ACI

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QUESTION 1
The two-week repo rate for the 5.25% Bund 2014 is quoted to you at 3.33-38%. You agree to reverse in bonds worth
EUR 266,125,000.00 with no initial margin. You would earn repo interest of:
A. EUR 349,806
B. EUR 344,632
C. EUR 319,315
D. EUR 324,110
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Using the following rates:
3M (90-day) eurodeposits3.50%
6M (180-day) eurodeposits3.75%
What is the rate for a deposit, which runs from 3 to 6 months?
A. 3.625%
B. 3.285%
C. 3.965%
D. 3.835%
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are the fixed-rate payer in a plain vanilla interest rate swap. If your counterparty defaults, your exposure at default
is:
A. greater, the higher the market swap rate and the shorter the term
B. lower, the lower the market swap rate and the shorter the term
C. lower, the lower the market swap rate and the longer the term
D. greater, the higher the market swap rate and the longer the term
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Deliberately inputting incorrect big figures into an electronic dealing platform is:
A. Technically impossible on electronic platforms B. Not an uncommon practice and something which professional dealers should be able to guard against.
C. Not good practice.
D. A criminal offence.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
The andquot;spot basisandquot; of a 2 against 4 months EUR/USD forward/forward swap is:
A. usually the current spot EUR/USD mid-market rate
B. commonly the prevailing 4-month forward EUR/USD mid-rate
C. always the forward EUR/USD bid rate of the first swap leg
D. generally the prevailing 2-month forward EUR/USD mid-rate
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following are specifically quoted in terms of a yield-to-maturity?
A. US Treasury bill
B. CD
C. Interbank deposit
D. USCP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You are paying 5% per annum paid semi-annually and receiving 6-month LIBOR on a USD 10 million interest rate swap
with exactly two years to maturity. 6month LIBOR for the next payment date is fixed today at 4.95%. How would you
hedge the swap using FRAs? How to hedge an IRS with a strip of FRAs?
A. buy a strip of 0x6, 6×12, 12×18 and 18×24 FRAs
B. sell a strip of 0x6, 6×12, 12×18 and 18×24 FRAs
C. buy a strip of 6×12, 12×10 and 16×24 FRAs
D. sell a strip of 6×12, 12×18 and 18×24 FRAs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Today is Monday, 8th December. You sell a 9×12 FRA for value Thursday, 10th September next year. On what date is
the settlement amount due to be paid or received (assuming that there are no holidays)? A. 8th September next year
B. 10th September next year
C. 8th December next year
D. 10th December next year
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You bought a USD 4,000000 6×9 FRA at 6.75%. The settlement rate is 3-month (90-day) BBA LIBOR, which is fixed at
5.50%. What is the settlement amount at maturity?
A. You receive USD 12,330.46
B. You pay USD 12,330.46
C. You pay USD 12,163.81
D. You receive USD 12,163.81
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A customer gives you GBP 25,000,000.00 at 0.625% same day for 7 days.
Through a broker, you place the funds with a bank for the same period at 0.6875%.
Brokerage is charged at 2 basis points per annum.
What is the net profit or loss on the deal?
A. ProfitofGBP 299.66
B. Profit of GBP 203.77
C. LossofGBP299.66
D. Loss ofGBP 203.77
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are quoted the following market rates:
Spot AUD/CAD 1.0600 12M (360-day) AUD 3.40% 12M (360-day) CAD 1.55%
What are the 12-month AUD/CAD forward points?
A. +190
B. -193 C. -192
D. -190
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A 3-month (91-day) UK Treasury bill with a face value of GBP 50,000,000.00 is quoted at a yield of 4.25%. How much is
the bill worth?
A. GBP 47,875,000.00
B. GBP 49,462,847.22
C. GBP 49,470,205.48
D. GBP 49,475,760.27
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
What kind of information should dealers and brokers take care when relaying?
A. Information that could be damaging to a third party
B. Unsubstantiated rumours
C. Unsubstantiated information that they suspect may be inaccurate and damaging to a third party
D. Price-sensitive information
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Convert 8.25% quoted on a semi-annually compounded money market basis for USD to the equivalent annually-
compounded bond basis.
A. 8.30%
B. 8.52%
C. 8.54%
D. 8.69%
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
How long does the Model Code recommend that tape recordings of dealers/brokers should be kept?
A. At least 2 months
B. One year C. Up to one month
D. Until the maturity of the deal
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
You buy a 181-day 2.75% CD with a face value of USD 1,500,000.00 at par when it is issued. You sell it in the
secondary market after 150 days at 2.60%. What is your holding period yield?
A. 2.60%
B. 2.75%
C. 2.775%
D. 2.813%
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which one of the following best describes expected shortfall/conditional value-at-risk at the 95% level?
A. the expected loss on the portfolio in the worst 95% of cases
B. the expected loss in those cases where the loss exceeds the VaR at the 95% level
C. the maximum loss in those cases where the loss exceeds the VaR at the 95% level
D. the expected loss in those cases where the loss exceeds the VaR at the 5% level
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
You quote spot EUR/USD at 1.3023-26 in 5 to another bank. He says, andquot;Take 5, could do 8andquot;. How much
are you obliged to do?
A. Nothing, as he changed the terms of the deal
B. EUR 5,000,000.00
C. More than EUR 5,000,000.00, but a maximum of EUR 8,000,000.00
D. EUR 8,000,000.00
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What would be the strategy for a bank if it is unable to speculate on interest rates and/or unable to absorb market risk?
A. to run a zero gap
B. to hold more interest rate sensitive assets than interest rate sensitive liabilities C. to reduce the size of the balance sheet
D. to hold fewer interest rate sensitive assets than interest rate sensitive liabilities
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
An interest rate guarantee (IRG) is:
A. AnFRA
B. An option on an FRA
C. A collar
D. AnIRS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
An interest rate swap is:
A. A contract to exchange one stream of income payments for another
B. A temporary exchange of one deposit for another of a longer maturity in the same currency
C. A forward-forward contract
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Management has a specific responsibility to issue guidelines to staff on transacting after-hours and off- premises. Which
of the following does the Model Code suggest?
A. Dealing should only be allowed during normal trading hours.
B. It is not recommended that an unofficial close of business be specified for each trading day.
C. There should be clear written guidelines regarding the limit and type of deals that are permitted after normal hours or
off-premises.
D. All after-hours and off-premises transactions must be dealt exclusively with the dealer\’s personal mobile phones
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
How is an outright forward FX transaction quoted?
A. pared points
B. Depends on the term C. Depends on whether it is interbank or to a customer
D. Depends on the currency pair
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Where dealing for personal account is allowed, what safeguards to prevent abuse or insider dealing are stated by the
Model Code?
A. The need to maintain confidentiality with respect to non-public price sensitive information
B. The maximum amounts or sizes of trades dealers are allowed to trade for their own account
C. The instruments/products dealers can trade for their own account
D. The pledge that no action is taken by employees that might adversely affect the interests of clients or counterparties
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Bank participants have a duty to make it clear that their prices are firm or merely indicative:
A. Only if they are dealing with brokers.
B. Only if they are dealing in a fast moving market.
C. Only if the amount is not marketable.
D. At all times.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
To curb attempted fraud, banks should: A. Require greater vigilance by the management and staff.
B. Take particular care when the beneficiary is a third party to the deal.
C. Ensure that details of all telephone deals which do not include pre-agreed standard settlement instructions are
confirmed by telex or similar means without delay.
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which one of the following is a major objective of ACI-The Financial Markets Association?
A. to promote globalization and deregulation of the financial markets
B. to maintain the professional level of competence and to disseminate a high level of ethical and professional behavior
C. to act as the official international market regulator in the absence of government regulation D. to become the sole global corporation of wholesale financial market professionals
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
If several banks hit a broker simultaneously for an amount greater than the amount for which the price was shown:
A. no transaction is done
B. the broker has to honor each and every amount hit
C. the broker has to split the amount among the banks on a pro rata basis
D. the broker may freely choose the bank(s) he will deal with
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Which one of the following statements about claims is true?
A. Claims are not expected to be submitted after 15 days from the actual settlement date.
B. Claims of less than USD 5,000.00 are not expected to be submitted.
C. Claims are calculated on the full principal amount of the failed transaction. Interest rates are imposed by the agent
banks, unless a higher negotiated rate is to be applied.
D. Acknowledgement of receipt of a claim should be confirmed within 48 hours by email or SWIFT.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
If spot GBP/CHF is quoted 2.3875-80 and the 3-month forward outright is 2.3660-70, what are the forward points?
A. 21.5/21
B. 210/215
C. 215/210
D. 21/21.5
Correct Answer: C

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Apple

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QUESTION 1
When applying thermal grease during a repair of the Mac Pro (Late 2013), which of the following are required?
A. Access card tool
B. Putty knife
C. CPU grease ruler
D. CPU grease stencil
E. Capacitor shield
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Where can a technician find the serial number of an SSD that has been replaced on a MacBook Pro (Retina, 13-inch.
Early 2013)?
A. Lift the mylar cover on the SSD.
B. Peel back the thermal pad on the SSD
C. On the top case.
D. On the back of the SSD cable
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Examine the image. When repairing a Mac mini (Mid 2011), which areas of the logic board assembly should you avoid
touching?
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A. The top and bottom of the assembly.
B. The EMI fingers and gasket.
C. The grounding pad and cable guide D. Thermal pad and heat sink clips.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following parts must be removed prior to replacing the left speaker of the MacBook Air (11- inch, Mid
2013)? SELECT THREE.
A. Right speaker
B. Bottom case
C. Battery
D. Logic board
E. I/O Flex cable
F. Display clamshell
G. Input device (IPD) flex cable
Correct Answer: BCG

QUESTION 5
To power on the system, which of the following can be used on the MacBook Pro (Retina, Mid 2012) and MacBook Pro
(Retina, 15-inch, Early 2013 and Late 2013) logic boards?
A. Two switches that can be flipped
B. Two ports that be activated
C. Two pads that can be shorted
D. Two buttons that can be pressed
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following could indicate accidental damage when inspecting the inside of a Mac mini (Late 2012) before a
repair?
A. Light dust in the fans
B. Third-party RAM installed
C. Lint gathered near the rear vents
D. Oxidation or discoloration of the logic board
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
What step is required before upgrading the RAM in a Mac Pro (Mid 2012)?
A. Remove the PCI-e fan.
B. Remove the processor tray.
C. Remove the hard drive carriers.
D. Remove the Optical Drive and Carrier.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What component should be investigated if a MacBook Air (13-inch, Mid 2012) sends video to an external display but not
to the internal?
A. Display Module
B. Logic board
C. I/O flex cable
D. I/O board
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A customer brings his MacBook Pro (15-inch, Mid 2012) in for servicing. It is not functioning correctly and you suspect
the machine has been damaged by the customer. As you inspect for accidental damage, you should open the lid and
confirm that the hinges are working smoothly and inspect the LCD for cracks in the glass. Which of the following should
you also do? Select two.
A. Disassemble the SuperDrive to check for debris or dust inside.
B. Look for cracks, dents, or scratches on the exterior of the system.
C. Connect the system to external speakers to check for sound output.
D. Erase all of the customer\’s data and reinstall OS X to test the hard drive.
E. Check for any unusual odors coming from the system, which might indicate spill damage.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which section of Apple Service Guide contains a detailed view of all service parts and their part numbers?
A. Part View
B. Exploded View
C. Service Parts Matrix
D. Parts General Information
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
According to the Apple Troubleshooting theory, at what stage should you run a diagnostic?
A. After determining the issue is not hardware
B. After determining the issue is Education Opportunity
C. After determining the issue is caused by the Environment
D. After determining the issue is with the device\’s Software or Hardware
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which section of Apple Service Guide contains a diagram for symptoms related to logic board connectors?
A. Quick Checks
B. Block Diagram
C. Exploded View
D. Functional Overview
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following Mac Pro (Late 2013) parts has a slot for flash storage?
A. Interposer
B. Daughterboard
C. Graphics Board A
D. Graphics Board B
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
You are troubleshooting an iMac (Late 2013) that does not power on. You notice that all diagnostic LEDs remain off
when a known-good power cord is connected
to the iMac and to a known-good power outlet.
What is most likely the cause of these symptoms?
A. Faulty power supply
B. Faulty display panel C. Faulty hard drive
D. Faulty video card
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Francine states that she does not see anything on her iMac display when she turns it on. Which of the following should
you use first to isolate as either a backlight issue or a video signal issue?
A. A flashlight
B. A replacement LCD panel
C. A replacement logic board
D. A replacement backlight power board
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
How many simultaneous connections are supported on AirPort Extreme and Time Capsule?
A. 254
B. 100
C. 50
D. 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which of the following measurements is an example of an appropriate use of a Multimeter when troubleshooting a
Mac?
A. Measure logic board battery voltage.
B. Measure amount of ESD voltage in the area.
C. Measure digital signals on the main processor.
D. Measure amount of AC volts going to the hard drive or SSD.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
If a customer uses the wrong wattage power adapter with a MacBook Pro (15-inch, Mid 2012) and cannot power on the
device, which of the following problems spaces best describes this issue?
A. OS B. Software
C. Hardware
D. Educational Opportunity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
The Mac Pro (Late 2013) enclosure is made of the following polished material that must be handled with care to avoid
scratching:
A. plastic
B. acrylic
C. titanium
D. aluminum
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
What color indicates that the Liquid Contact Indicators inside a MacBook Pro (13-inch, Mid 2012, have been triggered?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. White
D. Yellow
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which component for Apple Service Toolkit is designed to help troubleshoot issues with MagSafe and MagSafe 2 power
adapters?
A. NAD
B. VST
C. TPT
D. CSD
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
To help define if an issue is in the Environmental problem space, which question you ask your customer?
A. Do you have this issue on all Wi-Fi networks? B. Could you show me how you use your Mac?
C. Did you add any memory to this Mac?
D. Have you updated your software?
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
William would like to store his MacBook Air (13-inch, Mid 2013) while away for a six month sabbatical. What is the Apple
recommended level of battery charge for storing the computer?
A. 10 percent
B. 20 percent
C. 50 percent
D. 96 percent
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
If an issue is in the Hardware problem space, which of the following should be removed from the Apple product to
further isolate the issue?
A. All third party equipment
B. Any third party applications
C. Any third party extensions
D. Any third party frameworks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which of the following could indicate accidental damage when inspecting the inside of a Mac mini (Late 2012) before a
repair?
A. Light dust in the fans
B. Third-party RAM installed
C. Lint gathered near the rear vents
D. Oxidation or discoloration of the logic board
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which of the following 27-inch Apple Thunderbolt Display features is NOT available on the 27- inch Apple LED Cinema
Display? A. Gigabit Ethernet port
B. Mag Safe cable (85W)
C. Kensington security slot
D. Built-in 2.1 speaker system
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
How do you reset the SMC of a MacBook Pro (Retina, 13-inch, Early 2013)?
A. Press the internal SMC reset button near the SSD slot.
B. Disconnect the main battery, then hold down the power button down for five seconds.
C. Shut down the MacBook Pro and unplug for fifteen seconds. Attach the power adapter and wait five seconds, then
press the power button.
D. Plug in the MagSafe power adapter and shut down the computer. Using the system keyboard, press the Shift-Option-
Control keys and the power button at the same time
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Remaining residue from Very High Bond (VHB) adhesive should only be removed with which of the following:
A. VHB solvent
B. Nail polish remover
C. Isopropyl alcohol wipes
D. VHB neutralizer
E. Liquid acid neutralizer
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 29
You are about to replace a MacBook Air (11-inch. Mid 2013) logic board. Which of the following is the most important
step you should take immediately after removing the bottom case?
A. Remove the thermal module.
B. Install the battery cover.
C. Remove the SSD carrier
D. Remove the battery.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
What is the maximum amount of memory that is supported in a dual-processor Mac Pro (Mid 2012)?
A. 64 GB
B. 32GB
C. 16 GB
D. 8 GB
Correct Answer: D

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Salesforce

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QUESTION 1
What is a Record Type? Select the right choice
A. Allows you to define different sets of picklist values for both standard and custom picklist
B. Allows you to define different sets of picklist values only for standard picklist
C. Allows you to define different sets of picklist values only for custom picklist
D. Allows you to define different sets of picklist values only for new picklist
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Why are Sharing Rules used?
Correct Answer: To open up access to records you wouldn\’t naturally get through Organization Wide, Defaults and
RoleHierarchy. They are the exceptions to the Organization Wide Defaults.

QUESTION 3
Inline Editing is available in visual force pages?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You can map a single column from the CSV file to multiple fields in Salesforce SFA.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Define the Tabular Report.
Correct Answer: Provides a simple listing of your data without subtotals. The only format that has a floating report
header.

QUESTION 6
Which are true about Trialforce Email Branding?
A. It is available only in Unlimited, Enterprise and Developer Editions
B. It allows you to modify system-generated emails so that they appear to come from your company rather than fromSalesforce.com.
C. Trialforce Email Branding is automatically enabled for existing partners with Trialforce and when a new partner
request Trialforce.
D. Trialforce Email Branding only applies to users who sign up for your application through Trialforce.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which statements are true about Cloud Scheduler?
A. It is available in Group, Professional, Enterprise, Unlimited, and Developer Editions only.
B. Cloud Scheduler is now enabled by default for all organizations.
C. You can automatically see the New Meeting Request button on all eligible contact, lead, and person account detail
pages.
D. Meeting organizers can not use Cloud Scheduler to request meetings with customers, and have customers select
preferred times before confirming the meeting.
E. Administrators can add or remove the New Meeting Request button on multiple page layouts using the new Cloud
Scheduler quick setup method.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 8
When would you choose to build a Public Group?
Correct Answer: To simplify the number of sharing rules built or when defining folder or list view access.

QUESTION 9
How can you export accounts and contacts in a Contact Manager edition of Salesforce?
A. Since there is no Weekly Export in contact manager, you can instead install Salesforce for outlook.
B. You can create a report on those records and use the andquot;Export Detailsandquot; button.
C. Use Connect for Outlook because Salesforce for Outloook does not run without API.
D. Export those records using weekly data export from andquot;Setup andgt; Administration Setup andgt; Data
Management andgt; Exportandquot;.
E. There is no export option in Contact Manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You delete the Custom Field Region. All data related to Region will also be deleted.
A. True B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
If your org is configured for data export, you can generate backup files manually how often?
A. Everyday
B. Once every 6 days
C. Once every 15 days
D. Once every 5 days
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You can rename standard Tabs and Objects. 9962077244
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which of the following features is not available in Professional Edition?
A. Big Deal Alert
B. Workflow
C. Account Sharing Rules
D. Multi-Currency
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
The Console\’s center frame is the detail page view of any record selected from any of the console\’s other frame.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which graphs rely on grand total for dashboards?
A. Metric and table B. Metric and gauge
C. Table and gauge
D. Table and line
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Records in the recycle bin do NOT count against your organization\’s storage limits
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
A Look-up field can look up to what?
A. An Object
B. A field
C. A record
D. A report
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Custom Fiscal years are for companies that break down their fiscal years, quarters, and weeks in to custom fiscal
periods based on their financial planning requirements.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which combination of objects is available when creating a custom report type for Chatter reports?
A. Opportunities, Followers, User Feed
B. Accounts, User Feed, Comments
C. Users, User Feed, Comments
D. Chatter Groups, Members
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 20
A Workflow Alert can be tracked in Activity History
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Customer Portal users can view the tags section of a page, if it is included in a page layout.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
A role has many to many relationships with the user?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Custom Picklist fields can be either controlling or dependent fields
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
When users log in to Salesforce, either via the user interface, the API, or a desktop client Salesforce CRM confirms the
log in is authorized using all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Salesforce CRM then checks whether the user\’s profile has IP address restrictions. If IP address restrictions are
defined for the user\’s profile, any login from an undesignated IP address is denied and any login from a specified IP
address is allowed
B. If profile-based IP address restrictions aren\’t set, then Salesforce CRM checks whether the user is logging in from an
IP address she or he hasn\’t used to access Salesforce CRM before
C. Salesforce CRM checks whether the organization has login hour restrictions. If login hour restrictions are specified,
any login outside the specified hours is denied.
D. Salesforce CRM checks whether the user\’s profile has login hour restrictions. If login hour restrictions are specified
for the user\’s profile, any login outside the specified hours is denied.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
If your organization uses territory management, the new account is evaluated by account assignment rules and may be
assigned to one or more territories.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
You can update licenses on the Company Profile.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which of the following settings directly affects Date fields to display as MM/DD/YYYY?
A. Local
B. Time Zone
C. Language
D. Default Currency
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
It is advisable not to overwrite user records with new user data because it would prevent you from tracking a history of
past users and the records associated to them?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which of the following statements is true about computer activation?
A. It is required to activate additional IP addresses for accessing SF.
B. It is required for all IP addresses and browsers.
C. It is required to access SF online. D. It is required to identify regular SF users.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Data validation ensures the integrity of data when data is exported in SF
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
An organization uses Microsoft Dynamics 365 to track Opportunities and Competitors. They want to make sure that a competitor is always tracked when it is mentioned in an email from a potential customer regarding an opportunity-How can this be
achieved using the fewest steps?
A. Instruct users to always manually associate the competitor when the Competitor Mentioned card is shown by the Relationship Assistant.
B. Configure the Relationship Assistant, and check the Card Option for the Competitor Mentioned card to perform the associated action automatically instead of displaying the card.
C. In the configuration for Auto Capture, enable the option to track competitors automatically when mentioned in emails regarding an opportunity.
D. Create a workflow to scan emails for competitor names, and associate the mentioned competitor to the opportunity.
MB2-717 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You are using Opportunities and Quotes to manage your sales process in Microsoft Dynamics 365. A customer requests quotes tor the same set of products, but from two different price lists for comparison. What should you do in order to respond to this customer’s request?
A. Create two Opportunities with different price lists. Then create one Quote from each of the Opportunities.
B. Create one Opportunity with one Quote. Then, have the customer review the quote Before creating another.
C. Create one Opportunity with one Quote. Then, revise the Quote and add the other price list to the Quote
D. Create two Quotes from the same Opportunity. Then, switch the price list on one of the Quotes.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You are working with a company to implement Microsoft Dynamics 365 for their sales division. The sales manager wants all sales people to have the ability to be alerted when a recipient opens an email that was sent to them. Which component of Microsoft Dynamics 365 should you use to manage this ability?
A. Email Engagement
B. Auto Capture
C. Relationship Assistant
D. Folder Level Tracking
MB2-717 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are a sales professional for a medium-sized firm. You are entering information into Microsoft Dynamics you organized at a trade show. What type of record should you create for each card?
A. Prospect
B. Lead
C. Account
D. Opportunity
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You are working with the default Opportunity form In Microsoft Dynamics 365. Your sales manager has asked all sales staff to maintain best practices when managing sales and to enter as much information as possible. You need to be able to add additional records and activities to the Opportunity without leaving the form. What are two types of records you can add from within the Opportunity form? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Invoices
B. Credit Notes / Adjustment Notes
C. Stakeholders
D. Products
MB2-717 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
You are The technical support specialist for a company that utilizes Microsoft Dynamics 365. A new user calls the help desk complaining that every time they try to create a record, they are being denied the ability to The user states that some type of error is displayed as well. What would cause this error?
A. The user cannot create records using the Outlook client
B. The user failed to populate at (east one required field.
C. The user is using Dynamics 365 Business Edition father than Enterprise Edition.
D. The user cannot input more than 250 characters into a single line of text field.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You are a new sales executive for a company that utilizes Microsoft Dynamics 365. You have begun tracking your activities in Microsoft Dynamics 365. You have completed the activities for one of your customers. How will the activity state of the designated tasks be modified to reflect the fulfillment of these
A. You must manually change the activity state to Canceled.
B. The activity state will update automatically when the associated opportunity is won.
C. The activity state will update automatically when the associated sale order is complete.
D. You must manually change the activity state to Completed.
MB2-717 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You are a sales support specialist for a company that utilizes Microsoft Dynamics 365. You are going through the many records of their current database and inputting this data into Microsoft Dynamics 365. Which instance below would be created as an Opportunity record in Microsoft Dynamics 365?
A. a person who calls into the company after receiving a mass mailing advertisement from your company
B. a person who has prequalified for a mortgage and wants to utilize a real estate agent to look at property
C. a person who signs a contract to purchase three cases of your product on a quarterly basis for 2 years r
D. a list of people supplied by a marketing research firm that matches your target market
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You are using Microsoft Dynamics 365 for sales. Your marketing department has given you a number of illustrated documents that explain how your product is superior to various competitors. You have been tasked with adding this material to Dynamics 365 so the salespeople can use and email the material to their prospects, all from within Dynamics 365. How should you complete this task?
A. Add the documents to SharePoint and set up the SharePoint integration with Dynamics 365.
B. Add the documents as sales literature, and associate them with the right competitors.
C. Add the documents as Email Templates associated with the opportunity entity.
D. Add the documents as attachments in the notes section for each competitor.
MB2-717 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You are a technical support specialist for your company. The Company’s sales staff are issued a company laptop to use when interfacing with Microsoft Dynamics 365. They need to integrate their smart phones with Microsoft Dynamics 365 as well. Many of their phones, however, do not have a supported web browser. What should you suggest to meet this sales staffs need?
A. Advise them to run the Microsoft Dynamics 365 web app on their phones.
B. Advise them to use the web client to access Microsoft Dynamics 365 from their phones.
C. Advise them to download the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App from the Office 365 Admin portal.
D. Advise them to download the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App from their phone’s store.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You are working for a company that is in the process of trying to secure a large contract As you work with this sales opportunity, you need to manage all the various people involved in the sale, both from the customer and external stakeholder point of view. You need visibility on the Opportunity record to do this. Which type of functionality can you use in Microsoft Dynamics 365 to facilitate visibility of those involved?
A. Stakeholders
B. Business Process Flows
C. Contact Preferences
D. Chats
MB2-717 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You are a project manager in charge of implementing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for a sales organization. You are creating a product catalog. You have created a number of products, yet sales people are complaining that they cannot add these products to any invoices. What must be done so that the sales people can add these products to their invoices?
A. The products must first be added to an opportunity.
B. The products must first be activated.
C. The products must be placed into draft status.
D. The products must first be included in a quote.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
An opportunity to partner with one of your competitors on a large project has come up, but you are unable to select the competitor as a customer on the opportunity. Which two record types can you assign to the competitor to enable you to se4ect them as a customer? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Lead
B. Contact
C. Account
D. Prospect
MB2-717 pdf Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
You notice that all of your current customers are stored m Microsoft Dynamics 365 as Account records. You need to create records for other organizations you work with to support your customers. These organizations represent vendors, partners, and distributors. What record type should you use for these organizations?
A. Account
B. Prospect
C. Organization
D. Company
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You are a sales manager who has a large sates team. You want to track when you lose sales to your competitors. Which activity allows you to track your competitors in relationship to a lost opportunity?
A. Resolution activities
B. Phone activities
C. Task activities
D. Email activities
MB2-717 vce Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 28
Which two explanations of DTMF dialing are true? (Choose two.)
A. DTMF dialing consists of simultaneous voice-band tones generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
B. The use of DTMF enables support for advanced telephony services.
C. DTMF dialing uses INVITE messages to signal when the first digit is pressed in a new call.
D. DTMF dialing consists of a simultaneous digital-band pulse generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
210-060 exam Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
A Cisco administrator is asked to set up two new end users in Cisco Unified Communication Manager. Which two fields are required? (Choose two.)
A. First Name
B. User ID
C. PIN
D. Telephone Number
E. Password
F. Last Name
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 30
A user reports that during calls they hear excessive hissing when neither party is talking.
Which option is one cause of this noise?
A. QoS
B. LoPS
C. VAD
D. EPL
E. SRST
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 31
A voice admin is trying to help a user to remotely change the call forward busy settings for a directory number. Which option shows how to make this change remotely?
A. Log in to https:///ucmuser > general settings.
B. Log in to https:///ucmuser > phone > phone settings.
C. Log in to https:///ucmuser > phone > call forwarding > advanced calling rules.
D. Log in to https:///ucmuser > voicemail.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 32
A Cisco IP phone is connected to a Cisco switch and is trying to obtain its network configuration. What is the first protocol that is used?
A. RTP
B. DHCP
C. CDP
D. SIP
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 33
Which component allows Cisco Jabber to communicate with clients who are outside the corporate network?
A. Cisco Extension Mobility
B. Cisco TMS
C. Cisco Mobility Remote Destination
D. Cisco Unified RTMT
E. Cisco Mobile and Remote Access
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 34
Several users in the same Call Manager group reported that they receive a fast busy tone when they go off hook. They reported that the issue went away after a few minutes. Where should the voice systems administrator begin troubleshooting?
A. SIP gateway
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber
C. network cable
D. 7945 IP phone
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 35
A network administrator wants a new employee to download the RTMT tool. Which menu option supports this function?
A. Bulk Administration > Job Scheduler > Plugins
B. Application > Plugins
C. Call routing > Plugins
D. Server > Region > Plugins
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
An administrator must keep CDR data for a longer period of time and wants to modify the configured value of the CDR/CMR Files Presentation Duration Days). Which menu options does the engineer navigate?
A. Unified CM Administration > System > Enterprise Parameters
B. Unified Serviceability > Tools > Serviceability Reports Archive
C. Unified CM Administration > Call Routing > Route Plan Report
D. Unified Serviceability > Tools > CDR Management
210-060 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 37
What is the maximum amount of packet loss an engineer should allow for voice traffic on an IP network?
A. 5 percent
B. 2 percent
C. 3 percent
D. 1 percent
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 38
A user presses the envelope button on a 7945 IP phone, but it only launches audio voicemail. Where should the voice systems administrator troubleshoot?
A. Visual voicemail IP phone service in Cisco Unity Connection
B. Visual voicemail IP phone service in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. SIP trunk between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Unity Connection
D. IP phone network connectivity
210-060 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 39
A manager is generating bill reports for a particular user. Which navigation sequence must be used for this task?
A. Bills > Department
B. User Reports > Bills > Department
C. Bill > Individual
D. User Reports > Bills > Individual
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
Which address is required to create a video endpoint in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. MAC
B. IP
C. E.164
D. SIP URI
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 41
A voicemail user reports that he cannot access Cisco Unity Connection from the IP phone message button. Which option must you perform to resolve the problem?
A. In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, navigate to Advanced Features > Voicemail to confirm that the user has the correct voicemail profile
B. In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, navigate to Device > Phone to confirm that the device has the correct voicemail profile
C. In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, navigate to Device > Phone to confirm that the directory number has the correct voicemail profile
D. In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, navigate to User Management > End User to confirm that the user has the correct voicemail profile
E. In Cisco Unity Connection, navigate to Users > Users to confirm that the user web password is correct.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 42
Which two user attributes must be defined in Cisco Unity Connection before the users can be added? (Choose two.)
A. display name
B. alias
C. time zone
D. class of service
E. dial plan
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43
Users are complaining about dropped calls, so a network engineer needs to troubleshoot Cisco Unified Communications Manager to view concurrent calls and dropped calls. Where does the engineer generate such reports?
A. Cisco Unified Serviceability
B. Cisco Unified OS Administration
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration
D. Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 44
An engineer must ensure that user data is maintained in lightweight directory access protocol and copied to Cisco Unity Connection, but Cisco Unity Connection-specific data is locally maintained in the Cisco Unity Connection database.
Which user creation option accomplishes this task?
A. bulk administration
B. import from CUCM via AXL
C. import from LDAP
D. manual creation
210-060 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 45
DRAG DROP
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 46
DRAG DROP
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210-060 exam Correct Answer:
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 47
DRAG DROP
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QUESTION 48
DRAG DROP
Drag from the left to correct steps.
Select and Place:
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210-060 dumps Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 49
An IP phone that is using PoE shows andquot;unknownandquot; in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What should the engineer do to restore the phone to service?
A. restart the phone from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. reset the phone from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. enter **# locally on the IP phone
D. check the network cable and switch port
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 50
Which menu option should be selected to add a desk phone as an endpoint in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Application
B. Device
C. System
D. User management
E. Media devices
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 51
Which component is needed to facilitate the connection between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco Unified Presence Server?
A. SIP trunk
B. H.323 gateway
C. Gatekeeper
D. MGCP gateway
E. Cisco Unified Border Element
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 52
An engineer is configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager disaster recovery system. Which three statements about the disaster recovery system are true? (Choose three.)
A. It requires the use of schedules for backups.
B. Backup files are encrypted using the cluster security password.
C. If the backup device is listed in a backup schedule, it cannot be manually deleted.
D. If the backup does not complete within 40 hours, the backup times out.
E. Archiving backups to tape drives is supported.
F. SSL is used between the master and local agents.
210-060 vce Correct Answer: BCF

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B. Enable Windows authentication.
C. Enable Forms authentication.
D. Generate server SSL certificates and install them in IIS.
70-486 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Many Web applications require a way to restrict access to some resources (such as specific pages) so that those resources are accessible only to authenticated users. The default Web application project template for ASP.NET MVC provides a controller, data models, and views that you can use to add ASP.NET forms authentication to your application. The built-in functionality lets users register, log on and off, and change their password. For many applications, this functionality provides a sufficient level of user authentication.
Incorrect:
Not B: Windows authentication would require an Active Directory. Windows authentication method works only if the following two conditions exist:
/ You set up your network to use the Kerberos authentication protocol that requires Active Directory.
/ You set up the computers and accounts on your network as trusted for delegation.
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff398049(VS.98).aspx

QUESTION 2
You are designing an enterprise-level Windows Communication Foundation (WCF) application. User accounts will migrate from the existing system. The new system must be able to scale to accommodate the increasing load.
The new servers are experiencing significant stress under load of large-scale role changes. You need to ensure that the application can handle the stress. Which authorizations should you redesign? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Role-based approach
B. Identity-based approach
C. Resource-based trusted subsystem model
D. Resource-based impersonation/delegation model
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

QUESTION 3
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that will run in a shared environment.
The application requests the user’s password, and then uses the password to sign data.
You need to minimize the potential for the password to be discovered by other processes that run in the shared environment. What should you do?
A. Add the SecuritySafeCriticalAttribute attribute to the methods which process the password.
B. Store the password in a SecureString instance.
C. Encrypt the password on the web page, and decrypt the password in the MVC application.
D. Run the code that processes the password in its own AppDomain.
70-486 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Application domains provide a unit of isolation for the common language runtime. They are created and run inside a process. Application domains are usually created by a runtime host, which is an application responsible for loading the
runtime into a process and executing user code within an application domain. The runtime host creates a process and a default application domain, and runs managed code inside it. Runtime hosts include ASP.NET, Microsoft Internet
Explorer, and the Windows shell. For most applications, you do not need to create your own application domain; the runtime host creates any necessary application domains for you. However, you can create and configure additional
application domains if your application needs to isolate code or to use and unload DLLs.

QUESTION 4
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that uses forms authentication. The user database contains a user named LibraryAdmin. You have the following requirements:
70-486 dumps
You need to implement the controller to meet the requirements.
Which code segment should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
70-486 dumps
70-486 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. Devices that use many different browsers will use the application.
You have the following requirements:
70-486 dumps
You need to configure the application. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use JavaScript to evaluate the window.innerWidth and window.innerHeigh properties.
B. Set the value of the width property for the viewport meta tag to device-width.
C. Use CSS to target the HTML element on each page. Set the values of the width and height properties to 100%.
D. Use CSS media queries to target screen size, device orientation, and other browser capabilities.
70-486 pdf Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: If you want the viewport width to match the device’s physical pixels, you can specify the following:
For this to work correctly, you must not explicitly force elements to exceed that width (e.g., using a width attribute or CSS property), otherwise the browser will be forced to use a larger viewport regardless. D: Media queries in CSS3 extend the CSS2 media types idea: Instead of looking for a type of device, they look at the capability of the device. Media queries can be used to check many things, such as: width and height of the viewport width and height of the device orientation (is the tablet/phone in landscape or portrait mode?) resolution Using media queries are a popular technique for delivering a tailored style sheet to tablets, iPhone, and Androids.

QUESTION 6
You are developing an ASP.NET application that allows users to download Microsoft Azure log files. You need to improve the performance of the application. What should you do?
A. Minify the content files.
B. Enable compression in IIS.
C. Bundle the content files into a single .tar file.
D. Host the image, JavaScript, and CSS files on a different server.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Bundling is a new feature in ASP.NET 4.5 that makes it easy to combine or bundle multiple files into a single file. You can create CSS, JavaScript and other bundles. Fewer files means fewer HTTP requests and that can improve first page
load performance.

QUESTION 7
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that enables you to edit and save a contact.
The application must not save on an HTTP GET request.
You need to implement the controller.
Which two possible code segments should you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
70-486 dumps
70-486 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-486 pdf Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: We retrieve the GET and POST methods through
this.HttpContext.Request.RequestType.
B: This is the default MVC implementation of having separate methods for GET and POST via function overloading.
Incorrect:
Not D: We retrieve the GET and POST methods through this.HttpContext.Request.RequestType, not through this.HttpContext.Request[“ActionName”].

QUESTION 8
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that enables you to edit and save a student object.
The application must not retrieve student objects on an HTTP POST request.
You need to implement the controller. Which code segment should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
70-486 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:

QUESTION 9
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that enables you to edit and save a student object.
The application must not retrieve student objects on an HTTP POST request.
You need to implement the controller.
Which code segment should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
70-486 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-486 vce Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:

QUESTION 10
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that delivers real-time game results to sports fans. The application includes the following code. Line numbers are included for reference only.
70-486 dumps
The source data for the game results is updated every 30 seconds. Testers report the following issues with the application:
70-486 dumps
You need to correct the performance issues. Which two changes should you make to the code? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Replace the code at line 07 with the following code segment:[OutputCache(Duration =30, VaryByParam = “none”, Location = OutputCacheLocation.Client, NoStore = true)]
B. Replace the code at line 12 with the following code segment:[OutputCache(Duration = 30, VaryByParam = “none”, Location = OutputCacheLocation.Server, NoStore = true)]
C. Replace the code at line 07 with the following code segment:[OutputCache(Duration = 3600, VaryByParam = “none”, Location = OutputCacheLocation.Server, NoStore = false)]
D. Replace the code at line 12 with the following code segment:[OutputCache(Duration = 3600, VaryByParam = “none”, Location = OutputCacheLocation.Client, NoStore = true)]
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: They report delays in seeing the latest game results. This is the output of the GetResults() function. We decrease the Duration in the cache for this function from 3600 to 30. This is one line 12.
A: They report seeing other user’s name when they sign in to the application. This is the output of the GetUserInfo() function. We should change the OutputCacheLocation of the caching of this function from Server to Client. This is on line 7. Note: The OutputCacheLocation.Client option indicates that the content should be cached at the requesting client. Any requests for the same resource made from the same client within the expiry period, will be served out the client’s cache, without a network request being made to the server. The OutputCacheLocation.Server option indicates that the content will be cached at the origin server. This content will be served for subsequent requests made by the initial client and any other client requesting the same resource within the expiry period. References:

QUESTION 11
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application.
The application must allow users to enter HTML in a feedback text box only.
You need to disable request validation. What should you do?
A. Use the HttpRequest.Form property to read the unvalidated form value.
B. Apply and set the Validatelnput attribute on the controller action to FALSE.
C. Use the HttpRequest.Unvalidated property to read the unvalidated form value.
D. Apply and set the CausesValidation attribute on the controller action to FALSE.
70-486 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The HttpRequest.Unvalidated Property provides access to HTTP request values without triggering request validation.

QUESTION 12
You are designing a distributed application that runs on the Windows Azure platform.
The application must store a small amount of insecure global information that does not change frequently.
You need to configure the application to meet the requirements. Which server-side state management option should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows Azure application state
B. SQL Azure
C. Profile properties of the Windows Azure application
D. Windows Azure session state
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SQL Database provides a relational database management system for Windows Azure and is based on SQL Server technology. With a SQL Database instance, you can easily provision and deploy relational database solutions to the cloud, and take advantage of a distributed data center that provides enterprise-class availability, scalability, and security with the benefits of built-in data protection and self-healing.
Incorrect:
Not A: Application State does not exist in Azure. Not C: Profile properties stores personal, not global, information. Not D: Session state is not global. Session states handles user information such as cookies, hidden fields, and query strings are some client-side options to tracking user state

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3.0 Cisco Data Center Networking Technologies 26%
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  • 3.6 Describe and explain the use of role-based access control within the data center infrastructure
4.0 Automation and Orchestration 15%
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200-155 Dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam ()Q&As

1. You have assembled and installed a Hitachi Thunder 9570V?subsystemRK and a RKA into a 19 inch rack. The system parameters have also been configured. The customer now needs to use port 0A in order to connect HP-UX with a LUN 0 and Solaris with a LUN 0 on the same port. Which two will enable this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. install the LUN SECURITY license
B. create two host groups on port 0A
C. install the LUN-MANAGEMENT license
D. configure port 0A to work in HP-UX mode
200-155 exam Answer: BC

2. What is the operational humidity requirement at a site when installing a Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem?
A. 5% to 90% B.
8% to 80% C.
10% to 75% D.
10% to 90%
Answer: B

3. Which statement is true about cache slots on the Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem?
A. Each controller has two cache slots and each slot can hold 1GB DIMMS for a maximum of 2GB per controller.
B. Each controller has two cache slots and each slot can hold 512MB or 1GB DIMMS for a maximum of 1GB or 2GB per controller.
C. Each controller has four cache slots and each slot can hold 512MB or 1GB DIMMS for a maximum of 2 GB or 4GB per controller.
D. Each controller has four cache slots and each slot can hold 256MB or 512MB DIMMS for a maximum of 1 GB or 2 GB per controller.
200-155 dumps Answer: B

4. Which component on the first RKA is used to connect to the RK in a Hitachi Thunder 9570V?Series subsystem?
A. PDB
B. ENC unit
C. Controller unit
D. AC Power Unit
Answer: B

5. You are connected to a Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem using Hitachi?Resource Manager GUI. You have created LUNs for 12D+1P RAID group, and now you want to set up one spare disk. Given the following steps:
A.select Settings-> Logical Settings
B. select Settings-> Configuration Settings
C. select the Logical Settings tab D.select Settings-> Logical Unit-> Set Spare Drive E.select the disk that you want to set up as spare F.select the Spare Drive tab
A. B, F, E
B. B, F, G
C. D, C, E
D. F, C, G
200-155  pdf Answer: B

6. Ten LUNs must be recognized by the QLogic HBA on Microsoft Windows 2000 Server which is connected to a Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem. What is the system parameter that needs to be set up?
A. in the modify Host Group option, select CCHS mode in Standard mode
B. in the modify Host Group option, select CCHS mode in Host connection mode
C. in the modify Host Group option, select HISUP2 mode in Host connection mode
D. in the modify Host Group option, select HISUP mode in Host connection mode 2 Answer: D

7. You are using the Hitachi?Resource Manager GUI for the first time. You want to change to a different mode from default mode. What is the first thing you should do, before changing to a different mode?
A. go to Add-> Password and add the password
B. go to Add-> Change Mode and select the mode
C. go to Settings-> Password and register the password
D. go to Settings-> Change Properties and set the mode option to other modes
200-155  vce Answer: C

8. A customer has Sun Netra Servers mounted on a Hitachi Data Systems?19 inch rack. You need to mount a RK and a RKA on the same rack. What is the amps/PS rating you need to use for both the RK and RKA together in order to ensure that the PDU is not overloaded when two power supplies are used on both the RK and the RKA and the source is 100V?
A. 3.20
B. 5.10
C. 6.30
D. 10.20
Answer: C

9. What is the vibration tolerance of a Hitachi Thunder 9570?subsystem in operation, if installed near large generators located on the floor above or below the subsystem?
A. 2.5 m/s2 or less
B. 3.0 m/s2 or less
C. 3.5 m/s2 or less
D. 4.0 m/s2 or less
200-155  exam Answer:A

10. A customer has purchased a floor model of a Hitachi Thunder 9570V?Series subsystem set up as RK + RKA + H2H Deskside Kit. Which two connections between the RK and the RKA are valid? (Choose two.)
A. HSSDC#0 on Controller#0 of RK is connected to HSSDC#0 on ENC Unit#0 of RKA and HSSDC#1 on Controller#0 of RK is connected to HSSDC#1 on ENC Unit#0 of RKA.
B. HSSDC#0 on Controller#0 of RK is connected to HSSDC#1 on ENC Unit#0 of RKA and HSSDC#1 on Controller#0 of RK is connected to HSSDC#0 on ENC Unit#0 of RKA.
C. HSSDC#0 on Controller#1 of RK is connected to HSSDC#0 on ENC Unit#1 of RKA and HSSDC#1 on Controller#1 of RK is connected to HSSDC#1 on ENC Unit#1 of RKA.
D. HSSDC#0 on Controller#1 of RK is connected to HSSDC#1 on ENC Unit#1 of RKA and HSSDC#1 on Controller#1 of RK is connected to HSSDC#0 on ENC Unit#1 of RKA. Answer:AC

11. You are performing a Microprogram install for a customer on their Hitachi Thunder 9570V?Series subsystem. You receive message code RBA000 on the Web Access information messages. What does this message indicate?
A. Installation failed.
B. Installation failed in a part of the drive.
C. Downgrade check result was “Not Good.”
D. There was another system when installation was started.
200-155 dumps Answer: C

12. Which three operating systems can be used to install and run HDLM? (Choose three.)
A. AIX
B. OS/2
C. HP-UX
D. VxWorks
E. Microsoft Windows 2000
Answer:ACE

13. What is the maximum distance between a host and a Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem, when using short-wave Fibre Channel cable operating at data transfer speed of 200MB/s?
A. 100 meters
B. 200 meters
C. 300 meters
D. 400 meters
200-155 pdf Answer: C

14. What do you use to capture Simple or CTL Alarm trace information?
A. HiCommand
B. Web Access
C. Hitachi?Resource Manager CLI
D. Hitachi?Resource Manager GUI
Answer: B

15. You are connected to a Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem using a browser. How can you enter into Maintenance mode on it?
A. press the Soft Reset button on both the controllers
B. press the Rotary Set switch on the rear of the frame
C. click “Go to Maintenance Mode” button on the left pane of the browser
D. enter the IP address of the subsystem in the address field of the browser
200-155 vce Answer:A

16. Which of the following parts can be downgraded while the 9500V is online?
A. RKA
B. Drive
C. Cache
D. Controller
Answer: B

17. Frame Relay adopts ( ) as the switching method.
A.Routing
B.Circuit switching
C.Fast switching
D.Packet switching
200-155  exam Answer: D

18. A network protocol is a set of rules and conventions that prescribe how network devices inter-communicate. The communication parties shall understand and abide the protocol. ( )
T.True
F.False
Answer: T

19. Which layer of the OSI reference model implements encryption. ( )
A.Physical layer
B.Transport layer
C.Session layer
D.Presentation layer
200-155  dumps Answer: D

20. Both the transport layer and the data link layer perform error check. ( )
T.True
F.False
Answer: t

21. Common routing protocols are ( ).
A.IPX
B.OSPF
C.RIP
D.IP
200-155 pdf Answer: bc

22. To test the gateways that a packet will pass through from the source host to the destination, use the command ( ) in the H3C COMWARE command line.
A.ping
B.tracert
C.show path
D.display path
Answer: b

23. What algorithm is adopted in PPP CHAP authentication? ( )
A.MD5
B.DES
C.RSA
D.SHA
200-155  vce Answer: a

24. Two routers are in back-to-back connection with the following configuration. Can they communicate
with each other? ( )
[Router1] display current-configuration
#
sysname Router1
#
FTP server enable
#
l2tp domain suffix-separator @
#
radius scheme system
#
domain system
#
local-user admin
password cipher .]@USE=B,53Q=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.NM(0=0\)*5WWQ=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.N
service-type telnet terminal
level 3
service-type ftp local
user h3c password
simple h3c service
type ppp
#
interface Aux0
async mode flow
#
interface Serial0/0
link-protocol ppp
ppp authentication-mode chap
ppp chap user h3c
ip address 10.0.0.1 255.255.255.0
#
interface NULL0
#
user-interface con 0
user-interface aux 0
user-interface vty 0 4
authentication-mode none
user privilege level 3
#
return
[Router2] display current-configuration
#
sysname Router2
#
FTP server enable
#
l2tp domain suffix-separator @
#
radius scheme system
#
domain system
#
local-user admin
password cipher .]@USE=B,53Q=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.NM(0=0\)*5WWQ=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.N
service-type telnet terminal
level 3
service-type ftp local
user h3c password
simple 3com service
type ppp
#
interface Aux0
async mode flow
#
interface Serial0/0
clock DTECLK1
link-protocol ppp
ppp authentication-mode chap
ppp chap user h3c
ip address 10.0.0.2 255.255.255.0
#
interface NULL0
#
user-interface con 0
user-interface aux 0
user-interface vty 0 4
authentication-mode none
user privilege level 3
#
return
A.Yes
B.No
C.No decision can be made, for there is not enough information.
Answer: b
9. If the user data exceeds the Bc (committed burst ) in a frame relay network, the exceeding data will be
dropped. ( )
T.True
F.False
Answer: f

25. Two routers are in back-to-back connection with the following configuration. Can they communicate
with each other? ( )
[Router1]display current-configuration
#
sysname Router1
#
FTP server enable
#
l2tp domain suffix-separator @
#
fr switching#
radius scheme system
#
domain system
#
local-user admin
password cipher .]@USE=B,53Q=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.NM(0=0\)*5WWQ=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.N
service-type telnet terminal
level 3
service-type ftp
#
interface Aux0
async mode flow
#
interface Ethernet0/0
ip address dhcp-alloc
#
interface Ethernet0/1
ip address dhcp-alloc
#
interface Serial0/0
link-protocol fr
fr interface-type dce
#
interface Serial0/0.1 p2p
fr dlci 20
ip address 10.0.0.1 255.255.255.0
#
interface NULL0
#
user-interface con 0
user-interface aux 0
user-interface vty 0 4
authentication-mode none
user privilege level 3
#
return
[Router2]display current-configuration
#
sysname Router2
#
FTP server enable
#
l2tp domain suffix-separator @
#
radius scheme system
#
domain system
#
local-user admin
password cipher .]@USE=B,53Q=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.NM(0=0\)*5WWQ=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.N
service-type telnet terminal
level 3
service-type ftp
#
interface Aux0
async mode flow
#
interface Ethernet0/0
ip address dhcp-alloc
#
interface Ethernet0/1
ip address dhcp-alloc
#
interface Serial0/0
clock DTECLK1
link-protocol fr
#
interface Serial0/0.1 p2p
fr dlci 20
ip address 10.0.0.2 255.255.255.0
#
interface NULL0
#
user-interface con 0
user-interface aux 0
user-interface vty 0 4
authentication-mode none
user privilege level 3
#
return
A.Yes
B.No
C.No decision can be made, for there is not enough information.
200-155  exam Answer: a

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400-251 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-251 Dumps Exam (6-26)Q&As

QUESTION 6
Which two statements about the DES algorithm are true? (Choose two)
A. The DES algorithm is based on asymmetric cryptography.
B. The DES algorithm is a stream cipher.
C. The DES algorithm is based on symmetric cryptography.
D. The DES algorithm encrypts a block of 128 bits.
E. The DES algorithm uses a 56-bit key.
400-251 exam 
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7
Which of these is a core function of the risk assessment process? (Choose one.)
A. performing regular network upgrades
B. performing network optimization
C. performing network posture validation
D. establishing network baselines
E. prioritizing network roll-outs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What is the name of the unique tool/feature in cisco security manager that is used to merge an access list based on the source/destination IP address service or combination of these to provide a manageable view of access policies?
A. merge rule tool
B. policy simplification tool
C. rule grouping tool

D. object group tool
E. combine rule tool
400-251 dumps 
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about the ISO are true? (Choose two)
A. The ISO is a government-based organization.
B. The ISO has three membership categories: member, correspondent, and subscribers.
C. Only member bodies have voting rights.
D. Correspondent bodies are small countries with their own standards organization.
E. Subscriber members are individual organizations.
Correct Answer: BC

Question: 10
You want department administrators to perform some basic administrative tasks that require them to be able to access the Central Management Console (CMC). How will you give the department administrators the right to be able to grant access to the CMC to other administrators in their own departments?
A. In the Organize Objects area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to “Edit this object”.

B. In the Manage BusinessObjects Applications area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to “Full control”.
C. In the Manage Settings area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to “Modify the rights users have to this object”.
D. In the Manage BusinessObjects Applications area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to “Modify the rights users have to this object”.
400-251 pdf 
Answer: D

Question: 11
A user who has always scheduled objects for the Marketing department is leaving your company. Which method should you use in the Central Management Console (CMC) to ensure that all recurring instances owned by this user remain in effect but become owned by the Administrator?
A. Disable the departing user then click on the Transfer recurring instances to button and select the Administrator. Click OK.
B. Delete the departing user; all recurring instances automatically transfer to the Administrator.
C. Open each recurring instance on the object’s History tab then click on Schedule for and select Administrator. Ensure that the instance will use the same recurrence pattern and parameter values. Delete the departing user when all instances have been duplicated.
D. Download details of all the instances then log on to the CMC as Administrator and schedule them using the same recurrence patterns and parameter values. Delete the departing user when all instances have been duplicated.
Answer: B

Question: 12
Which statement describes the role of BusinessObjects Enterprise within the Business Objects Business Intelligence (BI) suite of products?
A. Allows you to analyze and interact with data from both relational and OLAP data sources.
B. Provides you with an open, scalable platform that supports all of your BI tools and applications.
C. Provides you with a process for accessing data, formatting it and delivering it as information to various users.
D. Allows you to integrate, transform and deliver enterprise data from any source.
400-251 vce 
Answer: B

Question: 13
Select two true statements from below. (Choose two.)
A. You cannot copy Calendar objects in CMC > Calendars area of administration.
B. You can create your own Calendars in BusinessObjects Enterprise; you have to use the pre build business calendars only.
C. You can schedule Web Intelligence documents based on an existing calendar.
D. Calendars can be created in InfoView.
Answer: B, C

Question: 14
What steps should you follow to make Report A run automatically every day upon the successful completion of Report B?
A. Working in InfoView, create a new schedule-based event. Schedule Report B to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to trigger on completion window. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to wait for window.
B. Working in the Central Management Console, create a new schedule-based event. Schedule Report B to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to trigger on completion window. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new schedule based event to the Events to wait for window.
C. Working in the Central Management Console, create a new custom event. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new custom event to the Events to wait for window. After Report B runs successfully, trigger the custom event in the Central Management Console.
D. Working in InfoView, create a new custom event. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new custom event to the Events to wait for window. After Report B runs successfully, trigger the custom event in the Central Management Console.
400-251 exam 
Answer: B

Question: 15
The InfoView is mostly used for which of the following tasks:
A. Mostly for administering content
B. Exclusively for viewing reports
C. Viewing information about reports (Encyclopedia and Discussions)
D. Accessing information and some limited content administration
Answer: D

Question: 16
Once you grant the right to an application value (e.g. Print Documents set to Grant) to a user/group on a specific application (e.g. Desktop Intelligence), you will still be able to grant that right (e.g. print) to one Desktop Intelligence document but not the other Desktop Intelligence document.
A. True
B. False
400-251 dumps 
Answer: B

Question: 17
Your user groups have different functional needs and your managers would rather employ a more complicated user group structure than create additional folder levels. What approach should you use to create a content plan that combines logical report organization and functional user access levels?
A. Use the logical-functional group method.
B. Grant each user advanced rights to each object.
C. Use the functional-folder method.
D. Create a logical content plan.
Answer: A

Question: 18
Which two statements are true when you make changes to the report properties of a published Crystal Report object using the Central Management Console (CMC)? (Choose two.)
A. The report file stored in the Input File Report Server (FRS) is modified.
B. The report file stored in the Input File Report Server (FRS) is not modified.
C. The changes are written to the Central Management Server (CMS) system database.
D. The changes are not written to the Central Management Server (CMS) system database.
400-251 pdf 
Answer: B, C

Question: 19
How do you disable anonymous access in BusinessObjects Enterprise?
A. Within InfoView uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
B. Within Central Management Console (CMC) disable Guest account.
C. Within Central Configuration Manager (CCM) uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
D. Within Central Management Console (CMC) uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
Answer: B

Question: 20
Assume you are using InfoView and need to locate a specific Web Intelligence report, but you cannot remember its name. There are 15 Web Intelligence reports in the system and you have access to all root-level folders. What would be the best way to locate the report?
A. Browse the folders and categories
B. Filter
C. Report off the CMS database
D. Use the Advanced feature of the Search function
400-251 vce 
Answer: D

Question: 21
A Web Intelligence document is a report object that is created from a universe data source over the web through the InfoView interface. A Web Intelligence document can be published to the BusinessObjects Enterprise environment in one or more ways. Select the best answer from the list below.
A. Web Intelligence documents can be published by using Save As in InfoView through the Organize Objects or Folders areas of the Central Management Console or by using the BusinessObjects Publishing Wizard.
B. Web Intelligence documents can be published only by using Save As in InfoView because they only exist inside the BusinessObjects Enterprise environment.
C. Web Intelligence documents can be published by using Save As in InfoView or through the Organize Objects or Folders areas of the Central Management Console.
Answer: B

Question: 22
Which three authentication systems does the BusinessObjects Enterprise support with Single Sign-On (SSO) feature? (Choose three.)
A. Windows NT
B. Windows NT with SiteMinder
C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) with SiteMinder

D. Windows Active Directory (AD)
400-251 exam 
Answer: A, C, D

Question: 23
Which three benefits can users realize from a well-designed content and system management plan? (Choose three.)
A. User license counts are never exceeded.
B. Only required information appears in report objects.
C. Locating reports and other objects is simple.
D. Information is current.
Answer: B, C, D

Question: 24
Which three problems can users encounter as a result of a poorly-designed content and system management plan? (Choose three.)
A. Required information is not visible in report objects.
B. Named user license counts are exceeded.
C. Information is not current.
D. Reports and other objects take too long to locate.
400-251 dumps 
Answer: A, C, D

Question: 25
What are two of the major steps that you must perform when creating a logical content plan for your BusinessObjects Enterprise implementation? (Choose two.)
A. Create BusinessObjects Enterprise server groups based on geographical considerations.
B. Specify group access levels for folders and objects.
C. Organize users into functional groups.
D. Create profiles for encyclopedia distribution.
Answer: B, C

Question: 26
When you move a folder, the objects within are also moved. What happens to the folder’s object rights?
A. The folder rights are set to the default View for Everyone.
B. The folder rights are set to the default Full Control for the Administrators group.
C. The folder retains the object rights of the original.
D. The folder inherits the object rights set on the new parent folder.
400-251 pdf 
Answer: C
 400-251 dumps

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CCIE, Cisco

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-101 Dumps Exam (20-33)Q&As:
Question No : 20 – (Topic 1) Which circumstance can cause packet loss due to a microburst?
A. slow convergence
B. a blocked spanning-tree port
C. process switching
D. insufficient buffers
400-101 exam 
Answer: D
Explanation:
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the network. Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shown as accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative of receive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to data bursts coming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds).

Question No : 21 – (Topic 1)
Which three features require Cisco Express Forwarding? (Choose three.)
A. NBAR
B. AutoQoS
C. fragmentation
D. MPLS
E. UplinkFast
F. BackboneFast
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QoS Features That Require CEF
These class-based QoS features are supported only on routers that run CEF.
•Network Based Application Recognition (NBAR) provides intelligent network classification. For more information, refer to Network Based Application Recognition.
• The AutoQoS -VoIP feature simplifies and speeds up the implementation and provisioning of QoS for VoIP traffic. This feature is enabled with the help of the auto qos voip command. CEF must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC before the auto qos command can be used. For more information about this feature and its prerequisites, refer to AutoQoS – VoIP.
Why Is CEF Needed in MPLS Networks?
Concerning MPLS, CEF is special for a certain reason; otherwise, this book would not explicitly cover it. Labeled packets that enter the router are switched according to the label forwarding information base (LFIB) on the router. IP packets that enter the router are switched according to the CEF table on the router. Regardless of whether the packet is switched according to the LFIB or the CEF table, the outgoing packet can be a labeled packet or an IP packet

Question No : 22 – (Topic 1) Which option is the most effective action to avoid packet loss due to microbursts?
A. Implement larger buffers.
B. Install a faster CPU.
C. Install a faster network interface.
D. Configure a larger tx-ring size.
400-101 dumps 
Answer: A
Explanation:
You can’t avoid or prevent them as such without modifying the sending host’s application/network stack so it smoothes out the bursts. However, you can manage microbursts by tuning the size of receive buffers / rings to absorb occasional microbursts.
Question No : 23 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps Which statement about the debug behavior of the device is true?
A. The device debugs all IP events for 172.16.129.4.
B. The device sends all debugging information for 172.16.129.4.
C. The device sends only NTP debugging information to 172.16.129.4.
D. The device sends debugging information every five seconds.
Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
Which statement about the effect of this configuration is true ?
A. The 192.168.2.1/24 network is summarized and advertised as 192.168.2.0/24
B. The 192.168.2.1/32 network appears in the route table on R1 ,but it is missing from its OSPF database.
C. The 192.168.2.1/32 network is missing from the OSPF database and the route table on R1.
D. The 192.168.2.1/32 network appears in the Rl OSPF database , but it is missing from its route table.
400-101 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
What is wrong with the configuration of this tunnel interface ?
A. ISATAP tunnels cannot use the EUI-64 address format.
B. The tunnel source of an ISATAP tunnel must always point to a loopback interface.
C. Router advertisements are disabled on this tunnel interface.
D. No tunnel destination has been specified.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 26
Which two statements about IGMP filtering are true?
A. It eliminates the need for a multicast RP.
B. It can be implemented on Layer-3 routed ports using the ipigmp access-list command.
C. It allows Anycast RP to operate within a single AS.
D. It supports IGMPv3 traffic only
E. It can be implemented on Layer-2 switchports using IGMP profiles.
400-101 vce 
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
What are two ways DHCPv6 guard can mitigate man-in-the-middle attacks?
A. An interface in the server device role can use ACLs to filter authorized servers.
B. An interface in the server device role can drop all DHCPv6 server messages.
C. An interface in the client device role can use ACLs to filter authorized servers.
D. An interface in the server device role can use prefix-lists to filter authorized DCHP reply messages.
E. An interface in the client device role blocks all DCHPv6 server messages by default.
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 28
You are the project manager of the BHG Project. You are creating a network diagram as shown in the figure:
Mary, a project team member, reports that an identified risk is likely to happen in the project that will affect the completion date of Activity D . She reports that the risk event will likely cause the duration of the activity to increase by six days. If this happens what is the earliest the project can complete?
A. 32 days
B. 29 days
C. 27 days
D. 26 days
400-101 exam 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If Activity D increases by six days, the duration of the project will not change. There is 11 days of float available for Activity D so it may delay by six days without affecting the project end date. What is float? Float or total float (TF) is the total amount of time that a schedule activity may be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project finish date, or violating a schedule constraint. It is calculated by using the critical path method technique and determining the difference between the early finish dates and late finish dates.
Answer options A, B, and C are incorrect. These are not valid answers for the question.

QUESTION 29
Sam is the project manager of the NQQ project. He and the project team have completed the stakeholder identification process for his project. What is the main output of the identify stakeholders process?
A. Communications management plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Requirements
D. Stakeholder management strategy
400-101 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to the PMBOK, the main output of the identify stakeholders process is the stakeholder register. The stakeholder register is a project management document that contains a list of the stakeholders associated with the project. It assesses how they are involved in the project and identifies what role they play in the organization. The information in this document can be very perceptive and is meant for limited exchange only. It also contains relevant information about the stakeholders, such as their requirements, expectations, and influence on the project. Answer option A is incorrect. The communications management plan is an output of communications planning. Answer option D is incorrect. The stakeholder management strategy is an output of stakeholder identification, but it is not the main output. Answer option C is incorrect. Requirements are not an output of the stakeholder identification process.

QUESTION 30
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Management has asked you not to communicate performance unless the CPI is less than 0.96 or the SPI dips below 0.98. What type of report would you create for management, if these instances develop in your project?
A. Cost variance report
B. Exceptions report
C. Performance management report
D. Schedule variance report

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The best answer is simply an exception report. An exception report refers and documents the major mistakes, mishaps, and goofs. In other words, it itemizes the important and critically significant piece of documentation that is vital to the proper and effective functioning of a project. It does not document what has gone right, but rather documents what has gone wrong. Answer option C is incorrect. A performance management report is not a valid project management report. Answer option A is incorrect. The question is asked about cost and schedule so this answer would not be appropriate for both the cost and the schedule. Answer option D is incorrect. The question is asked about cost and schedule so this answer would not be appropriate for both the cost and the schedule.

QUESTION 31
You are the project manager of the HQQ Project. Your project is running late by ten percent of where you should be at this time. Management is concerned. Considering that the project has a BAC of $567,899, you are thirty percent complete, and you have spent $179,450. What is this project’s to- complete performance index based on the current BAC?
A. 1.02
B. 0.010
C. 0.75
D. 0.95
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This project is not performing well on schedule, but moderately well on costs. The project’s TCPI based on the current BAC is 1.02. To-complete Performance Index (TCPI) is the measured projection of the anticipated performance required to achieve either the BAC or the EAC. TCPI indicates the future required cost efficiency needed to achieve a target EAC (Estimate At Complete).Once approved, the EAC supersedes the BAC as the cost performance goal. Any significant difference between TCPI and the CPI needed to meet the EAC should be accounted for by management in their forecast of the final cost. The formula for TCPI is as follows:
TCPI = {(BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC)}
Answer option D is incorrect. 0.95 is the project’s TCPI value based on the estimate at completion. Answer option C is incorrect. 0.75 is the project’s schedule performance index. Answer option B is incorrect. 0.010 is not a valid calculation.

QUESTION 32
Andy works as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. He is developing the schedule for the project. There are eight tools and techniques that a project manager can use to develop the project schedule. Which of the following is a tool and technique for the Schedule Development process?
A. Schedule compression
B. Reserve analysis
C. Variance analysis
D. Expert judgment
400-101 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Schedule compression is a tool used as part of the Schedule Development process. The tools and techniques for schedule development are as follows:
Schedule network analysis
Critical path method
Critical chain method
Resource leveling
What-if scenario analysis
Applying leads and lags
Schedule compression
Scheduling tool
Answer options D, B, and C are incorrect. These are not tools and techniques for schedule development.

QUESTION 33
You are the project manager for your organization. You have recorded the following duration estimates for an activity in your project: optimistic 20, most likely 45, pessimistic 90. What time will you record for this activity?
A. 48
B. 20o, 45m, 90p
C. 90
D. 45
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This is an example of a three-point estimate. A three-point estimate records the optimistic, most likely, and the pessimistic duration, and then records an average for the predicted duration Three-point estimate is a way to enhance the accuracy of activity duration estimates. This concept is originated with the Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT). PERT charts the following three estimates: Most likely (TM): The duration of activity based on realistic factors such as resources assigned, interruptions, etc. Optimistic (TO): The activity duration based on the best-case scenario Pessimistic (TP): The activity duration based on the worst-case scenario The expected (TE) activity duration is a weighted average of these three estimates:
TE = (TO + 4TM + TP) / 6 Duration estimates based on the above equations (sometimes simple average of the three estimates is also used) provide more accuracy. It can be calculated as follows:
TE = ( 20 + 45*4 + 90) / 6
= 290/6
=48
Answer options B, C, and D are incorrect. These are not the valid answers for this question.

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CCNA Cyber Ops, Cisco

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-255 Dumps Exam Q&As:

1.Where are the properties for the Event Server stored?
A.In the boot.ini file on the machine where the Event Server is running
B.In the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C.In the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) bootstrap file
D.In the Event Server service properties
210-255 exam Answer:B
2.Which three are benefits to the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)? (Choose three.)
A.Security
B.Administrative accessibility
C.Email notification
D.Reliability
Answer:A B D
3.Which web language was used to develop InfoView?
A.Perl
B.Java
C.PHP
D.C++
210-255 dumps Answer:B
4.How do you set-up a configuration template for a Web Intelligence Processing Server?
A.Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to the Server Template area and click on Add New Template.
B.Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to properties of the specific server and click on Add New Template.
C.Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to the Server Template area and click on Set Configuration Template.
D.Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to properties of the specific server and click on Set Configuration Template.
Answer:D
5.Which type of file does the replication process use to transfer content?
A.BIAR
B.REP
C.Binary
D.BOMain
210-255 pdf Answer:A
6.Which replication object would you schedule?
A.Replication Job
B.Replication List
C.Replication Connection
D.Replication Package
Answer:A
7.Which three application servers can you deploy Web Archive (WAR) files to using wdeploy? (Choose three.)
A.Oracle Containers for J2EE
B.SAP Netweaver

C.JRun
D.Sun Java Application Server
210-255 vce Answer:A B D
8.Which directory is the bootstrap file saved in by default on the Windows platform?
A.Web Services
B.Logging
C.FileStore
D.Win32_x86
Answer:D
9.Four users in the Human Resources department and six users in the Finance department need to edit existing Web Intelligence documents. How would you set-up a secure folder structure for the different departments so that each group of users can edit existing Web Intelligence documents?
A.Modify advanced rights on all groups.
B.Apply a predefined access level to all folders.
C.Create a custom access level and apply it to all folders.
D.Modify advanced rights on a top level folder.
210-255 exam Answer:C
10.What do you see when you view a Crystal Report instance that has both saved data and two successful instances?
A.The latest data from the database
B.The oldest data from the database
C.The oldest successful instance
D.The newest successful instance
Answer:D
11.A user belongs to both Group 1 and Group 2 and you want that user to see a specific folder. What folder security settings would you use to enable the user to view the folder?
A.Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2 and also not specified for the Everyone group
B.Set the view right to denied for Group 1 and granted for Group 2
C.Set the view right to not specified for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2
D.Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and denied for Group 2
E.Create a custom access level and grant for Group 1 and deny for Group 2
210-255 dumps Answer:A
12.What action would the Deployment Diagnostic Tool take when an InfoObject exists in the Central Management Server (CMS) system database, but the corresponding file cannot be found in the File Repository Server (FRS)?
A.Remove the InfoObject from the Central Management Server (CMS) system database, unless otherwise specified.
B.Create a blank report as a placeholder.
C.Notify the user to republish the object.
D.Reassign the InfoObject to a new file.
Answer:A
13.What is the difference between one-way replication and two-way replication?
A.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
  content only travels from Destination site to Origin site.
B.In one-way replication, content only travels from Destination site to Origin site. In two-way replication, content can travel from Origin site to Destination site, or from Destination site to Origin site.
C.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication, content also travels only from Origin site to Destination site but this operation can happen more than once.
D.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication, content also travels from Origin site to Destination site but this operation can happen more than once.
210-255 pdf Answer:D
14.Which statement is true of a single Replication Job?
A.Has two or more origin sites and no destination sites
B.Has only one origin site and only one destination site
C.Has one or more origin sites and only one destination site
D.Has one or more origin sites and possibly many destination sites
Answer:B
15.You are migrating content into a new system. Which task must you perform to maintain the system integrity (CUID)?
A.Define the LDAP configuration
B.List the groups to be migrated
C.Define custom security settings
D.List the active content folders
210-255 vce Answer:A
16.Which three parameters can you specify in the command line for wdeploy? (Choose three.)
A.Web Server Type
B.CMS Administrator Username
C.Deployment Parameters
D.Deployment Actions
Answer:A C D
17.In which two locations could you configure the port numbers for the local Central Management Server (CMS)? (Choose two.)
A.In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Startup tab for the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)
B.In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Configuration tab for the CMS
C.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Server settings for the CMS
D.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) settings
210-255 exam Answer:A C
18.Which servers should you examine if you are unable to schedule a Web Intelligence document? (Choose three.)
A.Web Intelligence Processing Server
B.Connection Server
C.Adaptive Job Server
D.Output File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer:A C D
19.How do you change the system database properties for the Central Management Server (CMS)?
A.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is
  pointing to the remote CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Configuration tab.
B.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is pointing to the local CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Startup tab.
C.Select the CMS in the Central Management Console (CMC), stop the service and go to the Configuration tab.
D.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA), which is pointing to the local CMS, stop the service and go to the Configuration tab.
210-255 dumps Answer:D
20.Where do you configure the Login action for Desktop Intelligence users in a 3-tier mode?
A.Under Settings in the Desktop Intelligence client
B.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence Cache Server
C.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Central Management Server (CMS)
D.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence application
Answer:C
21. As the Global Administrator of a CA Performance Management instance that hosts three tenants, you are only able to see two of the five available SNMP profiles. Why are you unable to view all five profiles?
A. Because in this instance,two profiles are associated with the tenant you are currently administering
B. Because Global Administrators typically need to refresh the screen before the full set of profiles appear
C. Because the Global Administrator must change an entry in the SNMP_549.xml file to see all SNMP profiles
D. Because the tenant administrators must change the permission of the SNMP profiles that they manage to enable the Global Administrator to see them
210-255 pdf Answer: A
22. If you register a Data Aggregator data source, a system group named Collections will appear in
CA Performance Center. Which feature characterizes collections?
A. They are always modifiable.
B. They are generally only used for report organization.
C. They are not tenant-specific but are always global in scope.
D. They are primarily used to control monitoring behavior using rules specified in monitoring
profiles.
Answer: A
23. When you create or edit a monitoring profile, you can use the Change Detection Rate option to set the frequency at which the Data Aggregator checks for changes. When you set the rate of detection, the Automatically Update Metric Families check box is selected by default. What happens if you clear this check box?
A. The Change Detection Rate field will no longer be editable.
B. The automatic updating of metric families will continue unless you also change settings for  specific metric families.
C. The Data Aggregator will continue to automatically monitor new components but will no longer retire old components.
D. The Events Display dashboard will need to be monitored and updates will need to be performed manually on the Polled Metric Families page.
210-255 vce Answer: D
24. How do you launch the New Vendor Certification wizard?
A. On the Inventory tab,right-click a device and click Import MIB.
B. In the Data Aggregator source,on the Vendor Certifications page,click New.
C. Use Web Services to import the vendor NIB and assign it to a particular metric family.
D. On the Vendor Certification dashboard,right-click an unassigned vendor certification and assign it to an unsupported device.
Answer: B
25. Which statement is FALSE?
A. The groups assigned to your user account determine the data you can view on dashboards.
B. A best practice is to create groups to meet strategicIT objectives rather than business objectives.
C. In the Groups tree,Service Provider Global Groups contain items not explicitly associated with a tenant IP domain.
D. Users can use the section of the Groups tree below their permission groups to change the data
context for summary or group dashboards.
210-255 exam Answer: B

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