Microsoft, Microsoft Dynamics 365

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft MB2-717 Dumps Exam (1-15)Q&As
QUESTION 1
An organization uses Microsoft Dynamics 365 to track Opportunities and Competitors. They want to make sure that a competitor is always tracked when it is mentioned in an email from a potential customer regarding an opportunity-How can this be
achieved using the fewest steps?
A. Instruct users to always manually associate the competitor when the Competitor Mentioned card is shown by the Relationship Assistant.
B. Configure the Relationship Assistant, and check the Card Option for the Competitor Mentioned card to perform the associated action automatically instead of displaying the card.
C. In the configuration for Auto Capture, enable the option to track competitors automatically when mentioned in emails regarding an opportunity.
D. Create a workflow to scan emails for competitor names, and associate the mentioned competitor to the opportunity.
MB2-717 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You are using Opportunities and Quotes to manage your sales process in Microsoft Dynamics 365. A customer requests quotes tor the same set of products, but from two different price lists for comparison. What should you do in order to respond to this customer’s request?
A. Create two Opportunities with different price lists. Then create one Quote from each of the Opportunities.
B. Create one Opportunity with one Quote. Then, have the customer review the quote Before creating another.
C. Create one Opportunity with one Quote. Then, revise the Quote and add the other price list to the Quote
D. Create two Quotes from the same Opportunity. Then, switch the price list on one of the Quotes.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You are working with a company to implement Microsoft Dynamics 365 for their sales division. The sales manager wants all sales people to have the ability to be alerted when a recipient opens an email that was sent to them. Which component of Microsoft Dynamics 365 should you use to manage this ability?
A. Email Engagement
B. Auto Capture
C. Relationship Assistant
D. Folder Level Tracking
MB2-717 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are a sales professional for a medium-sized firm. You are entering information into Microsoft Dynamics you organized at a trade show. What type of record should you create for each card?
A. Prospect
B. Lead
C. Account
D. Opportunity
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You are working with the default Opportunity form In Microsoft Dynamics 365. Your sales manager has asked all sales staff to maintain best practices when managing sales and to enter as much information as possible. You need to be able to add additional records and activities to the Opportunity without leaving the form. What are two types of records you can add from within the Opportunity form? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Invoices
B. Credit Notes / Adjustment Notes
C. Stakeholders
D. Products
MB2-717 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
You are The technical support specialist for a company that utilizes Microsoft Dynamics 365. A new user calls the help desk complaining that every time they try to create a record, they are being denied the ability to The user states that some type of error is displayed as well. What would cause this error?
A. The user cannot create records using the Outlook client
B. The user failed to populate at (east one required field.
C. The user is using Dynamics 365 Business Edition father than Enterprise Edition.
D. The user cannot input more than 250 characters into a single line of text field.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You are a new sales executive for a company that utilizes Microsoft Dynamics 365. You have begun tracking your activities in Microsoft Dynamics 365. You have completed the activities for one of your customers. How will the activity state of the designated tasks be modified to reflect the fulfillment of these
A. You must manually change the activity state to Canceled.
B. The activity state will update automatically when the associated opportunity is won.
C. The activity state will update automatically when the associated sale order is complete.
D. You must manually change the activity state to Completed.
MB2-717 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You are a sales support specialist for a company that utilizes Microsoft Dynamics 365. You are going through the many records of their current database and inputting this data into Microsoft Dynamics 365. Which instance below would be created as an Opportunity record in Microsoft Dynamics 365?
A. a person who calls into the company after receiving a mass mailing advertisement from your company
B. a person who has prequalified for a mortgage and wants to utilize a real estate agent to look at property
C. a person who signs a contract to purchase three cases of your product on a quarterly basis for 2 years r
D. a list of people supplied by a marketing research firm that matches your target market
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You are using Microsoft Dynamics 365 for sales. Your marketing department has given you a number of illustrated documents that explain how your product is superior to various competitors. You have been tasked with adding this material to Dynamics 365 so the salespeople can use and email the material to their prospects, all from within Dynamics 365. How should you complete this task?
A. Add the documents to SharePoint and set up the SharePoint integration with Dynamics 365.
B. Add the documents as sales literature, and associate them with the right competitors.
C. Add the documents as Email Templates associated with the opportunity entity.
D. Add the documents as attachments in the notes section for each competitor.
MB2-717 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You are a technical support specialist for your company. The Company’s sales staff are issued a company laptop to use when interfacing with Microsoft Dynamics 365. They need to integrate their smart phones with Microsoft Dynamics 365 as well. Many of their phones, however, do not have a supported web browser. What should you suggest to meet this sales staffs need?
A. Advise them to run the Microsoft Dynamics 365 web app on their phones.
B. Advise them to use the web client to access Microsoft Dynamics 365 from their phones.
C. Advise them to download the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App from the Office 365 Admin portal.
D. Advise them to download the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App from their phone’s store.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You are working for a company that is in the process of trying to secure a large contract As you work with this sales opportunity, you need to manage all the various people involved in the sale, both from the customer and external stakeholder point of view. You need visibility on the Opportunity record to do this. Which type of functionality can you use in Microsoft Dynamics 365 to facilitate visibility of those involved?
A. Stakeholders
B. Business Process Flows
C. Contact Preferences
D. Chats
MB2-717 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You are a project manager in charge of implementing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for a sales organization. You are creating a product catalog. You have created a number of products, yet sales people are complaining that they cannot add these products to any invoices. What must be done so that the sales people can add these products to their invoices?
A. The products must first be added to an opportunity.
B. The products must first be activated.
C. The products must be placed into draft status.
D. The products must first be included in a quote.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
An opportunity to partner with one of your competitors on a large project has come up, but you are unable to select the competitor as a customer on the opportunity. Which two record types can you assign to the competitor to enable you to se4ect them as a customer? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Lead
B. Contact
C. Account
D. Prospect
MB2-717 pdf Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
You notice that all of your current customers are stored m Microsoft Dynamics 365 as Account records. You need to create records for other organizations you work with to support your customers. These organizations represent vendors, partners, and distributors. What record type should you use for these organizations?
A. Account
B. Prospect
C. Organization
D. Company
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You are a sales manager who has a large sates team. You want to track when you lose sales to your competitors. Which activity allows you to track your competitors in relationship to a lost opportunity?
A. Resolution activities
B. Phone activities
C. Task activities
D. Email activities
MB2-717 vce Correct Answer: B

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-060 Dumps Exam (28-52)Q&As

QUESTION 28
Which two explanations of DTMF dialing are true? (Choose two.)
A. DTMF dialing consists of simultaneous voice-band tones generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
B. The use of DTMF enables support for advanced telephony services.
C. DTMF dialing uses INVITE messages to signal when the first digit is pressed in a new call.
D. DTMF dialing consists of a simultaneous digital-band pulse generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
210-060 exam Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
A Cisco administrator is asked to set up two new end users in Cisco Unified Communication Manager. Which two fields are required? (Choose two.)
A. First Name
B. User ID
C. PIN
D. Telephone Number
E. Password
F. Last Name
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 30
A user reports that during calls they hear excessive hissing when neither party is talking.
Which option is one cause of this noise?
A. QoS
B. LoPS
C. VAD
D. EPL
E. SRST
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 31
A voice admin is trying to help a user to remotely change the call forward busy settings for a directory number. Which option shows how to make this change remotely?
A. Log in to https:///ucmuser > general settings.
B. Log in to https:///ucmuser > phone > phone settings.
C. Log in to https:///ucmuser > phone > call forwarding > advanced calling rules.
D. Log in to https:///ucmuser > voicemail.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 32
A Cisco IP phone is connected to a Cisco switch and is trying to obtain its network configuration. What is the first protocol that is used?
A. RTP
B. DHCP
C. CDP
D. SIP
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 33
Which component allows Cisco Jabber to communicate with clients who are outside the corporate network?
A. Cisco Extension Mobility
B. Cisco TMS
C. Cisco Mobility Remote Destination
D. Cisco Unified RTMT
E. Cisco Mobile and Remote Access
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 34
Several users in the same Call Manager group reported that they receive a fast busy tone when they go off hook. They reported that the issue went away after a few minutes. Where should the voice systems administrator begin troubleshooting?
A. SIP gateway
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber
C. network cable
D. 7945 IP phone
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 35
A network administrator wants a new employee to download the RTMT tool. Which menu option supports this function?
A. Bulk Administration > Job Scheduler > Plugins
B. Application > Plugins
C. Call routing > Plugins
D. Server > Region > Plugins
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
An administrator must keep CDR data for a longer period of time and wants to modify the configured value of the CDR/CMR Files Presentation Duration Days). Which menu options does the engineer navigate?
A. Unified CM Administration > System > Enterprise Parameters
B. Unified Serviceability > Tools > Serviceability Reports Archive
C. Unified CM Administration > Call Routing > Route Plan Report
D. Unified Serviceability > Tools > CDR Management
210-060 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 37
What is the maximum amount of packet loss an engineer should allow for voice traffic on an IP network?
A. 5 percent
B. 2 percent
C. 3 percent
D. 1 percent
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 38
A user presses the envelope button on a 7945 IP phone, but it only launches audio voicemail. Where should the voice systems administrator troubleshoot?
A. Visual voicemail IP phone service in Cisco Unity Connection
B. Visual voicemail IP phone service in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. SIP trunk between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Unity Connection
D. IP phone network connectivity
210-060 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 39
A manager is generating bill reports for a particular user. Which navigation sequence must be used for this task?
A. Bills > Department
B. User Reports > Bills > Department
C. Bill > Individual
D. User Reports > Bills > Individual
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
Which address is required to create a video endpoint in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. MAC
B. IP
C. E.164
D. SIP URI
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 41
A voicemail user reports that he cannot access Cisco Unity Connection from the IP phone message button. Which option must you perform to resolve the problem?
A. In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, navigate to Advanced Features > Voicemail to confirm that the user has the correct voicemail profile
B. In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, navigate to Device > Phone to confirm that the device has the correct voicemail profile
C. In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, navigate to Device > Phone to confirm that the directory number has the correct voicemail profile
D. In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, navigate to User Management > End User to confirm that the user has the correct voicemail profile
E. In Cisco Unity Connection, navigate to Users > Users to confirm that the user web password is correct.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 42
Which two user attributes must be defined in Cisco Unity Connection before the users can be added? (Choose two.)
A. display name
B. alias
C. time zone
D. class of service
E. dial plan
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43
Users are complaining about dropped calls, so a network engineer needs to troubleshoot Cisco Unified Communications Manager to view concurrent calls and dropped calls. Where does the engineer generate such reports?
A. Cisco Unified Serviceability
B. Cisco Unified OS Administration
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration
D. Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 44
An engineer must ensure that user data is maintained in lightweight directory access protocol and copied to Cisco Unity Connection, but Cisco Unity Connection-specific data is locally maintained in the Cisco Unity Connection database.
Which user creation option accomplishes this task?
A. bulk administration
B. import from CUCM via AXL
C. import from LDAP
D. manual creation
210-060 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 45
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
210-060 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 46
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
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210-060 exam Correct Answer:
210-060 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 47
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
210-060 dumps

QUESTION 48
DRAG DROP
Drag from the left to correct steps.
Select and Place:
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210-060 dumps Correct Answer:
210-060 dumps

QUESTION 49
An IP phone that is using PoE shows andquot;unknownandquot; in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What should the engineer do to restore the phone to service?
A. restart the phone from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. reset the phone from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. enter **# locally on the IP phone
D. check the network cable and switch port
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 50
Which menu option should be selected to add a desk phone as an endpoint in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Application
B. Device
C. System
D. User management
E. Media devices
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 51
Which component is needed to facilitate the connection between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco Unified Presence Server?
A. SIP trunk
B. H.323 gateway
C. Gatekeeper
D. MGCP gateway
E. Cisco Unified Border Element
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 52
An engineer is configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager disaster recovery system. Which three statements about the disaster recovery system are true? (Choose three.)
A. It requires the use of schedules for backups.
B. Backup files are encrypted using the cluster security password.
C. If the backup device is listed in a backup schedule, it cannot be manually deleted.
D. If the backup does not complete within 40 hours, the backup times out.
E. Archiving backups to tape drives is supported.
F. SSL is used between the master and local agents.
210-060 vce Correct Answer: BCF

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QUESTION 1
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application to be used on the Internet. The environment does not use Active Directory. Users must be able to log on to the application to maintain their personal preferences. You need to use the least amount of development effort to enable users to log on. What should you do?
A. Enable Digest authentication.
B. Enable Windows authentication.
C. Enable Forms authentication.
D. Generate server SSL certificates and install them in IIS.
70-486 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Many Web applications require a way to restrict access to some resources (such as specific pages) so that those resources are accessible only to authenticated users. The default Web application project template for ASP.NET MVC provides a controller, data models, and views that you can use to add ASP.NET forms authentication to your application. The built-in functionality lets users register, log on and off, and change their password. For many applications, this functionality provides a sufficient level of user authentication.
Incorrect:
Not B: Windows authentication would require an Active Directory. Windows authentication method works only if the following two conditions exist:
/ You set up your network to use the Kerberos authentication protocol that requires Active Directory.
/ You set up the computers and accounts on your network as trusted for delegation.
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff398049(VS.98).aspx

QUESTION 2
You are designing an enterprise-level Windows Communication Foundation (WCF) application. User accounts will migrate from the existing system. The new system must be able to scale to accommodate the increasing load.
The new servers are experiencing significant stress under load of large-scale role changes. You need to ensure that the application can handle the stress. Which authorizations should you redesign? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Role-based approach
B. Identity-based approach
C. Resource-based trusted subsystem model
D. Resource-based impersonation/delegation model
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

QUESTION 3
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that will run in a shared environment.
The application requests the user’s password, and then uses the password to sign data.
You need to minimize the potential for the password to be discovered by other processes that run in the shared environment. What should you do?
A. Add the SecuritySafeCriticalAttribute attribute to the methods which process the password.
B. Store the password in a SecureString instance.
C. Encrypt the password on the web page, and decrypt the password in the MVC application.
D. Run the code that processes the password in its own AppDomain.
70-486 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Application domains provide a unit of isolation for the common language runtime. They are created and run inside a process. Application domains are usually created by a runtime host, which is an application responsible for loading the
runtime into a process and executing user code within an application domain. The runtime host creates a process and a default application domain, and runs managed code inside it. Runtime hosts include ASP.NET, Microsoft Internet
Explorer, and the Windows shell. For most applications, you do not need to create your own application domain; the runtime host creates any necessary application domains for you. However, you can create and configure additional
application domains if your application needs to isolate code or to use and unload DLLs.

QUESTION 4
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that uses forms authentication. The user database contains a user named LibraryAdmin. You have the following requirements:
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You need to implement the controller to meet the requirements.
Which code segment should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. Devices that use many different browsers will use the application.
You have the following requirements:
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You need to configure the application. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use JavaScript to evaluate the window.innerWidth and window.innerHeigh properties.
B. Set the value of the width property for the viewport meta tag to device-width.
C. Use CSS to target the HTML element on each page. Set the values of the width and height properties to 100%.
D. Use CSS media queries to target screen size, device orientation, and other browser capabilities.
70-486 pdf Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: If you want the viewport width to match the device’s physical pixels, you can specify the following:
For this to work correctly, you must not explicitly force elements to exceed that width (e.g., using a width attribute or CSS property), otherwise the browser will be forced to use a larger viewport regardless. D: Media queries in CSS3 extend the CSS2 media types idea: Instead of looking for a type of device, they look at the capability of the device. Media queries can be used to check many things, such as: width and height of the viewport width and height of the device orientation (is the tablet/phone in landscape or portrait mode?) resolution Using media queries are a popular technique for delivering a tailored style sheet to tablets, iPhone, and Androids.

QUESTION 6
You are developing an ASP.NET application that allows users to download Microsoft Azure log files. You need to improve the performance of the application. What should you do?
A. Minify the content files.
B. Enable compression in IIS.
C. Bundle the content files into a single .tar file.
D. Host the image, JavaScript, and CSS files on a different server.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Bundling is a new feature in ASP.NET 4.5 that makes it easy to combine or bundle multiple files into a single file. You can create CSS, JavaScript and other bundles. Fewer files means fewer HTTP requests and that can improve first page
load performance.

QUESTION 7
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that enables you to edit and save a contact.
The application must not save on an HTTP GET request.
You need to implement the controller.
Which two possible code segments should you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
70-486 dumps
70-486 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-486 pdf Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: We retrieve the GET and POST methods through
this.HttpContext.Request.RequestType.
B: This is the default MVC implementation of having separate methods for GET and POST via function overloading.
Incorrect:
Not D: We retrieve the GET and POST methods through this.HttpContext.Request.RequestType, not through this.HttpContext.Request[“ActionName”].

QUESTION 8
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that enables you to edit and save a student object.
The application must not retrieve student objects on an HTTP POST request.
You need to implement the controller. Which code segment should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
70-486 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:

QUESTION 9
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that enables you to edit and save a student object.
The application must not retrieve student objects on an HTTP POST request.
You need to implement the controller.
Which code segment should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
70-486 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-486 vce Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:

QUESTION 10
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that delivers real-time game results to sports fans. The application includes the following code. Line numbers are included for reference only.
70-486 dumps
The source data for the game results is updated every 30 seconds. Testers report the following issues with the application:
70-486 dumps
You need to correct the performance issues. Which two changes should you make to the code? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Replace the code at line 07 with the following code segment:[OutputCache(Duration =30, VaryByParam = “none”, Location = OutputCacheLocation.Client, NoStore = true)]
B. Replace the code at line 12 with the following code segment:[OutputCache(Duration = 30, VaryByParam = “none”, Location = OutputCacheLocation.Server, NoStore = true)]
C. Replace the code at line 07 with the following code segment:[OutputCache(Duration = 3600, VaryByParam = “none”, Location = OutputCacheLocation.Server, NoStore = false)]
D. Replace the code at line 12 with the following code segment:[OutputCache(Duration = 3600, VaryByParam = “none”, Location = OutputCacheLocation.Client, NoStore = true)]
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: They report delays in seeing the latest game results. This is the output of the GetResults() function. We decrease the Duration in the cache for this function from 3600 to 30. This is one line 12.
A: They report seeing other user’s name when they sign in to the application. This is the output of the GetUserInfo() function. We should change the OutputCacheLocation of the caching of this function from Server to Client. This is on line 7. Note: The OutputCacheLocation.Client option indicates that the content should be cached at the requesting client. Any requests for the same resource made from the same client within the expiry period, will be served out the client’s cache, without a network request being made to the server. The OutputCacheLocation.Server option indicates that the content will be cached at the origin server. This content will be served for subsequent requests made by the initial client and any other client requesting the same resource within the expiry period. References:

QUESTION 11
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application.
The application must allow users to enter HTML in a feedback text box only.
You need to disable request validation. What should you do?
A. Use the HttpRequest.Form property to read the unvalidated form value.
B. Apply and set the Validatelnput attribute on the controller action to FALSE.
C. Use the HttpRequest.Unvalidated property to read the unvalidated form value.
D. Apply and set the CausesValidation attribute on the controller action to FALSE.
70-486 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The HttpRequest.Unvalidated Property provides access to HTTP request values without triggering request validation.

QUESTION 12
You are designing a distributed application that runs on the Windows Azure platform.
The application must store a small amount of insecure global information that does not change frequently.
You need to configure the application to meet the requirements. Which server-side state management option should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows Azure application state
B. SQL Azure
C. Profile properties of the Windows Azure application
D. Windows Azure session state
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SQL Database provides a relational database management system for Windows Azure and is based on SQL Server technology. With a SQL Database instance, you can easily provision and deploy relational database solutions to the cloud, and take advantage of a distributed data center that provides enterprise-class availability, scalability, and security with the benefits of built-in data protection and self-healing.
Incorrect:
Not A: Application State does not exist in Azure. Not C: Profile properties stores personal, not global, information. Not D: Session state is not global. Session states handles user information such as cookies, hidden fields, and query strings are some client-side options to tracking user state

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3.0 Cisco Data Center Networking Technologies 26%
  • 3.1 Describe, configure, and verify FEX connectivity
  • 3.2 Describe, configure, and verify basic vPC features
  • 3.3 Describe, configure, and verify FabricPath
  • 3.4 Describe, configure, and verify unified switch ports
  • 3.5 Describe the features and benefits of Unified Fabric
  • 3.6 Describe and explain the use of role-based access control within the data center infrastructure
4.0 Automation and Orchestration 15%
  • 4.1 Explain the purpose and value of using APIs
  • 4.2 Describe the basic concepts of cloud computing
  • 4.3 Describe the basic functions of a Cisco UCS Director
  • 4.3.a Management
  • 4.3.b Orchestration
  • 4.3.c Multitenancy
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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam ()Q&As

1. You have assembled and installed a Hitachi Thunder 9570V?subsystemRK and a RKA into a 19 inch rack. The system parameters have also been configured. The customer now needs to use port 0A in order to connect HP-UX with a LUN 0 and Solaris with a LUN 0 on the same port. Which two will enable this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. install the LUN SECURITY license
B. create two host groups on port 0A
C. install the LUN-MANAGEMENT license
D. configure port 0A to work in HP-UX mode
200-155 exam Answer: BC

2. What is the operational humidity requirement at a site when installing a Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem?
A. 5% to 90% B.
8% to 80% C.
10% to 75% D.
10% to 90%
Answer: B

3. Which statement is true about cache slots on the Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem?
A. Each controller has two cache slots and each slot can hold 1GB DIMMS for a maximum of 2GB per controller.
B. Each controller has two cache slots and each slot can hold 512MB or 1GB DIMMS for a maximum of 1GB or 2GB per controller.
C. Each controller has four cache slots and each slot can hold 512MB or 1GB DIMMS for a maximum of 2 GB or 4GB per controller.
D. Each controller has four cache slots and each slot can hold 256MB or 512MB DIMMS for a maximum of 1 GB or 2 GB per controller.
200-155 dumps Answer: B

4. Which component on the first RKA is used to connect to the RK in a Hitachi Thunder 9570V?Series subsystem?
A. PDB
B. ENC unit
C. Controller unit
D. AC Power Unit
Answer: B

5. You are connected to a Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem using Hitachi?Resource Manager GUI. You have created LUNs for 12D+1P RAID group, and now you want to set up one spare disk. Given the following steps:
A.select Settings-> Logical Settings
B. select Settings-> Configuration Settings
C. select the Logical Settings tab D.select Settings-> Logical Unit-> Set Spare Drive E.select the disk that you want to set up as spare F.select the Spare Drive tab
A. B, F, E
B. B, F, G
C. D, C, E
D. F, C, G
200-155  pdf Answer: B

6. Ten LUNs must be recognized by the QLogic HBA on Microsoft Windows 2000 Server which is connected to a Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem. What is the system parameter that needs to be set up?
A. in the modify Host Group option, select CCHS mode in Standard mode
B. in the modify Host Group option, select CCHS mode in Host connection mode
C. in the modify Host Group option, select HISUP2 mode in Host connection mode
D. in the modify Host Group option, select HISUP mode in Host connection mode 2 Answer: D

7. You are using the Hitachi?Resource Manager GUI for the first time. You want to change to a different mode from default mode. What is the first thing you should do, before changing to a different mode?
A. go to Add-> Password and add the password
B. go to Add-> Change Mode and select the mode
C. go to Settings-> Password and register the password
D. go to Settings-> Change Properties and set the mode option to other modes
200-155  vce Answer: C

8. A customer has Sun Netra Servers mounted on a Hitachi Data Systems?19 inch rack. You need to mount a RK and a RKA on the same rack. What is the amps/PS rating you need to use for both the RK and RKA together in order to ensure that the PDU is not overloaded when two power supplies are used on both the RK and the RKA and the source is 100V?
A. 3.20
B. 5.10
C. 6.30
D. 10.20
Answer: C

9. What is the vibration tolerance of a Hitachi Thunder 9570?subsystem in operation, if installed near large generators located on the floor above or below the subsystem?
A. 2.5 m/s2 or less
B. 3.0 m/s2 or less
C. 3.5 m/s2 or less
D. 4.0 m/s2 or less
200-155  exam Answer:A

10. A customer has purchased a floor model of a Hitachi Thunder 9570V?Series subsystem set up as RK + RKA + H2H Deskside Kit. Which two connections between the RK and the RKA are valid? (Choose two.)
A. HSSDC#0 on Controller#0 of RK is connected to HSSDC#0 on ENC Unit#0 of RKA and HSSDC#1 on Controller#0 of RK is connected to HSSDC#1 on ENC Unit#0 of RKA.
B. HSSDC#0 on Controller#0 of RK is connected to HSSDC#1 on ENC Unit#0 of RKA and HSSDC#1 on Controller#0 of RK is connected to HSSDC#0 on ENC Unit#0 of RKA.
C. HSSDC#0 on Controller#1 of RK is connected to HSSDC#0 on ENC Unit#1 of RKA and HSSDC#1 on Controller#1 of RK is connected to HSSDC#1 on ENC Unit#1 of RKA.
D. HSSDC#0 on Controller#1 of RK is connected to HSSDC#1 on ENC Unit#1 of RKA and HSSDC#1 on Controller#1 of RK is connected to HSSDC#0 on ENC Unit#1 of RKA. Answer:AC

11. You are performing a Microprogram install for a customer on their Hitachi Thunder 9570V?Series subsystem. You receive message code RBA000 on the Web Access information messages. What does this message indicate?
A. Installation failed.
B. Installation failed in a part of the drive.
C. Downgrade check result was “Not Good.”
D. There was another system when installation was started.
200-155 dumps Answer: C

12. Which three operating systems can be used to install and run HDLM? (Choose three.)
A. AIX
B. OS/2
C. HP-UX
D. VxWorks
E. Microsoft Windows 2000
Answer:ACE

13. What is the maximum distance between a host and a Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem, when using short-wave Fibre Channel cable operating at data transfer speed of 200MB/s?
A. 100 meters
B. 200 meters
C. 300 meters
D. 400 meters
200-155 pdf Answer: C

14. What do you use to capture Simple or CTL Alarm trace information?
A. HiCommand
B. Web Access
C. Hitachi?Resource Manager CLI
D. Hitachi?Resource Manager GUI
Answer: B

15. You are connected to a Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem using a browser. How can you enter into Maintenance mode on it?
A. press the Soft Reset button on both the controllers
B. press the Rotary Set switch on the rear of the frame
C. click “Go to Maintenance Mode” button on the left pane of the browser
D. enter the IP address of the subsystem in the address field of the browser
200-155 vce Answer:A

16. Which of the following parts can be downgraded while the 9500V is online?
A. RKA
B. Drive
C. Cache
D. Controller
Answer: B

17. Frame Relay adopts ( ) as the switching method.
A.Routing
B.Circuit switching
C.Fast switching
D.Packet switching
200-155  exam Answer: D

18. A network protocol is a set of rules and conventions that prescribe how network devices inter-communicate. The communication parties shall understand and abide the protocol. ( )
T.True
F.False
Answer: T

19. Which layer of the OSI reference model implements encryption. ( )
A.Physical layer
B.Transport layer
C.Session layer
D.Presentation layer
200-155  dumps Answer: D

20. Both the transport layer and the data link layer perform error check. ( )
T.True
F.False
Answer: t

21. Common routing protocols are ( ).
A.IPX
B.OSPF
C.RIP
D.IP
200-155 pdf Answer: bc

22. To test the gateways that a packet will pass through from the source host to the destination, use the command ( ) in the H3C COMWARE command line.
A.ping
B.tracert
C.show path
D.display path
Answer: b

23. What algorithm is adopted in PPP CHAP authentication? ( )
A.MD5
B.DES
C.RSA
D.SHA
200-155  vce Answer: a

24. Two routers are in back-to-back connection with the following configuration. Can they communicate
with each other? ( )
[Router1] display current-configuration
#
sysname Router1
#
FTP server enable
#
l2tp domain suffix-separator @
#
radius scheme system
#
domain system
#
local-user admin
password cipher .]@USE=B,53Q=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.NM(0=0\)*5WWQ=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.N
service-type telnet terminal
level 3
service-type ftp local
user h3c password
simple h3c service
type ppp
#
interface Aux0
async mode flow
#
interface Serial0/0
link-protocol ppp
ppp authentication-mode chap
ppp chap user h3c
ip address 10.0.0.1 255.255.255.0
#
interface NULL0
#
user-interface con 0
user-interface aux 0
user-interface vty 0 4
authentication-mode none
user privilege level 3
#
return
[Router2] display current-configuration
#
sysname Router2
#
FTP server enable
#
l2tp domain suffix-separator @
#
radius scheme system
#
domain system
#
local-user admin
password cipher .]@USE=B,53Q=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.NM(0=0\)*5WWQ=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.N
service-type telnet terminal
level 3
service-type ftp local
user h3c password
simple 3com service
type ppp
#
interface Aux0
async mode flow
#
interface Serial0/0
clock DTECLK1
link-protocol ppp
ppp authentication-mode chap
ppp chap user h3c
ip address 10.0.0.2 255.255.255.0
#
interface NULL0
#
user-interface con 0
user-interface aux 0
user-interface vty 0 4
authentication-mode none
user privilege level 3
#
return
A.Yes
B.No
C.No decision can be made, for there is not enough information.
Answer: b
9. If the user data exceeds the Bc (committed burst ) in a frame relay network, the exceeding data will be
dropped. ( )
T.True
F.False
Answer: f

25. Two routers are in back-to-back connection with the following configuration. Can they communicate
with each other? ( )
[Router1]display current-configuration
#
sysname Router1
#
FTP server enable
#
l2tp domain suffix-separator @
#
fr switching#
radius scheme system
#
domain system
#
local-user admin
password cipher .]@USE=B,53Q=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.NM(0=0\)*5WWQ=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.N
service-type telnet terminal
level 3
service-type ftp
#
interface Aux0
async mode flow
#
interface Ethernet0/0
ip address dhcp-alloc
#
interface Ethernet0/1
ip address dhcp-alloc
#
interface Serial0/0
link-protocol fr
fr interface-type dce
#
interface Serial0/0.1 p2p
fr dlci 20
ip address 10.0.0.1 255.255.255.0
#
interface NULL0
#
user-interface con 0
user-interface aux 0
user-interface vty 0 4
authentication-mode none
user privilege level 3
#
return
[Router2]display current-configuration
#
sysname Router2
#
FTP server enable
#
l2tp domain suffix-separator @
#
radius scheme system
#
domain system
#
local-user admin
password cipher .]@USE=B,53Q=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.NM(0=0\)*5WWQ=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.N
service-type telnet terminal
level 3
service-type ftp
#
interface Aux0
async mode flow
#
interface Ethernet0/0
ip address dhcp-alloc
#
interface Ethernet0/1
ip address dhcp-alloc
#
interface Serial0/0
clock DTECLK1
link-protocol fr
#
interface Serial0/0.1 p2p
fr dlci 20
ip address 10.0.0.2 255.255.255.0
#
interface NULL0
#
user-interface con 0
user-interface aux 0
user-interface vty 0 4
authentication-mode none
user privilege level 3
#
return
A.Yes
B.No
C.No decision can be made, for there is not enough information.
200-155  exam Answer: a

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QUESTION 6
Which two statements about the DES algorithm are true? (Choose two)
A. The DES algorithm is based on asymmetric cryptography.
B. The DES algorithm is a stream cipher.
C. The DES algorithm is based on symmetric cryptography.
D. The DES algorithm encrypts a block of 128 bits.
E. The DES algorithm uses a 56-bit key.
400-251 exam 
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7
Which of these is a core function of the risk assessment process? (Choose one.)
A. performing regular network upgrades
B. performing network optimization
C. performing network posture validation
D. establishing network baselines
E. prioritizing network roll-outs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What is the name of the unique tool/feature in cisco security manager that is used to merge an access list based on the source/destination IP address service or combination of these to provide a manageable view of access policies?
A. merge rule tool
B. policy simplification tool
C. rule grouping tool

D. object group tool
E. combine rule tool
400-251 dumps 
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about the ISO are true? (Choose two)
A. The ISO is a government-based organization.
B. The ISO has three membership categories: member, correspondent, and subscribers.
C. Only member bodies have voting rights.
D. Correspondent bodies are small countries with their own standards organization.
E. Subscriber members are individual organizations.
Correct Answer: BC

Question: 10
You want department administrators to perform some basic administrative tasks that require them to be able to access the Central Management Console (CMC). How will you give the department administrators the right to be able to grant access to the CMC to other administrators in their own departments?
A. In the Organize Objects area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to “Edit this object”.

B. In the Manage BusinessObjects Applications area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to “Full control”.
C. In the Manage Settings area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to “Modify the rights users have to this object”.
D. In the Manage BusinessObjects Applications area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to “Modify the rights users have to this object”.
400-251 pdf 
Answer: D

Question: 11
A user who has always scheduled objects for the Marketing department is leaving your company. Which method should you use in the Central Management Console (CMC) to ensure that all recurring instances owned by this user remain in effect but become owned by the Administrator?
A. Disable the departing user then click on the Transfer recurring instances to button and select the Administrator. Click OK.
B. Delete the departing user; all recurring instances automatically transfer to the Administrator.
C. Open each recurring instance on the object’s History tab then click on Schedule for and select Administrator. Ensure that the instance will use the same recurrence pattern and parameter values. Delete the departing user when all instances have been duplicated.
D. Download details of all the instances then log on to the CMC as Administrator and schedule them using the same recurrence patterns and parameter values. Delete the departing user when all instances have been duplicated.
Answer: B

Question: 12
Which statement describes the role of BusinessObjects Enterprise within the Business Objects Business Intelligence (BI) suite of products?
A. Allows you to analyze and interact with data from both relational and OLAP data sources.
B. Provides you with an open, scalable platform that supports all of your BI tools and applications.
C. Provides you with a process for accessing data, formatting it and delivering it as information to various users.
D. Allows you to integrate, transform and deliver enterprise data from any source.
400-251 vce 
Answer: B

Question: 13
Select two true statements from below. (Choose two.)
A. You cannot copy Calendar objects in CMC > Calendars area of administration.
B. You can create your own Calendars in BusinessObjects Enterprise; you have to use the pre build business calendars only.
C. You can schedule Web Intelligence documents based on an existing calendar.
D. Calendars can be created in InfoView.
Answer: B, C

Question: 14
What steps should you follow to make Report A run automatically every day upon the successful completion of Report B?
A. Working in InfoView, create a new schedule-based event. Schedule Report B to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to trigger on completion window. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to wait for window.
B. Working in the Central Management Console, create a new schedule-based event. Schedule Report B to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to trigger on completion window. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new schedule based event to the Events to wait for window.
C. Working in the Central Management Console, create a new custom event. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new custom event to the Events to wait for window. After Report B runs successfully, trigger the custom event in the Central Management Console.
D. Working in InfoView, create a new custom event. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new custom event to the Events to wait for window. After Report B runs successfully, trigger the custom event in the Central Management Console.
400-251 exam 
Answer: B

Question: 15
The InfoView is mostly used for which of the following tasks:
A. Mostly for administering content
B. Exclusively for viewing reports
C. Viewing information about reports (Encyclopedia and Discussions)
D. Accessing information and some limited content administration
Answer: D

Question: 16
Once you grant the right to an application value (e.g. Print Documents set to Grant) to a user/group on a specific application (e.g. Desktop Intelligence), you will still be able to grant that right (e.g. print) to one Desktop Intelligence document but not the other Desktop Intelligence document.
A. True
B. False
400-251 dumps 
Answer: B

Question: 17
Your user groups have different functional needs and your managers would rather employ a more complicated user group structure than create additional folder levels. What approach should you use to create a content plan that combines logical report organization and functional user access levels?
A. Use the logical-functional group method.
B. Grant each user advanced rights to each object.
C. Use the functional-folder method.
D. Create a logical content plan.
Answer: A

Question: 18
Which two statements are true when you make changes to the report properties of a published Crystal Report object using the Central Management Console (CMC)? (Choose two.)
A. The report file stored in the Input File Report Server (FRS) is modified.
B. The report file stored in the Input File Report Server (FRS) is not modified.
C. The changes are written to the Central Management Server (CMS) system database.
D. The changes are not written to the Central Management Server (CMS) system database.
400-251 pdf 
Answer: B, C

Question: 19
How do you disable anonymous access in BusinessObjects Enterprise?
A. Within InfoView uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
B. Within Central Management Console (CMC) disable Guest account.
C. Within Central Configuration Manager (CCM) uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
D. Within Central Management Console (CMC) uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
Answer: B

Question: 20
Assume you are using InfoView and need to locate a specific Web Intelligence report, but you cannot remember its name. There are 15 Web Intelligence reports in the system and you have access to all root-level folders. What would be the best way to locate the report?
A. Browse the folders and categories
B. Filter
C. Report off the CMS database
D. Use the Advanced feature of the Search function
400-251 vce 
Answer: D

Question: 21
A Web Intelligence document is a report object that is created from a universe data source over the web through the InfoView interface. A Web Intelligence document can be published to the BusinessObjects Enterprise environment in one or more ways. Select the best answer from the list below.
A. Web Intelligence documents can be published by using Save As in InfoView through the Organize Objects or Folders areas of the Central Management Console or by using the BusinessObjects Publishing Wizard.
B. Web Intelligence documents can be published only by using Save As in InfoView because they only exist inside the BusinessObjects Enterprise environment.
C. Web Intelligence documents can be published by using Save As in InfoView or through the Organize Objects or Folders areas of the Central Management Console.
Answer: B

Question: 22
Which three authentication systems does the BusinessObjects Enterprise support with Single Sign-On (SSO) feature? (Choose three.)
A. Windows NT
B. Windows NT with SiteMinder
C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) with SiteMinder

D. Windows Active Directory (AD)
400-251 exam 
Answer: A, C, D

Question: 23
Which three benefits can users realize from a well-designed content and system management plan? (Choose three.)
A. User license counts are never exceeded.
B. Only required information appears in report objects.
C. Locating reports and other objects is simple.
D. Information is current.
Answer: B, C, D

Question: 24
Which three problems can users encounter as a result of a poorly-designed content and system management plan? (Choose three.)
A. Required information is not visible in report objects.
B. Named user license counts are exceeded.
C. Information is not current.
D. Reports and other objects take too long to locate.
400-251 dumps 
Answer: A, C, D

Question: 25
What are two of the major steps that you must perform when creating a logical content plan for your BusinessObjects Enterprise implementation? (Choose two.)
A. Create BusinessObjects Enterprise server groups based on geographical considerations.
B. Specify group access levels for folders and objects.
C. Organize users into functional groups.
D. Create profiles for encyclopedia distribution.
Answer: B, C

Question: 26
When you move a folder, the objects within are also moved. What happens to the folder’s object rights?
A. The folder rights are set to the default View for Everyone.
B. The folder rights are set to the default Full Control for the Administrators group.
C. The folder retains the object rights of the original.
D. The folder inherits the object rights set on the new parent folder.
400-251 pdf 
Answer: C
 400-251 dumps

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-101 Dumps Exam (20-33)Q&As:
Question No : 20 – (Topic 1) Which circumstance can cause packet loss due to a microburst?
A. slow convergence
B. a blocked spanning-tree port
C. process switching
D. insufficient buffers
400-101 exam 
Answer: D
Explanation:
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the network. Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shown as accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative of receive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to data bursts coming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds).

Question No : 21 – (Topic 1)
Which three features require Cisco Express Forwarding? (Choose three.)
A. NBAR
B. AutoQoS
C. fragmentation
D. MPLS
E. UplinkFast
F. BackboneFast
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QoS Features That Require CEF
These class-based QoS features are supported only on routers that run CEF.
•Network Based Application Recognition (NBAR) provides intelligent network classification. For more information, refer to Network Based Application Recognition.
• The AutoQoS -VoIP feature simplifies and speeds up the implementation and provisioning of QoS for VoIP traffic. This feature is enabled with the help of the auto qos voip command. CEF must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC before the auto qos command can be used. For more information about this feature and its prerequisites, refer to AutoQoS – VoIP.
Why Is CEF Needed in MPLS Networks?
Concerning MPLS, CEF is special for a certain reason; otherwise, this book would not explicitly cover it. Labeled packets that enter the router are switched according to the label forwarding information base (LFIB) on the router. IP packets that enter the router are switched according to the CEF table on the router. Regardless of whether the packet is switched according to the LFIB or the CEF table, the outgoing packet can be a labeled packet or an IP packet

Question No : 22 – (Topic 1) Which option is the most effective action to avoid packet loss due to microbursts?
A. Implement larger buffers.
B. Install a faster CPU.
C. Install a faster network interface.
D. Configure a larger tx-ring size.
400-101 dumps 
Answer: A
Explanation:
You can’t avoid or prevent them as such without modifying the sending host’s application/network stack so it smoothes out the bursts. However, you can manage microbursts by tuning the size of receive buffers / rings to absorb occasional microbursts.
Question No : 23 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps Which statement about the debug behavior of the device is true?
A. The device debugs all IP events for 172.16.129.4.
B. The device sends all debugging information for 172.16.129.4.
C. The device sends only NTP debugging information to 172.16.129.4.
D. The device sends debugging information every five seconds.
Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
Which statement about the effect of this configuration is true ?
A. The 192.168.2.1/24 network is summarized and advertised as 192.168.2.0/24
B. The 192.168.2.1/32 network appears in the route table on R1 ,but it is missing from its OSPF database.
C. The 192.168.2.1/32 network is missing from the OSPF database and the route table on R1.
D. The 192.168.2.1/32 network appears in the Rl OSPF database , but it is missing from its route table.
400-101 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
What is wrong with the configuration of this tunnel interface ?
A. ISATAP tunnels cannot use the EUI-64 address format.
B. The tunnel source of an ISATAP tunnel must always point to a loopback interface.
C. Router advertisements are disabled on this tunnel interface.
D. No tunnel destination has been specified.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 26
Which two statements about IGMP filtering are true?
A. It eliminates the need for a multicast RP.
B. It can be implemented on Layer-3 routed ports using the ipigmp access-list command.
C. It allows Anycast RP to operate within a single AS.
D. It supports IGMPv3 traffic only
E. It can be implemented on Layer-2 switchports using IGMP profiles.
400-101 vce 
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
What are two ways DHCPv6 guard can mitigate man-in-the-middle attacks?
A. An interface in the server device role can use ACLs to filter authorized servers.
B. An interface in the server device role can drop all DHCPv6 server messages.
C. An interface in the client device role can use ACLs to filter authorized servers.
D. An interface in the server device role can use prefix-lists to filter authorized DCHP reply messages.
E. An interface in the client device role blocks all DCHPv6 server messages by default.
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 28
You are the project manager of the BHG Project. You are creating a network diagram as shown in the figure:
Mary, a project team member, reports that an identified risk is likely to happen in the project that will affect the completion date of Activity D . She reports that the risk event will likely cause the duration of the activity to increase by six days. If this happens what is the earliest the project can complete?
A. 32 days
B. 29 days
C. 27 days
D. 26 days
400-101 exam 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If Activity D increases by six days, the duration of the project will not change. There is 11 days of float available for Activity D so it may delay by six days without affecting the project end date. What is float? Float or total float (TF) is the total amount of time that a schedule activity may be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project finish date, or violating a schedule constraint. It is calculated by using the critical path method technique and determining the difference between the early finish dates and late finish dates.
Answer options A, B, and C are incorrect. These are not valid answers for the question.

QUESTION 29
Sam is the project manager of the NQQ project. He and the project team have completed the stakeholder identification process for his project. What is the main output of the identify stakeholders process?
A. Communications management plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Requirements
D. Stakeholder management strategy
400-101 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to the PMBOK, the main output of the identify stakeholders process is the stakeholder register. The stakeholder register is a project management document that contains a list of the stakeholders associated with the project. It assesses how they are involved in the project and identifies what role they play in the organization. The information in this document can be very perceptive and is meant for limited exchange only. It also contains relevant information about the stakeholders, such as their requirements, expectations, and influence on the project. Answer option A is incorrect. The communications management plan is an output of communications planning. Answer option D is incorrect. The stakeholder management strategy is an output of stakeholder identification, but it is not the main output. Answer option C is incorrect. Requirements are not an output of the stakeholder identification process.

QUESTION 30
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Management has asked you not to communicate performance unless the CPI is less than 0.96 or the SPI dips below 0.98. What type of report would you create for management, if these instances develop in your project?
A. Cost variance report
B. Exceptions report
C. Performance management report
D. Schedule variance report

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The best answer is simply an exception report. An exception report refers and documents the major mistakes, mishaps, and goofs. In other words, it itemizes the important and critically significant piece of documentation that is vital to the proper and effective functioning of a project. It does not document what has gone right, but rather documents what has gone wrong. Answer option C is incorrect. A performance management report is not a valid project management report. Answer option A is incorrect. The question is asked about cost and schedule so this answer would not be appropriate for both the cost and the schedule. Answer option D is incorrect. The question is asked about cost and schedule so this answer would not be appropriate for both the cost and the schedule.

QUESTION 31
You are the project manager of the HQQ Project. Your project is running late by ten percent of where you should be at this time. Management is concerned. Considering that the project has a BAC of $567,899, you are thirty percent complete, and you have spent $179,450. What is this project’s to- complete performance index based on the current BAC?
A. 1.02
B. 0.010
C. 0.75
D. 0.95
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This project is not performing well on schedule, but moderately well on costs. The project’s TCPI based on the current BAC is 1.02. To-complete Performance Index (TCPI) is the measured projection of the anticipated performance required to achieve either the BAC or the EAC. TCPI indicates the future required cost efficiency needed to achieve a target EAC (Estimate At Complete).Once approved, the EAC supersedes the BAC as the cost performance goal. Any significant difference between TCPI and the CPI needed to meet the EAC should be accounted for by management in their forecast of the final cost. The formula for TCPI is as follows:
TCPI = {(BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC)}
Answer option D is incorrect. 0.95 is the project’s TCPI value based on the estimate at completion. Answer option C is incorrect. 0.75 is the project’s schedule performance index. Answer option B is incorrect. 0.010 is not a valid calculation.

QUESTION 32
Andy works as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. He is developing the schedule for the project. There are eight tools and techniques that a project manager can use to develop the project schedule. Which of the following is a tool and technique for the Schedule Development process?
A. Schedule compression
B. Reserve analysis
C. Variance analysis
D. Expert judgment
400-101 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Schedule compression is a tool used as part of the Schedule Development process. The tools and techniques for schedule development are as follows:
Schedule network analysis
Critical path method
Critical chain method
Resource leveling
What-if scenario analysis
Applying leads and lags
Schedule compression
Scheduling tool
Answer options D, B, and C are incorrect. These are not tools and techniques for schedule development.

QUESTION 33
You are the project manager for your organization. You have recorded the following duration estimates for an activity in your project: optimistic 20, most likely 45, pessimistic 90. What time will you record for this activity?
A. 48
B. 20o, 45m, 90p
C. 90
D. 45
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This is an example of a three-point estimate. A three-point estimate records the optimistic, most likely, and the pessimistic duration, and then records an average for the predicted duration Three-point estimate is a way to enhance the accuracy of activity duration estimates. This concept is originated with the Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT). PERT charts the following three estimates: Most likely (TM): The duration of activity based on realistic factors such as resources assigned, interruptions, etc. Optimistic (TO): The activity duration based on the best-case scenario Pessimistic (TP): The activity duration based on the worst-case scenario The expected (TE) activity duration is a weighted average of these three estimates:
TE = (TO + 4TM + TP) / 6 Duration estimates based on the above equations (sometimes simple average of the three estimates is also used) provide more accuracy. It can be calculated as follows:
TE = ( 20 + 45*4 + 90) / 6
= 290/6
=48
Answer options B, C, and D are incorrect. These are not the valid answers for this question.

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-255 Dumps Exam Q&As:

1.Where are the properties for the Event Server stored?
A.In the boot.ini file on the machine where the Event Server is running
B.In the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C.In the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) bootstrap file
D.In the Event Server service properties
210-255 exam Answer:B
2.Which three are benefits to the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)? (Choose three.)
A.Security
B.Administrative accessibility
C.Email notification
D.Reliability
Answer:A B D
3.Which web language was used to develop InfoView?
A.Perl
B.Java
C.PHP
D.C++
210-255 dumps Answer:B
4.How do you set-up a configuration template for a Web Intelligence Processing Server?
A.Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to the Server Template area and click on Add New Template.
B.Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to properties of the specific server and click on Add New Template.
C.Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to the Server Template area and click on Set Configuration Template.
D.Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to properties of the specific server and click on Set Configuration Template.
Answer:D
5.Which type of file does the replication process use to transfer content?
A.BIAR
B.REP
C.Binary
D.BOMain
210-255 pdf Answer:A
6.Which replication object would you schedule?
A.Replication Job
B.Replication List
C.Replication Connection
D.Replication Package
Answer:A
7.Which three application servers can you deploy Web Archive (WAR) files to using wdeploy? (Choose three.)
A.Oracle Containers for J2EE
B.SAP Netweaver

C.JRun
D.Sun Java Application Server
210-255 vce Answer:A B D
8.Which directory is the bootstrap file saved in by default on the Windows platform?
A.Web Services
B.Logging
C.FileStore
D.Win32_x86
Answer:D
9.Four users in the Human Resources department and six users in the Finance department need to edit existing Web Intelligence documents. How would you set-up a secure folder structure for the different departments so that each group of users can edit existing Web Intelligence documents?
A.Modify advanced rights on all groups.
B.Apply a predefined access level to all folders.
C.Create a custom access level and apply it to all folders.
D.Modify advanced rights on a top level folder.
210-255 exam Answer:C
10.What do you see when you view a Crystal Report instance that has both saved data and two successful instances?
A.The latest data from the database
B.The oldest data from the database
C.The oldest successful instance
D.The newest successful instance
Answer:D
11.A user belongs to both Group 1 and Group 2 and you want that user to see a specific folder. What folder security settings would you use to enable the user to view the folder?
A.Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2 and also not specified for the Everyone group
B.Set the view right to denied for Group 1 and granted for Group 2
C.Set the view right to not specified for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2
D.Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and denied for Group 2
E.Create a custom access level and grant for Group 1 and deny for Group 2
210-255 dumps Answer:A
12.What action would the Deployment Diagnostic Tool take when an InfoObject exists in the Central Management Server (CMS) system database, but the corresponding file cannot be found in the File Repository Server (FRS)?
A.Remove the InfoObject from the Central Management Server (CMS) system database, unless otherwise specified.
B.Create a blank report as a placeholder.
C.Notify the user to republish the object.
D.Reassign the InfoObject to a new file.
Answer:A
13.What is the difference between one-way replication and two-way replication?
A.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
  content only travels from Destination site to Origin site.
B.In one-way replication, content only travels from Destination site to Origin site. In two-way replication, content can travel from Origin site to Destination site, or from Destination site to Origin site.
C.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication, content also travels only from Origin site to Destination site but this operation can happen more than once.
D.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication, content also travels from Origin site to Destination site but this operation can happen more than once.
210-255 pdf Answer:D
14.Which statement is true of a single Replication Job?
A.Has two or more origin sites and no destination sites
B.Has only one origin site and only one destination site
C.Has one or more origin sites and only one destination site
D.Has one or more origin sites and possibly many destination sites
Answer:B
15.You are migrating content into a new system. Which task must you perform to maintain the system integrity (CUID)?
A.Define the LDAP configuration
B.List the groups to be migrated
C.Define custom security settings
D.List the active content folders
210-255 vce Answer:A
16.Which three parameters can you specify in the command line for wdeploy? (Choose three.)
A.Web Server Type
B.CMS Administrator Username
C.Deployment Parameters
D.Deployment Actions
Answer:A C D
17.In which two locations could you configure the port numbers for the local Central Management Server (CMS)? (Choose two.)
A.In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Startup tab for the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)
B.In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Configuration tab for the CMS
C.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Server settings for the CMS
D.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) settings
210-255 exam Answer:A C
18.Which servers should you examine if you are unable to schedule a Web Intelligence document? (Choose three.)
A.Web Intelligence Processing Server
B.Connection Server
C.Adaptive Job Server
D.Output File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer:A C D
19.How do you change the system database properties for the Central Management Server (CMS)?
A.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is
  pointing to the remote CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Configuration tab.
B.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is pointing to the local CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Startup tab.
C.Select the CMS in the Central Management Console (CMC), stop the service and go to the Configuration tab.
D.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA), which is pointing to the local CMS, stop the service and go to the Configuration tab.
210-255 dumps Answer:D
20.Where do you configure the Login action for Desktop Intelligence users in a 3-tier mode?
A.Under Settings in the Desktop Intelligence client
B.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence Cache Server
C.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Central Management Server (CMS)
D.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence application
Answer:C
21. As the Global Administrator of a CA Performance Management instance that hosts three tenants, you are only able to see two of the five available SNMP profiles. Why are you unable to view all five profiles?
A. Because in this instance,two profiles are associated with the tenant you are currently administering
B. Because Global Administrators typically need to refresh the screen before the full set of profiles appear
C. Because the Global Administrator must change an entry in the SNMP_549.xml file to see all SNMP profiles
D. Because the tenant administrators must change the permission of the SNMP profiles that they manage to enable the Global Administrator to see them
210-255 pdf Answer: A
22. If you register a Data Aggregator data source, a system group named Collections will appear in
CA Performance Center. Which feature characterizes collections?
A. They are always modifiable.
B. They are generally only used for report organization.
C. They are not tenant-specific but are always global in scope.
D. They are primarily used to control monitoring behavior using rules specified in monitoring
profiles.
Answer: A
23. When you create or edit a monitoring profile, you can use the Change Detection Rate option to set the frequency at which the Data Aggregator checks for changes. When you set the rate of detection, the Automatically Update Metric Families check box is selected by default. What happens if you clear this check box?
A. The Change Detection Rate field will no longer be editable.
B. The automatic updating of metric families will continue unless you also change settings for  specific metric families.
C. The Data Aggregator will continue to automatically monitor new components but will no longer retire old components.
D. The Events Display dashboard will need to be monitored and updates will need to be performed manually on the Polled Metric Families page.
210-255 vce Answer: D
24. How do you launch the New Vendor Certification wizard?
A. On the Inventory tab,right-click a device and click Import MIB.
B. In the Data Aggregator source,on the Vendor Certifications page,click New.
C. Use Web Services to import the vendor NIB and assign it to a particular metric family.
D. On the Vendor Certification dashboard,right-click an unassigned vendor certification and assign it to an unsupported device.
Answer: B
25. Which statement is FALSE?
A. The groups assigned to your user account determine the data you can view on dashboards.
B. A best practice is to create groups to meet strategicIT objectives rather than business objectives.
C. In the Groups tree,Service Provider Global Groups contain items not explicitly associated with a tenant IP domain.
D. Users can use the section of the Groups tree below their permission groups to change the data
context for summary or group dashboards.
210-255 exam Answer: B

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IBM, IBM News

IBM launched its first POWER9 system, which positioned as “AI and cognitive workloads of a game-changing power station” – The benefits of artificial intelligence and cognitive computing and based on the same architecture as the Department of Energy’s Coral supercomputer summit and Sylar. The new system also supports the Nvlink 2.0 and OPENCAPI protocols, which provide up to 10x of PCI 3.0 maximum bandwidth based on x86 systems.  According to Sumit Gupta, vice president of of AI and HPC within IBM’s Cognitive Systems business unit think tha The  design concept the POWER9 is that it will work as a peer processor for a peer or other processor. Whether it’s a GPU accelerator, an FPGA, or any other accelerator on the market, our goal is to provide links and hooks so that all these accelerators can be developed equally on the server.

IBM

The new AC922 server is on two Power9 CPUs between four and six Nvidia Tesla V100 Nvlink GPU. The AC922 extends many of the design elements introduced in the Power8 “Minsky” box and focuses on enabling connections to a range of accelerators (Nvidia GPU, ASIC, FPGA, and PCIe connected devices)-using a series of interfaces. Power9 the consistency introduced by CAPI and Nvlink 2.0 is another key enabler code. AC922 solves these problems, allowing accelerated applications to use system memory as GPU memory. This reduces latency and simplifies programming by eliminating data movement and location requirements. The AC922 server can be configured with either four or six Nvidia Volta V100 GPUs. According to IBM, a four GPU air-cooled version will be available December 22 and both four- and six-GPU water-cooled options are expected to follow in the second quarter of 2018.

Thousands of AC922 nodes, along with storage and network connectivity, drive about 200 in Oak Ridge and 120 1.271 of 1.271. As King pointed out in our interview, only one of the original CORAL contractors is fulfilling its mission to deliver a “pre-exascale” supercomputer to the collaboration of US labs. Sano praised “IBM’s progress in the development of the latest energy technologies” and said that “the POWER9 Opencapi Bus and high-capacity memory feature allow for further innovation opportunities in Google data center.”

IBM

IBM is also being leveraged by Google, and it’s working with partner Rackspace to build a server called Zaius Power9 processor. IBM do see their strong appeal, but there are many other factors that are working. They have solutions that, after a very fast-growing AI space, our solution will be done after the open source database NoSQL the data center and Have announced cooperation with Nutanix to hyperconverged space which  see the HyperScale market as “a good capacity opportunity”, and clearly aware of the impact of bulk pricing on the traditional server market. So we have a lot of different elements that drive the number and opportunities of power servers on our Linux, including of course SAP’s Hannah.

IBM will also sell POWER9 chips through its openpower ecosystem, which now contains 300 members. Three versions of the POWER9 chip will be deployed in 2019. There will be an amplified processor, which is a traditional chip for AIX and high-end space, and then another that will provide more acceleration with enhanced memory and built-in other features; we’re working with other memory providers.

Before the Power8 began to fall in the second year, Capabilities like Nutanix and building Powerai and other software-based solutions have led to some bounce, which is still negative. The pricing or at least price perception is a problem with Power8. For traditional market, I think pricing is competitive; for some of the new markets we’re trying to get into, such as the Hyperscaler data center, I think we have some work to do. It’s really a TCO and a price-performance competitiveness versus price only. And we think we’re going to have a much better price performance competitiveness with Power9 in the hyperscalers and some of the low-end Linux spaces that are really the new market.

IBM

We are very confident that we are building a lot of workloads on top of this architecture, we will see more growth, Power9 positive growth, powerai with Nutanix some other workloads we’ve put it there, it won’t be the only reason for a hardware. This will be the bulk of the software features we build on the platform and support more new workloads. In the next two or three years–it’s a huge hockey stick–we’ve built and designed POWER9 markets, especially for that market Over the next few months and years, more power9-based servers will follow IBM and its ecosystem partners.

IBM
Read More IBM News:https://www.hpcwire.com/2017/12/06/ibm-begins-power9-rollout-backing-doe-google/

Microsoft, Windows Server 2012

Has anyone taken Microsoft 70-411 dumps? “Administering Windows Server 2012” also known as 70-411 exam, is a Microsoft certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Latest Microsoft 70 411 dumps practice exam questions for MCSE certification with Youtube study guide. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-411 dumps exam questions answers are updated (234 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: 70-411
Exam Name: Administering Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 234

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QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to configure Server1 to create an entry in an event log when the processor usage exceeds 60 percent. Which type of data collector should you create?
A. An event trace data collector
B. A performance counter alert
C. A performance counter data collector
D. A configuration data collector
70-411 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Your company deploys a new Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The first domain controller in the forest runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The forest contains a domain controller named DC10. On DC10, the disk that contains the SYSVOL folder fails. You replace the failed disk. You stop the Distributed File System (DFS) Replication service. You restore the SYSVOL folder. You need to perform a non-authoritative synchronization of SYSVOL on DC10. Which tool should you use before you start the DFS Replication service on DC10?
A. Dfsgui.msc
B. Dfsmgmt.msc
C. Adsiedit.msc
D. Ldp
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 P.2. Server1 has the Network Policy and Access Services server role installed. Your company’s security policy requires that certificate-based authentication must be used by some network services.
You need to identify which Network Policy Server (NPS) authentication methods comply with the security policy.
Which two authentication methods should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. MS-CHAP
B. PEAP-MS-CHAP v2
C. Chap
D. EAP-TLS
E. MS-CHAP v2
70-411 dumps Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 4
You have a cluster named Cluster1 that contains two nodes. Both nodes run Windows Server 2012 R2. Cluster1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You configure a custom service on VM1 named Service1. You need to ensure that VM1 will be moved to a different node if Service1 fails. Which cmdlet should you run on Cluster1?
A. Add-ClusterVmMonitoredItem
B. Add-ClusterGenericServiceRole
C. Set-ClusterResourceDependency
D. Enable VmResourceMetering
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and fabrikam.com. All of the DNS servers in both of the domains run Windows Server 2012 R2. The network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2. Server1 hosts an Active Directory integrated zone for contoso.com. Server2 hosts an Active Directory-integrated zone for fabrikam.com. Server1 and Server2 connect to each other by using a WAN link. Client computers that connect to Server1 for name resolution cannot resolve names in fabrikam.com. You need to configure Server1 to resolve names in fabrikam.com. The solution must NOT require that changes be made to the fabrikam.com zone on Server2. What should you create?
A. A trust anchor
B. A stub zone
C. A zone delegation
D. A secondary zone
70-411 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains 10 domain controllers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You plan to create a new Active Directory-integrated zone named contoso.com. You need to ensure that the new zone will be replicated to only four of the domain controllers. What should you do first?
A. Create an application directory partition.
B. Create an Active Directory connection object.
C. Create an Active Directory site link.
D. Change the zone replication scope.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Windows Server Update Services server role installed. Server1 stores update files locally in C:\Updates.  You need to change the location in which the update files are stored to D:\Updates. What should you do?
A. From the Update Services console, run the Windows Server Update Services Configuration Wizard.
B. From a command prompt, run wsusutil.exe and specify the movecontent parameter.
C. From the Update Services console, configure the Update Files and Languages option.
D. From a command prompt, run wsusutil.exe and specify the export parameter.
70-411 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Remote Access server role installed. On Server1, you create a network policy named Policy1. You need to configure Policy1 to ensure that users are added to a VLAN. Which attributes should you add to Policy1?
A. Tunnel-Tag, Tunnel-Password, Tunnel-Medium-Type, and Tunnel-Preference
B. Tunnel-Tag, Tunnel-Server-Auth-ID, Tunnel-Preference, and Tunnel-Pvt-Group-ID
C. Tunnel-Type, Tunnel-Tag, Tunnel-Medium-Type, and Tunnel-Pvt-Group-ID
D. Tunnel-Type, Tunnel-Password, Tunnel-Server-Auth-ID, and Tunnel-Pvt-Group-ID
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains domain controllers that run Windows Server 2008, Windows Server 2008 R2 Windows Server 2012, and Windows Server 2012 R2. A domain controller named DC1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2. DC1 is backed up daily. During routine maintenance, you delete a group named Group1. You need to recover Group1 and identify the names of the users who were members of Group1 prior to its deletion. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do first?
A. Perform an authoritative restore of Group1.
B. Mount the most recent Active Directory backup.
C. Use the Recycle Bin to restore Group1.
D. Reactivate the tombstone of Group1.
70-411 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You enable and configure Routing and Remote Access (RRAS) on Server1. You create a user account named User1. You need to ensure that User1 can establish VPN connections to Server1. What should you do?
A. Modify the members of the Remote Management Users group.
B. Add a RADIUS client.
C. Modify the Dial-in setting of User1.
D. Create a connection request policy.
Correct Answer: C

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Microsoft, Microsoft SharePoint Applications

How can I get valid Microsoft 70-488 dumps study guide for passing the Microsoft exam? “Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions” is the name of Microsoft 70-488 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. New updated Microsoft 70-488 dumps certification exam video with latest version pdf&vce. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-488 dumps exam questions answers are updated (131 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: 70-488
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions
Q&As: 131

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QUESTION NO: 73
S5600 control panel box must be safe FC hard disk or SSD hard disk (S5300 and S5500 control
box control boxes do not have this requirement), control box, hard disk drives and other types of
hard disk box for SATA hard drives or FC drives or SSD drives.
A. True
B. False
70-488 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 74
How many hard drives to create a complete RAID5 requires at least?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 75
SSDs Compared to traditional mechanical hard drives advantages excluding Which?
A. Higher IOPS
B. Larger capacity
C. Low noise
D. Less prone to mechanical wear
70-488 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 76
Upgrade for S5000 need to upgrade SES, and then upgrade the controller software
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 77
In S5000T product features can be completed without interruption of business are. (Choose three)
A. Expand storage capacity
B. Hardware module upgrades
C. Online Upgrade
D. A copy of the full amount LUN
70-488 pdf Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 78
Full range of products in accordance with the storage location and classification, which of the
following products do not belong to the network storage products? (Choose two)
A. S2600
B. CSS
C. iNVS
D. S5000 S5000T
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 79
After storing the file import license, you need to reboot the array
A. True
B. False
70-488 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 80
After the windows system scan to LUN storage resources, you first need to initialize the LUN
space operations.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 81
Network storage system includes morphological SAS, NAS, SAN.
A. True
B. False
70-488 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 82
Fibre Channel protocol support topology what? (Choose three)
A. Point
B. Switched
C. Hybrid
D. Arbitrated loop
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 83
The following are journaled file system? (Choose three)
A. fat32
B. ntfs
C. jfs
D. xfs
70-488 dumps Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 84
In S5000T, for example, the principle of fault diagnosis for storage devices: (Choose three)
A. First diagnosis of external factors,internal factors after diagnosis.
B. First diagnosis overall,partial diagnosis.
C. First analysis of high-level alarm,low level alarm after analysis.
D. First check service after checking storage
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 85
S5000T redundant disk array control module includes box: (Choose three)
A. Backplane Modules
B. Controller Module
C. The battery module
D. Power – Fan Module
70-488 pdf Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 86
Optical fiber cables, including: (Choose three)
A. Core
B. Cladding
C. Shield
D. Cover
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 87
iSCSI host adapter (HBA) is responsible for implementing iSCSI layer and the TCP / IP protocol
stack functionality
A. True
B. False
70-488 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 88
About SUSE 10.0 under the open iSCSI service operation is correct: (Choose three)
A. rcopen-iscsi start
B. / etc / init.d / open-iscsi stop
C. / etc / init.d / open-iscsi status
D. / etc / init.d / iscsi restart
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 89
In the same RAID group, allowing simultaneous failure of two members of the panel and still full
RAID -level data may have () (Choose three)
A. RAID1
B. RAID 6
C. RAID 5
D. RAID01
70-488 exam Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 90
Master Boot Record (MBR) partition supports a maximum volume of 2 PB
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 91
NAS server does not support the agreement are:
A. ftp
B. iSCSI
C. CIFS
D. NFS
70-488 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 92
The role of multi- path software: (Choose three)
A. High Availability
B. Load Balancing
C. Active I / O path testing and automatic path to recovery
D. Improve reading array cache hit rate
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 93
Linux mount the file system under which command?
A. umount
B. mount
C. mout
D. unmount
70-488 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 94
In the same S5000T storage system, you cannot set multiple hot spare
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 95
The following hardware instead of using the FC protocol to communicate is:
A. iSCSI card
B. FC drives
C. FC switch
D. FC HBA card
70-488 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 96
Which of the following operating systems are Linux system? (Choose three)
A. WSS
B. SLES
C. RHEL
D. CentOS
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 97
RAID5 disk utilization levels of RAID group (N: number of member disks):
A. N / (N-1)
B. 100%
C. (N-1) / N
D. 1 / (2N)
70-488 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 98
SAN storage system power down operations require strict accordance with the instructions, the
power-up sequence is generally: hard disk storage box – storage control box – switch – server ;
under the power-up sequence is generally: Confirm hosting business stop – next server power –
switch power off – the control box under the power – the hard frame power ;
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 99
If the S2600 is full with 12 hard drives, it is recommended to configure several RAID group
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
70-488 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 100
The old version has been installed on the application server UltraPath for Windows; a new version
of UltraPath for Windows can perform an upgrade installation directly
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 101
Direct Connect networking advantages S5000T description right there () (Choose two)
A. Network build low cost;
B. Proprietary data channel can ensure maximum throughput applications between servers and
storage devices
C. Not fully utilize the storage capacity of the device is connected
D. Multiple servers to share data on the disk array
70-488 pdf Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 102
Which of the following documents are Open-iSCSI default configuration file:
A. / etc / iscsi / iscsid.conf
B. / etc / iscsi / initiatorname.iscsi
C. / etc / iscsi / send_targets
D. / etc / iscsi / nodes
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 103
T3200/T3500 G2 does not support cascading, networking is very simple, two business
management network port and an Ethernet port to connect to the switch via the network cable.
A. True
B. False
70-488 vce Answer: A

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