Examprepwebinar - Leading source of IT Certification Exam Learning/Practice

How can I get latest questions of Cisco 400-251 exam? The CCIE Security Written Exam (v5.0) (400-251 CCIE Security) exam is a 120 minutes (90 – 110 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCIE Security certification. 100% pass guarantee Cisco 400-251 dumps CCIE Security exam test questions Youtube study guides online. “CCIE Security Written Exam (v5.0)” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 400-251 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 400-251 exam. Its design is closely linked to today’s rapidly changing IT market. Before the exam, you use pertinence Cisco certification 400-251 CCIE Security questions and answers pdf that we provide, and in a short time you’ll have a lot of harvest.Pass4itsure is the only website which is able to supply all your needed information about Cisco certification https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-251.html dumps exam.

[2018-2-NEWS Cisco 400-251 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWN3NKQ2VvYmxCMDg

[2018-2-NEWS Cisco 400-351 Dumps From Google Drive]:  https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWbVlmaEVvUmZqT2c

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-251 Dumps Exam (6-26)Q&As

QUESTION 6
Which two statements about the DES algorithm are true? (Choose two)
A. The DES algorithm is based on asymmetric cryptography.
B. The DES algorithm is a stream cipher.
C. The DES algorithm is based on symmetric cryptography.
D. The DES algorithm encrypts a block of 128 bits.
E. The DES algorithm uses a 56-bit key.
400-251 exam Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7
Which of these is a core function of the risk assessment process? (Choose one.)
A. performing regular network upgrades
B. performing network optimization
C. performing network posture validation
D. establishing network baselines
E. prioritizing network roll-outs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What is the name of the unique tool/feature in cisco security manager that is used to merge an access list based on the source/destination IP address service or combination of these to provide a manageable view of access policies?
A. merge rule tool
B. policy simplification tool
C. rule grouping tool
D. object group tool
E. combine rule tool
400-251 dumps Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about the ISO are true? (Choose two)
A. The ISO is a government-based organization.
B. The ISO has three membership categories: member, correspondent, and subscribers.
C. Only member bodies have voting rights.
D. Correspondent bodies are small countries with their own standards organization.
E. Subscriber members are individual organizations.
Correct Answer: BC

Question: 10
You want department administrators to perform some basic administrative tasks that require them to be able to access the Central Management Console (CMC). How will you give the department administrators the right to be able to grant access to the CMC to other administrators in their own departments?
A. In the Organize Objects area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to “Edit this object”.
B. In the Manage BusinessObjects Applications area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to “Full control”.
C. In the Manage Settings area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to “Modify the rights users have to this object”.
D. In the Manage BusinessObjects Applications area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to “Modify the rights users have to this object”.
400-251 pdf Answer: D

Question: 11
A user who has always scheduled objects for the Marketing department is leaving your company. Which method should you use in the Central Management Console (CMC) to ensure that all recurring instances owned by this user remain in effect but become owned by the Administrator?
A. Disable the departing user then click on the Transfer recurring instances to button and select the Administrator. Click OK.
B. Delete the departing user; all recurring instances automatically transfer to the Administrator.
C. Open each recurring instance on the object’s History tab then click on Schedule for and select Administrator. Ensure that the instance will use the same recurrence pattern and parameter values. Delete the departing user when all instances have been duplicated.
D. Download details of all the instances then log on to the CMC as Administrator and schedule them using the same recurrence patterns and parameter values. Delete the departing user when all instances have been duplicated.
Answer: B

Question: 12
Which statement describes the role of BusinessObjects Enterprise within the Business Objects Business Intelligence (BI) suite of products?
A. Allows you to analyze and interact with data from both relational and OLAP data sources.
B. Provides you with an open, scalable platform that supports all of your BI tools and applications.
C. Provides you with a process for accessing data, formatting it and delivering it as information to various users.
D. Allows you to integrate, transform and deliver enterprise data from any source.
400-251 vce Answer: B

Question: 13
Select two true statements from below. (Choose two.)
A. You cannot copy Calendar objects in CMC > Calendars area of administration.
B. You can create your own Calendars in BusinessObjects Enterprise; you have to use the pre build business calendars only.
C. You can schedule Web Intelligence documents based on an existing calendar.
D. Calendars can be created in InfoView.
Answer: B, C

Question: 14
What steps should you follow to make Report A run automatically every day upon the successful completion of Report B?
A. Working in InfoView, create a new schedule-based event. Schedule Report B to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to trigger on completion window. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to wait for window.
B. Working in the Central Management Console, create a new schedule-based event. Schedule Report B to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to trigger on completion window. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new schedule based event to the Events to wait for window.
C. Working in the Central Management Console, create a new custom event. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new custom event to the Events to wait for window. After Report B runs successfully, trigger the custom event in the Central Management Console.
D. Working in InfoView, create a new custom event. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new custom event to the Events to wait for window. After Report B runs successfully, trigger the custom event in the Central Management Console.
400-251 exam Answer: B

Question: 15
The InfoView is mostly used for which of the following tasks:
A. Mostly for administering content
B. Exclusively for viewing reports
C. Viewing information about reports (Encyclopedia and Discussions)
D. Accessing information and some limited content administration
Answer: D

Question: 16
Once you grant the right to an application value (e.g. Print Documents set to Grant) to a user/group on a specific application (e.g. Desktop Intelligence), you will still be able to grant that right (e.g. print) to one Desktop Intelligence document but not the other Desktop Intelligence document.
A. True
B. False
400-251 dumps Answer: B

Question: 17
Your user groups have different functional needs and your managers would rather employ a more complicated user group structure than create additional folder levels. What approach should you use to create a content plan that combines logical report organization and functional user access levels?
A. Use the logical-functional group method.
B. Grant each user advanced rights to each object.
C. Use the functional-folder method.
D. Create a logical content plan.
Answer: A

Question: 18
Which two statements are true when you make changes to the report properties of a published Crystal Report object using the Central Management Console (CMC)? (Choose two.)
A. The report file stored in the Input File Report Server (FRS) is modified.
B. The report file stored in the Input File Report Server (FRS) is not modified.
C. The changes are written to the Central Management Server (CMS) system database.
D. The changes are not written to the Central Management Server (CMS) system database.
400-251 pdf Answer: B, C

Question: 19
How do you disable anonymous access in BusinessObjects Enterprise?
A. Within InfoView uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
B. Within Central Management Console (CMC) disable Guest account.
C. Within Central Configuration Manager (CCM) uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
D. Within Central Management Console (CMC) uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
Answer: B

Question: 20
Assume you are using InfoView and need to locate a specific Web Intelligence report, but you cannot remember its name. There are 15 Web Intelligence reports in the system and you have access to all root-level folders. What would be the best way to locate the report?
A. Browse the folders and categories
B. Filter
C. Report off the CMS database
D. Use the Advanced feature of the Search function
400-251 vce Answer: D

Question: 21
A Web Intelligence document is a report object that is created from a universe data source over the web through the InfoView interface. A Web Intelligence document can be published to the BusinessObjects Enterprise environment in one or more ways. Select the best answer from the list below.
A. Web Intelligence documents can be published by using Save As in InfoView through the Organize Objects or Folders areas of the Central Management Console or by using the BusinessObjects Publishing Wizard.
B. Web Intelligence documents can be published only by using Save As in InfoView because they only exist inside the BusinessObjects Enterprise environment.
C. Web Intelligence documents can be published by using Save As in InfoView or through the Organize Objects or Folders areas of the Central Management Console.
Answer: B

Question: 22
Which three authentication systems does the BusinessObjects Enterprise support with Single Sign-On (SSO) feature? (Choose three.)
A. Windows NT
B. Windows NT with SiteMinder
C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) with SiteMinder
D. Windows Active Directory (AD)
400-251 exam Answer: A, C, D

Question: 23
Which three benefits can users realize from a well-designed content and system management plan? (Choose three.)
A. User license counts are never exceeded.
B. Only required information appears in report objects.
C. Locating reports and other objects is simple.
D. Information is current.
Answer: B, C, D

Question: 24
Which three problems can users encounter as a result of a poorly-designed content and system management plan? (Choose three.)
A. Required information is not visible in report objects.
B. Named user license counts are exceeded.
C. Information is not current.
D. Reports and other objects take too long to locate.
400-251 dumps Answer: A, C, D

Question: 25
What are two of the major steps that you must perform when creating a logical content plan for your BusinessObjects Enterprise implementation? (Choose two.)
A. Create BusinessObjects Enterprise server groups based on geographical considerations.
B. Specify group access levels for folders and objects.
C. Organize users into functional groups.
D. Create profiles for encyclopedia distribution.
Answer: B, C

Question: 26
When you move a folder, the objects within are also moved. What happens to the folder’s object rights?
A. The folder rights are set to the default View for Everyone.
B. The folder rights are set to the default Full Control for the Administrators group.
C. The folder retains the object rights of the original.
D. The folder inherits the object rights set on the new parent folder.
400-251 pdf Answer: C

See What Our Customers Are Saying:

We at Pass4itsure are committed to our customer’s success. There are 50,000+ customers who used this preparation material for the preparation of various certification exams and this number of customers is enough for new candidates to trust in these products.Our Cisco 400-251 dumps are created with utmost care and professionalism. We utilize the experience and knowledge of a team of industry professionals from leading organizations all over the world.

Pass4itsure is a website which can help you quickly pass the Cisco certification 400-251 dumps exam. Pass4itsure Cisco certification 400-251 CCIE Security questions and answers pdf is designed and ready by Pass4itsure IT experts. “CCIE Security Written Exam (v5.0)”, also known as 400-251 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 400-251 dumps exam questions answers are updated (520 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 400-251 dumps is CCIE Security. Pass4itsure Cisco certification https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-251.html dumps CCIE Security questions and answers pdf help you take advantage of the continuous development of technology to improve the ability to solve problems, and improve your job satisfaction.

Read More Youtube: https://youtu.be/YbeaZVr6TIo

Compared with other brands, Pass4itsure has up to dated exam information, affordable price, instant exam PDF files downloaded, error correction, unlimited install,etc. Such as Pass4itsure Cisco 400-251 Dumps Exam Test Questions, Sale Latest Cisco 400-251 Dumps Study Guides Is What You Need To Take, We Help You Pass CCIE Security Written Exam (v5.0).  Simple and Easy! To take advantage of the guarantee, simply contact Customer Support, requesting the exam you would like to claim. Pass4itsure guarantee insures your success otherwise get your MONEYBACK!

What should I practice to have a good preparation in Cisco 400-101 dumps exam? The CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam (400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching) exam is a 120 Minutes (90 – 110 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with CCIE Routing and Switching certification. Most popular Cisco 400-101 dumps CCIE Routing and Switching exam demo Youtube try with low price. “CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 400-101 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 400-101 exam. Interactive practice test that can be downloaded and installed on any Windows Operating System. Interactive practice test operates as a realistic simulation of the real Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert Routing and Switching https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-101.html dumps certification exam.

[2018-1-NEWS Cisco 400-101 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWczJDVzl1SUJLWms

[2018-1-NEWS Cisco 400-151 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWbTFibUcwbXBkZms

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-101 Dumps Exam (20-33)Q&As:
Question No : 20 – (Topic 1) Which circumstance can cause packet loss due to a microburst?
A. slow convergence
B. a blocked spanning-tree port
C. process switching
D. insufficient buffers
400-101 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the network. Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shown as accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative of receive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to data bursts coming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds).

Question No : 21 – (Topic 1)
Which three features require Cisco Express Forwarding? (Choose three.)
A. NBAR
B. AutoQoS
C. fragmentation
D. MPLS
E. UplinkFast
F. BackboneFast
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QoS Features That Require CEF
These class-based QoS features are supported only on routers that run CEF.
•Network Based Application Recognition (NBAR) provides intelligent network classification. For more information, refer to Network Based Application Recognition.
• The AutoQoS -VoIP feature simplifies and speeds up the implementation and provisioning of QoS for VoIP traffic. This feature is enabled with the help of the auto qos voip command. CEF must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC before the auto qos command can be used. For more information about this feature and its prerequisites, refer to AutoQoS – VoIP.
Why Is CEF Needed in MPLS Networks?
Concerning MPLS, CEF is special for a certain reason; otherwise, this book would not explicitly cover it. Labeled packets that enter the router are switched according to the label forwarding information base (LFIB) on the router. IP packets that enter the router are switched according to the CEF table on the router. Regardless of whether the packet is switched according to the LFIB or the CEF table, the outgoing packet can be a labeled packet or an IP packet
Question No : 22 – (Topic 1) Which option is the most effective action to avoid packet loss due to microbursts?
A. Implement larger buffers.
B. Install a faster CPU.
C. Install a faster network interface.
D. Configure a larger tx-ring size.
400-101 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
You can’t avoid or prevent them as such without modifying the sending host’s application/network stack so it smoothes out the bursts. However, you can manage microbursts by tuning the size of receive buffers / rings to absorb occasional microbursts.
Question No : 23 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about the debug behavior of the device is true?
A. The device debugs all IP events for 172.16.129.4.
B. The device sends all debugging information for 172.16.129.4.
C. The device sends only NTP debugging information to 172.16.129.4.
D. The device sends debugging information every five seconds.
Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the effect of this configuration is true ?
A. The 192.168.2.1/24 network is summarized and advertised as 192.168.2.0/24
B. The 192.168.2.1/32 network appears in the route table on R1 ,but it is missing from its OSPF database.
C. The 192.168.2.1/32 network is missing from the OSPF database and the route table on R1.
D. The 192.168.2.1/32 network appears in the Rl OSPF database , but it is missing from its route table.
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.

What is wrong with the configuration of this tunnel interface ?
A. ISATAP tunnels cannot use the EUI-64 address format.
B. The tunnel source of an ISATAP tunnel must always point to a loopback interface.
C. Router advertisements are disabled on this tunnel interface.
D. No tunnel destination has been specified.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 26
Which two statements about IGMP filtering are true?
A. It eliminates the need for a multicast RP.
B. It can be implemented on Layer-3 routed ports using the ipigmp access-list command.
C. It allows Anycast RP to operate within a single AS.
D. It supports IGMPv3 traffic only
E. It can be implemented on Layer-2 switchports using IGMP profiles.
400-101 vce Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
What are two ways DHCPv6 guard can mitigate man-in-the-middle attacks?
A. An interface in the server device role can use ACLs to filter authorized servers.
B. An interface in the server device role can drop all DHCPv6 server messages.
C. An interface in the client device role can use ACLs to filter authorized servers.
D. An interface in the server device role can use prefix-lists to filter authorized DCHP reply messages.
E. An interface in the client device role blocks all DCHPv6 server messages by default.
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 28
You are the project manager of the BHG Project. You are creating a network diagram as shown in the figure:
Mary, a project team member, reports that an identified risk is likely to happen in the project that will affect the completion date of Activity D . She reports that the risk event will likely cause the duration of the activity to increase by six days. If this happens what is the earliest the project can complete?
A. 32 days
B. 29 days
C. 27 days
D. 26 days
400-101 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If Activity D increases by six days, the duration of the project will not change. There is 11 days of float available for Activity D so it may delay by six days without affecting the project end date. What is float? Float or total float (TF) is the total amount of time that a schedule activity may be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project finish date, or violating a schedule constraint. It is calculated by using the critical path method technique and determining the difference between the early finish dates and late finish dates.
Answer options A, B, and C are incorrect. These are not valid answers for the question.

QUESTION 29
Sam is the project manager of the NQQ project. He and the project team have completed the stakeholder identification process for his project. What is the main output of the identify stakeholders process?
A. Communications management plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Requirements
D. Stakeholder management strategy
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to the PMBOK, the main output of the identify stakeholders process is the stakeholder register. The stakeholder register is a project management document that contains a list of the stakeholders associated with the project. It assesses how they are involved in the project and identifies what role they play in the organization. The information in this document can be very perceptive and is meant for limited exchange only. It also contains relevant information about the stakeholders, such as their requirements, expectations, and influence on the project. Answer option A is incorrect. The communications management plan is an output of communications planning. Answer option D is incorrect. The stakeholder management strategy is an output of stakeholder identification, but it is not the main output. Answer option C is incorrect. Requirements are not an output of the stakeholder identification process.

QUESTION 30
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Management has asked you not to communicate performance unless the CPI is less than 0.96 or the SPI dips below 0.98. What type of report would you create for management, if these instances develop in your project?
A. Cost variance report
B. Exceptions report
C. Performance management report
D. Schedule variance report
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The best answer is simply an exception report. An exception report refers and documents the major mistakes, mishaps, and goofs. In other words, it itemizes the important and critically significant piece of documentation that is vital to the proper and effective functioning of a project. It does not document what has gone right, but rather documents what has gone wrong. Answer option C is incorrect. A performance management report is not a valid project management report. Answer option A is incorrect. The question is asked about cost and schedule so this answer would not be appropriate for both the cost and the schedule. Answer option D is incorrect. The question is asked about cost and schedule so this answer would not be appropriate for both the cost and the schedule.

QUESTION 31
You are the project manager of the HQQ Project. Your project is running late by ten percent of where you should be at this time. Management is concerned. Considering that the project has a BAC of $567,899, you are thirty percent complete, and you have spent $179,450. What is this project’s to- complete performance index based on the current BAC?
A. 1.02
B. 0.010
C. 0.75
D. 0.95
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This project is not performing well on schedule, but moderately well on costs. The project’s TCPI based on the current BAC is 1.02. To-complete Performance Index (TCPI) is the measured projection of the anticipated performance required to achieve either the BAC or the EAC. TCPI indicates the future required cost efficiency needed to achieve a target EAC (Estimate At Complete).Once approved, the EAC supersedes the BAC as the cost performance goal. Any significant difference between TCPI and the CPI needed to meet the EAC should be accounted for by management in their forecast of the final cost. The formula for TCPI is as follows:
TCPI = {(BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC)}
Answer option D is incorrect. 0.95 is the project’s TCPI value based on the estimate at completion. Answer option C is incorrect. 0.75 is the project’s schedule performance index. Answer option B is incorrect. 0.010 is not a valid calculation.

QUESTION 32
Andy works as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. He is developing the schedule for the project. There are eight tools and techniques that a project manager can use to develop the project schedule. Which of the following is a tool and technique for the Schedule Development process?
A. Schedule compression
B. Reserve analysis
C. Variance analysis
D. Expert judgment
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Schedule compression is a tool used as part of the Schedule Development process. The tools and techniques for schedule development are as follows:
Schedule network analysis
Critical path method
Critical chain method
Resource leveling
What-if scenario analysis
Applying leads and lags
Schedule compression
Scheduling tool
Answer options D, B, and C are incorrect. These are not tools and techniques for schedule development.

QUESTION 33
You are the project manager for your organization. You have recorded the following duration estimates for an activity in your project: optimistic 20, most likely 45, pessimistic 90. What time will you record for this activity?
A. 48
B. 20o, 45m, 90p
C. 90
D. 45
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This is an example of a three-point estimate. A three-point estimate records the optimistic, most likely, and the pessimistic duration, and then records an average for the predicted duration Three-point estimate is a way to enhance the accuracy of activity duration estimates. This concept is originated with the Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT). PERT charts the following three estimates: Most likely (TM): The duration of activity based on realistic factors such as resources assigned, interruptions, etc. Optimistic (TO): The activity duration based on the best-case scenario Pessimistic (TP): The activity duration based on the worst-case scenario The expected (TE) activity duration is a weighted average of these three estimates:
TE = (TO + 4TM + TP) / 6 Duration estimates based on the above equations (sometimes simple average of the three estimates is also used) provide more accuracy. It can be calculated as follows:
TE = ( 20 + 45*4 + 90) / 6
= 290/6
=48
Answer options B, C, and D are incorrect. These are not the valid answers for this question.

Pass4itsure allows the candidate to determine their strength and area of 400-101 dumps practice. “CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam”, also known as 400-101 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 400-101 dumps exam questions answers are updated (399 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 400-101 dumps is CCIE Routing and Switching. One time purchase you can get the 400-101 practice tests and PDF. Pass4itsure provides a totally secure platform for Cisco 400-101 exam. With the help of the practice test software, the candidate can check their https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-101.html dumps exam preparation progress and can improve their Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert Routing and Switching Certification Exam.

Read More Youtube: https://youtu.be/PyNCK41BG10