resize-VHD cmdlet.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
For checkpoints created when the virtual machine is stopped The checkpoint contains the state of the hard
disks only. For checkpoints created when the virtual machine is running The checkpoint contains the state
of the hard disks and the data in memory. Note: A checkpoint saves the state of each virtual hard disk that
is attached to a virtual machine and all of the hard disk’s contents, including application data files. For
virtual machines on Hyper-V and VMware ESX Server hosts, a checkpoint also saves the hardware
configuration information. By creating checkpoints for a virtual machine, you can restore the virtual
machine to a previous state.

QUESTION 2
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
QQ图片20170302143939
You install a network monitoring application on VM2.
You need to ensure that all of the traffic sent to VM3 can be captured on VM2.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: J
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With Hyper-V Virtual Switch port mirroring, you can select the switch ports that are monitored as well as
the switch port that receives copies of all the traffic. And since Port mirroring allows the network traffic of a
virtual machine to be monitored by copying the traffic and forwarding it to another virtual machine that is
configured for monitoring, you should configure port mirroring on VM2.
References:

QUESTION 3
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
QQ图片20170302144101
You plan to schedule a complete backup of Server1 by using Windows Server Backup.
You need to ensure that the state of VM1 is saved before the backup starts.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: I
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Integration Services settings on virtual machines include services such as operating system
shutdown, time synchronization, data exchange, Heartbeat, and Backup (volume snapshot services). This
snapshot will ensure that the state of VM1 is saved prior to backup.
References:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd405549(v=vs.85).aspx Exam Ref 70-410, Installing and
Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create and Configure
virtual machine settings, p. 144

QUESTION 4
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
QQ图片20170302144205
VM3 is used to test applications.
You need to prevent VM3 from synchronizing its clock to Server1.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: I
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Integration Services settings on virtual machines includes services such as operating system shutdown,
time synchronization, data exchange, Heart beat, and Backup (volume snapshot services. Thus you
should disable the time synchronization using Integration Services.
References:

QUESTION 5
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
QQ图片20170302144301
VM2 sends and receives large amounts of data over the network.
You need to ensure that the network traffic of VM2 bypasses the virtual switches of the parent partition.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: K
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Single-root I/O virtualization -capable network adapters can be assigned directly to a virtual machine to
maximize network throughput while minimizing network latency and the CPU overhead required for
processing network traffic.
References:

QUESTION 6
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1.
You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. The imagex.exe command
B. The ocsetup.exe command
C. The setup.exe command
D. The dism.exe command
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The DISM command is called by the Add-WindowsFeature command. Here is the systax for DISM:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /featurename:Server- Gui- Shell /
featurename:Server-Gui-Mgmt
QQ图片20170302144402

QUESTION 7
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You plan to create an image of Server1.
You need to remove the source files for all server roles that are not installed on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. dism.exe
B. servermanagercmd.exe
C. ocsetup.exe
D. imagex.exe
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Dism utility can be used to create and mount an image of Server1.
References:

QUESTION 8
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has following storage
spaces:
Data
Users
Backups
Primordial
You add an additional hard disk to Server1.
You need to identify which storage space contains the new hard disk.
Which storage space contains the new disk?
A. Primordial
B. Data
C. Backups
D. Users
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012.
You create a group Managed Service Account named gservice1.
You need to configure a service named Service1 to run as the gservice1 account.
How should you configure Service1?
A. From a command prompt, run ss.exe and specify the config parameter.
B. From a command prompt, run ss.exe and specify the sdset parameter.
C. From the Services console, configure the General settings.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run Set-Service and specify the -PassThrough parameter.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Services are often run with default settings — for example, a service might be disabled automatically at
startup. You can use the Services snap-in to change the default settings for a service.
* To configure how a service is started using the Windows interface
1. ClickStart , click in theStart Search box, typeservices.msc , and then press ENTER.
2. Optionally, export and save a list of the existing settings. To do this, right-clickServices , selectExport
List , and save the settings list.
3. In the details pane, right-click the service that you want to configure, and then clickProperties .
4. On theGeneral tab, inStartup type , clickAutomatic ,Manual ,Disabled , orAutomatic (Delayed Start) .
5. To specify the user account that the service can use to log on, click theLog On tab, and then do one of
the following:
Etc

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Data1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
Standard.
You need to configure Data1 to run a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter.
You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you perform?
A. An online servicing by using Dism
B. An offline servicing by using Dism
C. An upgrade installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
D. A clean installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There are a couple of ways to install the GUI from the command prompt, although both use the same tool –
DISM (Deployment Image Service Manager). When you are doing it for a single (local) server, the
command is:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /featurename:…
References:
Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter 2: Deploying Servers, p. 44
Exam Ref 70-410: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter 1: Installing and Configuring
Servers, p. 19-22

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70-410 Dumps Exam Question Question No:1

You work as an administrator at ABC.com.The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com.ABC.com has a domain controller,named ABC-DC01,which has Windows Server 2012 installed.Another ABC.com domain controller,named ABC-DC02,has Windows Server 2008 R2 installed.You have deployed a server,named ABC-SR15,on ABC.com’s perimeter network.ABC-SR15 is running a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 . You have been instructed to make sure that ABC-SR15 is part of the ABC.com domain. Which of the following actions should you take?

  1. You should consider making use of Set-Computer Windows PowerShell cmdlet on ABC-SR15.
  2. You should consider making use of Get-Computer Windows PowerShell cmdlet on ABC-SR15.
  3. You should consider making use of Test-Computer Windows PowerShell cmdlet on ABC-SR15.
  4. You should consider making use of Add-Computer Windows PowerShell cmdlet on ABC-SR15.

Answer: D

70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 2

You work as an administrator at ABC.com.The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com.All servers in the ABC.com domain,including domain controllers,have Windows Server 2012 installed.You have configured a server, named ABC-SR07,as a VPN server.You are required to configure new firewall rules for workstation connections.You want to achieve this using the least amount of administrative effort.Which of the following actions should you take?

  1. You should consider making use of the Enable-NetFirewallRule cmdlet.
  2. You should consider making use of the New-NetFirewallRule cmdlet.
  3. You should consider making use of dism.exe from the command prompt.
  4. You should consider making use of dsadd.exe from the command prompt.

Answer: B

70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 3

Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains three domains. A group named Group1 is configured as a domain local distribution group in the forest root domain. You plan to grant Group1 read-only access to a shared folder named Share1. Share1 is located in a child domain. You need to ensure that the members of Group1 can access Share1. What should you do first?

A. Convert Group1 to a global distribution group.
B. Convert Group1 to a universal security group.
C. Convert Group1 to a universal distribution group.
D. Convert Group1 to a domain local security group

Answer: B

70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 4

You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You connect three new hard disks to Server1.
You need to create a storage space that contains the three disks. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Provide fault tolerance if a single disk fails.
– Maximize the amount of files that can be stored in the storage space.
What should you create?

A. A simple space
B. A spanned volume
C. A mirrored space
D. A parity space

Answer: D

70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 5

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. You create and enforce the default AppLocker executable rules. Users report that they can no longer execute a legacy application installed in the root of drive C. You need to ensure that the users can execute the legacy application. What should you do?

A. Modify the action of the existing rules.
B. Create a new rule.
C. Add an exception to the existing rules.
D. Delete an existing rule.

Answer: B   200-355 dumps

Explanation:

AppLocker is a feature that advances the functionality of the Software Restriction Policies feature. AppLocker contains new capabilities and extensions that reduce administrative overhead and help administrators control how users can access and use files, such as executable files, scripts, Windows Installer files, and DLLs. By using AppLocker, you can:

Define rules based on file attributes that persist across application updates, such as the publisher name (derived from the digital signature), product name, file name, and file version. You can also create rules based on the file path and hash.

Assign a rule to a security group or an individual user. Create exceptions to rules. For example, you can create a rule that allows all users to run all Windows binaries except the Registry Editor (Regedit.exe). Use audit-only mode to deploy the policy and understand its impact before enforcing it. . Create rules on a staging server, test them, export them to your production environment, and then import them into a Group Policy Object. Simplify creating and managing AppLocker rules by using Windows PowerShell cmdlets for AppLocker. AppLocker default rules AppLocker allows you to generate default rules for each of the rule types.

Executable default rule types:
Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all applications. Allow members of the Everyone group to run applications that are located in the Windows folder. Allow members of the Everyone group to run applications that are located in the Program Filesfolder. Windows Installer default rule types:

Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all Windows Installer files. Allow members of the Everyone group to run digitally signed Windows Installer files. Allow members of the Everyone group to run all Windows Installer files located in the Windows\Installer folder. Script
default rule types:

Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all scripts. Allow members of the Everyone group to run scripts located in the Program Files folder. Allow members of the Everyone group to run scripts located in the Windows folder. DLL default rule types:( this on can affect system performance ) Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all DLLs. Allow members of the Everyone group to run DLLs located in the Program Files folder.

Allow members of the Everyone group to run DLLs located in the Windows folder. You can apply AppLocker rules to individual users or to a group of users. If you apply a rule to a group of users, all users in that group are affected by that rule. If you need to allow a subset of a user group to use an application, you can create a special rule for that subset. For example, the rule “Allow Everyone to run Windows except Registry Editor” allows everyone in the organization to run the Windows operating system, but it does not allow anyone to run Registry Editor. The effect of this rule would prevent users such as Help Desk personnel from running a program that is necessary for their support tasks.

To resolve this problem, create a second rule that applies to the Help Desk user group: “Allow Help Desk to run Registry Editor.” If you create a deny rule that does not allow any users to run Registry Editor, the deny rule will override the second rule that allows the Help Desk user group to run

70-410 dumps

70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 6

Your company has a main office and two branch offices. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. In the main office, you have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is configured to use an IPv4 address only. You need to assign an IPv6 address to Server 1. The IP address must be private and routable. Which IPv6 address should you assign to Server1?

A. fe80:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
B. ff00:3fff:65df:145c:dca8::82a4
C. 2001:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
D. fd00:ab32:14:ad88:ac:58:abc2:4

Answer : D

70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 7

Your company has a remote office that contains 600 client computers on a single subnet. You need to select a subnet mask for the network that will support all of the client computers. The solution must minimize the number of unused addresses. Which subnet mask should you select?

A. 255.255.252.0
B. 255.255.254.0
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.128

Answer : A

70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 8

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 contains a single virtual machine named VM1. You need to ensure that a user named User1 can manage the virtual machine settings of VM1. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to User1. To which group should you add User1?

A. Server Operators
B. Administrators
C. Power Users
D. Hyper-V Administrators

Answer: D

70-410 Dumps Exam Question Question No : 9

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains five domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The contoso.com domain contains two user accounts named Admin1 and Admin2.
You need to ensure that Admin1 and Admin2 can configure hardware and services on all of the member servers in the forest. The solution must minimize the number of privileges granted to Admin1 and Admin2.
Which built-in groups should you use?

A. Administrators local groups
B. Administrators domain local groups
C. Domain Admins global groups
D. Server Operators global groups

Answer: A

70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 10

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains a user named User1 and a global security group named Group1. You need to modify the SAM account name of Group1. Which cmdlet should you run?

A. Add-AdPrincipalGroupMembership
B. Install-AddsDomainController
C. Install-WindowsFeature
D. Install-AddsDomain
E. Rename-AdObject
F. Set AdAccountControl
G. Set-AdGroup
H. Set-User

Answer: G    70-417

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Question:1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains Windows 10 Enterprise client computers. Your company has a subscription to Microsoft Office 365. Each user has a mailbox that is stored in Office 365 and a user account in the domain. Each mailbox has two email addresses. You need to add a third email address for each user.
What should you do?
A. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the E-mail attribute for each user.
B. From Microsoft Azure Active Directory Module for Windows PowerShell, run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
C. From Active Directory Domains and Trust, add a UPN suffix for each user.
D. From the Office 365 portal, modify the Users settings of each user.
Answer: B  200-355 dumps

Question:2
Your Windows 10 Enterprise work computer is a member of an Active Directory domain. You use your domain account to log on to the computer. You use your Microsoft account to log on to a home laptop. You want to access Windows 10 Enterprise apps from your work computer by using your Microsoft account. You need to ensure that you are able to access the Windows 10 Enterprise apps on your work computer by logging on only once. What should you do?
A. Add the Microsoft account as a user on your work computer.
B. Enable Remote Assistance on your home laptop.
C. Connect your Microsoft account to your domain account on your work computer.
D. Install SkyDrive for Windows on both your home laptop and your work computer.
Answer: C

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Microsoft, Windows Server 2012

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QUESTION 13
Your network contains an active directory forest. The forest functional level is Windows server 2012. The forest contains a single domain. The domain contains a member server named Server1 that run windows server 2012. You purchase a network scanner named Scanner1 that supports Web Services on Devices (WDS). You need to share the network scanner on Server1 Which server role should you install on Server1?
A. Web Server (IIS)
B. Fax Server
C. File and Storage Services
D. Print and Document Services
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Print and Document Services enables you to centralize print server and network printer tasks. With this role, you can also receive scanned documents from network scanners and route the documents to a shared network resource, Windows SharePoint Services site, or email addresses. Windows Server 2012 uses Web Services on Devices (WSD) technologies to integrate scanning devices into the system
QUESTION 14
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a child domain named europe.contoso.com. The europe.contoso.com child domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the DHCP Server server role on Server1. You have access to the administrative accounts shown in the following table.

You need to authorize Server1. Which user account should you use?
A. Admin1
B. Admin2
C. Admin3
D. Admin4
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A. Local account can’t be used
B. Authorization needs to happen in contoso.com and must be aEnt Admin C. Authorization needs to happen in contoso.com and must be aEnt Admin D. Correct domain and is a member of Ent Admin’s c9530-404 exam 
QUESTION 15
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has following storage spaces:
-Data
-Users
-Backups
-Primordial
You add an additional hard disk to Server1. You need to identify which storage space contains the new hard disk. Which storage space contains the new disk?
A. Data
B. Primordial
C. Users
D. Backups
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
New Disks (Unallocated space) added to Primordial spacePrimordial Pool? All storage that meets acceptable criteria for Storage Spaces will be placed in the  http://www.microsoft-technet.com/100-valid-download-latest-microsoft-070-410-pdf-exam-free-practice-test-ensure-you-100-pass-from-flydumps.html Primordial Pool. Thiscan be considered the default pool for devices from which any other pools will be created. Notice that there are no other virtual disks or pools
at this point. The Primordial Pool will only consist ofphysical storage devices that do not belong to any other pools.

QUESTION 16
You have a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the File and Storage Services server role installed. You attach four 500-GB disks to Server1. You need to configure the storage to meet the following requirements:
Storage for an application named Application1 must be provided. Application1 requires 20 GB and will require a maximum of 800 GB in three years.
Storage for an application named Application2 must be provided. Application2 requires 20 GB and will require a maximum of 900 GB in three years.
The solution must provide the ability to dynamically add storage without requiring configuration changes to the applications.

The storage must be available if a single disk fails.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. From File and Storage Services, create virtual disks by using fixed provisioning.
B. From File and Storage Services, create a storage pool that uses all four disks.
C. From Disk Management, create two new mirror volumes that use two disks each.
D. From Disk Management, create a new RAID-5 volume that uses all four disks.
E. From File and Storage Services, create virtual disks by using thin provisioning.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A. 2 VHD’s set to fixed size of 800 & 900GB
B. Allows Fault Tolerance
C. No Fault Tolerance MAX when mirroring 2 500GB drives
D. 1500GB MAX App’s require 1700GB MAX
E. Allowing the creation of spaces that are larger than the underlying pool, additional drives can beadded to the pool

QUESTION 17
Your network contains multiple subnets. On one of the subnets, you deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the DNS Server server role on Server1, and then you create a standard primary zone named contoso.com. You need to ensure that client computers can resolve single-label names to IP addresses. What should you do first?
A. Create a reverse lookup zone.
B. Convert the contoso.com zone to an Active Directory-integrated zone.
C. Configure dynamic updates for contoso.com.
D. Create a GlobalNames zone.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
D. use GlobalNames zones in Windows Server 2008 to take advantage of single-label names Providing Single-Label DNS Name Resolution: While Domain Name System (DNS) is the predominant name-resolution technology in TCP/IP networks, Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) is deployed in many networks as an alternative name-resolution protocol. GlobalNames Zone (GNZ) feature: The GNZ feature is designed to enable DNS resolution of these single-label, static, global names. You can deploy a GNZ in a single forest or across multiple forests. GNZ is intended to aid the retirement of WINS. It is not a replacement for WINS. GNZ is not intended to support the single-label name resolution of records that are registered dynamically and therefore not managed by IT administrators. GNZ does make it possible for you to provide single- label name resolution of a fixed set of host computers whose names are guaranteed to be both global and unique.
QUESTION 18
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has six network adapters. Two of the network adapters are connected to a network named LAN1, two of the network adapters are connected to a network named LAN2, and two of the network adapters are connected to a network named LAN3. You create a network adapter team named Team1 from the two adapters connected to LAN1. You create a network adapter team named Team2 from the two adapters connected to LAN2. A company policy states that all server IP addresses must be assigned by using a reserved address in DHCP. You need to identify how many DHCP reservations you must create for Server1. How many reservations should you identify?
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: 2 Adapters = LAN1 = Team1 = 1 IP 2 Adapters = LAN2 = Team2 = 1 IP 2 Adapters = LAN3 = No Team = 2 IP 1 + 1 + 2 = 4

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Microsoft, Microsoft SharePoint Applications

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70-488 Exam
Microsoft 70-488 exam Question 1

You develop a reusable workflow on a development site by using SharePoint Designer. The workflow must be made available to a test site on a different SharePoint environment. You need to deploy and start the workflow on the test site by using Microsoft Visual Studio 2012. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

70-488 exam

Answer: 

70-488 exam

Microsoft 70-488 exam Question 2

A company’s IT department implements a Help Desk Ticketing system that involves workflow development by using SharePoint Designer and InfoPath. The Help Desk Ticket workflow involves multiple steps and tasks that have serial approvals of multiple users and groups with custom task email messages. The Approver accidently rejects a workflow step, and the workflow has stopped. The Approver then corrects the step. You need to continue the workflow to reflect the updated approval. Which activity should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate action from the list of actions in the answer area.)
70-488 exam

Answer: 

70-488 exam

Microsoft 70-488 exam Question 3

You develop a SharePoint app to create an approval workflow for expense reports. The app must collect  user input before starting the workflow. You need to use ASP.NET forms in the workflow. Which form  type should you use?

A. Workflow input form
B. Workflow initiation form
C. Workflow task form
D. Workflow modification form
Answer: B

Microsoft 70-488 exam Question 4

You plan to create a workflow design by using Microsoft Visio 2013 and then import the design into SharePoint Designer 2013. You need to ensure that you have repetition capability. Which shape should you use?

A. Stage
B. Assign a Task
C. Step
D. Loop

Answer: A
70-410 exam Microsoft 70-488 exam Question 5
You plan to create a SharePoint Business Process Automation (BPA) project. You need to process items for approval with the least amount of developer effort. Which tool should you use?A. Remote Event Receiver
B. Out-of-the-box workflow
C. SharePoint Designer workflow
D. Work Item Timer Job
Answer: B
Microsoft 70-488 exam Question 6
You need to create a workflow custom activity to use in a custom action in SharePoint by using  Microsoft Visual Studio 2012. Which five actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the  appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
70-488 exam
Answer:
70-488 exam

Microsoft 70-488 exam Question 7

Contoso uses a SharePoint site that contains subsites. Each subsite represents different projects. Each  project site is based on a team site template and stores information and documents. Contoso has five teams: Manufacturing, Sales, Administration, Marketing, and IT. You must create a different look and feel for each team site such that any visitor to the site can identify the team by looking at the colors, fonts, and background image of the site. You need to create a different look and feel for each team.What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the complete solution. Choose all that  apply.)

A. Open Contoso Corporate Microsoft PowerPoint Slides Template, save the template as ContosoCorporate.master, and then upload it to the Theme Gallery.
B. From SharePoint Designer, go to Content Types. Right-click and select Content Type Settings.
C. Get a site background image for each team and upload it to the site collection images library. Then create a new master page for each team site by using the Master Page Gallery. Set the version to 15.
D. From the Web Designer Galleries, choose Composed Looks and create a new item for each team site. Specify the title, URL of the master page, theme, background image, and font schema file.
E. On the Site Settings page in the Look and Feel section, choose Change the look.
F. Create a new font XML schema with a font specification for each team.

Answer: BCD

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Microsoft

The expert guide to deploying and managing any WebSphere Application 70-410 Server V5.x application and environment
If you¡¯re a WebSphere Application Server administrator or developer, this

is your advanced guide for delivering applications rapidly, running them smoothly, and administering them efficiently. Four leading IBM consultants draw on their years of experience to illuminate the key steps involved in taking WebSphere Application Server applications from development to production. They focus on the areas most crucial to success, including application assembly and build, application and infrastructure configuration and administration, and application testing and verification. Along the way, they show how to implement automated deployment processes that can be executed frequently, reliably, and quicklyso you can get your applications to market fast. The focus is on WebSphere Application Server Version 5.1, but much of the information applies to other versions.
Coverage includes

Installing, testing, and managing WebSphere Application Server environments: clustering, security, messaging, integration, and more

Deploying and managing key J2EE technologies: JDBC, Connectors, EJB, container managed and message driven beans, transactions, JMS, JavaMail, and more

Deploying highly available, scalable multi-node WebSphere Application Server environments: clustering, distributed session management, and
edge components

Advanced

considerations:

working with Java

Management
Extensions,
caching, and much
more

Performance-tuning tools

Troubleshooting

Leveraging key

WebSphere deployment and administration tools: ANT, wsadmin, Admin Console, and the Application Server Toolkit
Advanced discussions of J2EE and architectural concepts you need to deploy successfullywith practical examples

.
Table of Contents

.
Index

IBM WebSphere Deploym Advanced Configuration
By Roland Barcia, Bill Hin Keys Botzum
Publisher : Prentice Hall PTR Pub Date : August 26, 2004 ISBN : 0-13-146862-6
Pages : 720

Copyright IBM Press SeriesInformation Management On Demand Computing Books DB2 Books More Books from IBM Press About the Authors Technical Reviewers and Contributors Foreword Part I. Introduction to WebSphere and Deployment

Chapter 1. Introduction
Who Should Read This Book Why Concentrate So Much on Deployment? How This Book Is

Organized

Introduction to

WebSphere Conclusion Chapter 2. J2EE Applications Understanding J2EE and J2EE Applications J2EE Packaging
Conclusion

Chapter 3. WAS Quick Start
Overview of Applications Used Throughout This Book
WAS Deployment Quick Start Conclusion Chapter 4. Build and Deploy Procedures
Procedures Matter Build and Deployment Models
Automation

Conclusion

Chapter 5. WebSphere Application Server Architecture
Runtime Architecture
Conclusion
Part II. J2EE Deployment and Administration Chapter 6. J2EE Web Applications and the Web Container J2EE Web Application Technologies J2EE Web Application Characteristics WAS Web Container Web Application Descriptors and Packaging
Automation

Conclusion
Chapter 7. JDBC as a Resource
JDBC and J2EE Services
JDBC Object Types

Automation

Conclusion

Chapter 8. J2EE Connector Architecture
J2C Architecture

WAS J2C

Implementation

Conclusion
Chapter 9. Enterprise JavaBeans
Introduction to Enterprise JavaBeans
Enterprise JavaBean Deployment with WAS Conclusion Chapter 10. CMP and Advanced EJB Settings
Understanding CMP 2.0
WebSphere Persistence Architecture Bean and Data Caching Dealing with Isolation Levels in CMP Schema Mapping So Why Does the

Deployer Care?

Automation
Conclusion
Chapter 11. Transactions with WebSphere Application Server
Introduction to Transactions J2EE Applications and Transactions WebSphere Application Server Transaction Manager Distributed Transaction Failure Recovery
Transaction Performance Transaction

Troubleshooting

Conclusion

Chapter 12. JMS and Message Driven Beans Understanding JMS and Message Driven Beans JMS in WebSphere Application Server Automation

Conclusion

Chapter 13. Other Resources

URL Resources

JavaMail

Conclusion

Chapter 14. Client Applications What Is a ¡°Client Application?¡± WAS Application Clients CD
J2EE Clients

Thin Clients

Pluggable Clients

Applet Clients

ActiveX Clients

Conclusion

Part III. Managing WebSphere Application Server Infrastructure
Chapter 15. Advanced

Considerations for Build

Application Packaging Verification in Large Development Environments
Conclusion Chapter 16. Ideal Development and Testing Environments
Ideal Development Environments Environment Stages
Process Matters

Tools
Reducing Costs
Conclusion
Chapter 17. JMX in WebSphere Application Server
An Introduction to JMX JMX in WebSphere Application Server
Custom MBeans in WAS Conclusion Chapter 18. Security Why Security?
WAS Security Architecture Hardening Security
Troubleshooting
Conclusion
Chapter 19. WebSphere Caching
Caching Opportunities Caching Implications on Performance
Caching Static Files
Dynamic Caching Planning for Caching Caching Further Out
Advanced Caching
Topics
Troubleshooting Caching Problems
Conclusion
Part IV. WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment Chapter 20. WAS

Network Deployment

Architecture

WebSphere Architecture Terms Runtime Architecture
Web Services in WAS-
ND
ND Cell Administration Namespace Distributed Replication
Service Conclusion Chapter 21. WAS Network Deployment Clustering WebSphere Clustering Architecture
Creating WebSphere Application Server-ND Clusters Application Installation
and Maintenance Hardware Clustering and WAS-ND Other Components WAS-ND Administrative Runtime
Topologies Conclusion Chapter 22. Session Management Introduction to HTTP Session
Session Tracking

The Session API

WAS Session

Management

Configuration

Conclusion
Chapter 23. WebSphere Edge Components
Edge Topology

Edge Devices

WebSphere Edge

Components Review WebSphere Edge Components Implementation 70-410 practice exam Topology Patterns on the Edge
Conclusion Part V. Problem Determination and Server Tools
Chapter 24. Problem Determination
Problem-Solving First Steps
WAS General Problem Determination
Active WAS Problem Determination When All Else Fails Problem Determination Tools
Problem Prevention
Conclusion
Chapter 25. Performance Tuning Tools WAS Performance