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EMC DEA-64T1 exam questions and DEA-64T1 exam dumps

Associate – Converged Systems and Hybrid Cloud Version 1.0

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EMC DEA-64T1 practice test questions for free (q1-q10)

QUESTION 1
An organization has a need to provide additional infrastructure resources at various times throughout the year. But they
do not want to use these additional resources unless they are needed. The organization is considering a cloud
deployment.
What cloud characteristic directly addresses this need?
A. Rapid Elasticity
B. IaaS
C. On-demand Self-service
D. Hybrid cloud
Correct Answer: A
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 2
What contributes to improved capacity management for converged infrastructure?
A. Upgrade flexibility
B. Software-defined storage
C. ScaleIO software
D. Physical storage array
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
A systems administrator is deploying a new Dell EMC Hyper-Converged Infrastructure appliance. The appliance is
ideally suited for remote office and back-office operations (ROBO). Which VxRail appliance model is it?
A. P Series
B. G Series
C. E Series
D. V Series
Correct Answer: C
Reference: click here
 

QUESTION 4
VxBlock compute servers use which storage access topology to boot the operating system?
A. NAS
B. iSCSI SAN
C. LAN
D. FC SAN
Correct Answer: D
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 5
Which EMC Hyper-Converged system has an architecture based on modular building blocks, enabling deployments to
be scaled linearly from 1 to 32 appliances using customer network switches?
A. VxRack SDDC
B. VxRack FLEX
C. Vision Intelligent System
D. VxRail
Correct Answer: D
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 6
Which cloud deployment model allows a company to rapidly expand capacity while maintaining full control of their
infrastructure?
A. Public cloud
B. IaaS
C. Rapid Elasticity
D. Private cloud
Correct Answer: B
Reference: click here
 

QUESTION 7
What is a goal of applying artificial intelligence (AI) to Workforce Transformation?
A. Make the workforce more self-managing
B. Remove borders in order for the workforce to be selected from across the globe
C. Help the workforce recognize problems and proactively improve customer value
D. Reduce the workforce by replacing employees with robots
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
What is a goal of IT Transformation?
A. IT becomes more of a consultant to the business
B. IT minimizes security risks involved with mobile data
C. IT implements a Software as a Service solution
D. IT manages BigData analytics projects to drive growth
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
What would cause an IT organization to pursue digital disruption?
A. Currently having a flexible organization structure
B. Experiencing stable operational costs
C. Experiencing increasing resource maintenance costs
D. Maintaining current vendor relationships being a priority
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
What is one factor that differentiates Dell EMC Converged Infrastructure (CI) from Dell EMC Hyper-Converged
Infrastructure (HCI)?
A. HCI uses software-defined storage architecture
B. CI uses all-Flash storage devices
C. HCI does not include physical switches
D. CI allows for greater scalability
Correct Answer: A

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EMC DES-2T13 exam questions and DES-2T13 exam dumps

Specialist – Cloud Architect – Cloud Infrastructure Exam

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EMC DES-2T13 practice test questions for free (q1-q10)

QUESTION 1
You are a cloud architect responsible for designing a multiple availability zone configuration for the organization\\’s
geographically dispersed clouds. You must provide the ability for services to survive a failure at the data center or site
level. The
the primary requirement is to provide for automated site recovery.
What is a key consideration for automating the setup, failover, and recovery of services at the remote site?
A. When implementing automated site recovery, you must have automated orchestration of site failback processes
B. The number of storage volumes in the DR site must be identical in number and size to the primary site.
C. The recovery site must have sufficient available capacity to host workloads after a disaster at the primary site.
D. The DR site must contain the same vendor hardware as the primary site.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
As part of the planning process, a cloud architect may use tools to gather data from customer systems. Match each tool
with its associated description.
Select and Place

examprepwebinar des-2t13 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

examprepwebinar des-2t13 exam questions-q2-2

QUESTION 3
An organization wants to provide its developers with the ability to deploy VMs. These VMs have software and libraries
installed that are used to develop applications. Each VM will be configured with the same IP address and will be able to
download application code from a central server. What will be included in the design to support these requirements?
A. VXLANs and an OS firewall
B. VXLANs and virtual firewall appliances
C. VLANs and virtual IDS appliances
D. VSANs and virtual IDS appliances
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What is a deliverable of the cloud design process?
A. Training for IT staff
B. Operational procedures
C. Lower infrastructure costs
D. Reduced time to market
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
During an assessment for an organization\\’s cloud design, a cloud architect discovers that developers will be creating
applications for tenants. The applications will self-scale based on an internal trigger. The architect has included CMP
components in the design that will support this requirement. What else should the cloud architect consider to meet this
requirement?
A. CMP account with elevated privileges exists that can be shared with developers
B. Mechanisms exist for changing the type of consumer resources automatically
C. Mechanisms exist for re-installing CMP components for scaling
D. Sufficient consumer resources exist to support the application elasticity
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Case 1
Refer to the exhibit.

examprepwebinar des-2t13 exam questions-q6

Your company recently negotiated several contracts with new customers to use its proprietary eCommerce system. As a
the result, the customer base has grown rapidly, which has introduced several challenges and requirements.
Business requirements:
Applications need to scale quickly
Metrics and reporting to anticipate business trends and efficient use of resources External customers are looking to
license the eCommerce application Other considerations:
Applications need to be recorded for the public cloud Address security vulnerabilities for customer data in the cloud
Refer to Case 1.
You are designing a transformation from Platform 2.0 to cloud. You review the existing infrastructure and
business requirements. You must define the method to connect the on-premises network directly to the public cloud
provider.
Which technology should you select?
A. KMS
B. IDPS
C. MPLS
D. IPSec VPN
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
An organization wants to have showback capability in their private cloud. Which cloud management platform component
should be included in the cloud design to support this requirement?
A. SSO
B. Service catalog
C. Metering application
D. Monitoring application
Correct Answer: C



Note: IT chargeback is an accounting strategy that applies the costs of IT hardware, software, cloud services, or shared
services to the business unit in which they are used. IT show back is similar to IT chargeback, but the prices are for
informational purposes only and no one is billed.
References: click here


QUESTION 8
In which cloud design lifecycle phase is business value analysis performed?
A. Understand the requirements
B. Plan and design
C. Implementation
D. Validation
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
You are creating a cloud infrastructure design for an organization. You learn that, for compliance reasons, the
organization needs to maintain a separate set of infrastructures for certain deployed services. Which part of the design
will be impacted by this requirement?
A. Number of computing pools
B. Number of service catalogs
C. Over-commitment ratio
D. Service catalog sizing
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
What is the minimum number of nodes supported for an HCI deployment with RAID 5 erasure coding?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Correct Answer: B
Reference: click here 

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EMC DES-5121 exam questions and DES-5121 exam dumps

Specialist – Implementation Engineer – Campus Networking Exam

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EMC DES-5121 practice test questions for free (q1-q10)

QUESTION 1
When configuring a PBR route-map, what are the configurable “SET” options?
A. set ip source, set ip next-hop, and set ip default next-hop
B. set ip next-hop, set ip source, and set ip precedence
C. set ip next-hop, set ip default next-hop, and set ip precedence
D. set ip source, set ip default next-hop and set ip precedence
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Which function does a VRRP backup router perform?
A. Sends keepalive advertisements to the other backup routers
B. Processes and response to ARP requests
C. Forwards packets to the Master with a destination IP of the virtual IP address
D. Receives packets with the virtual MAC address as the destination for other backup routers
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
How does the weighted Queue Scheduler prioritize packets?
A. Scheduler prioritizes weighted queues over any strict queues
B. Weights are calculated based on the number of packets
C. Weights are used to calculate the number of bytes
D. Weight is assigned to each port
Correct Answer: C
Reference: click here

QUESTION 4
Which packet characteristics can policy-based routing be configured to match against?
A. TTL, TCP Port, and L3 Packet Length
B. L3 Packet Length, TTL, and 802.1p Priority
C. TCP Port, L3 Packet Length, and 802.1p Priority
D. TCP Port, TTL, and 802.1p Priority
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Which port security method converts existing dynamically learned MAC addresses on an interface to this mode and not
age out?
A. Static
B. MAC address
C. Sticky
D. Dynamic
Correct Answer: D
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 6
You need to configure OSPF on a DNOS 6 switch and have entered the following:
Switch-1(config)# ip routing Switch-1(config)# interface vlan 20 Switch-1(config-if-vlan20)# ip address 10.1.20.1
255.255.255.0
Switch-1(config)# router ospf Switch-1(config-router)# router-id 10.1.1.1
Based on the information referenced above, what is missing from the configuration?
A. area 0 is missing from the ip routing command
B. ip ospf area 0 is missing from the interface vlan 20 section
C. router ospf is missing the routing instance
D. area 0 is missing from the router-id command
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What is the recommended maximum number of routers, per area, when using OSPF?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 200 D. 255
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
A network administrator is setting up a Class 5 powered device in their network. Which Dell EMC N-Serves switch
model(s) will support this device?
A. N1100P and N2000P
B. N1500P
C. N2000 and N3000P
D. N3000P only
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Refer to the Exhibit.

examprepwebinar DES-5121 exam questions-q9

A network administrator needs to configure the switches to allow traffic to communicate from Host 1 to Host 2. Which
recommended switch port mode should the interconnecting switch ports be configured?
A. Access
B. Trunk
C. VLAN Stacking
D. Hybrid
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
Which switchport mode is recommended for ports on a Dell EMC N-Series switch with IP phones using voice VLAN?
A. Access
B. Active
C. Hybrid
D. General
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Role-based
Exam Code: DP-100
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing a Data Science Solution on Azure

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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
An organization uses Azure Machine Learning service and wants to expand its use of machine learning.
You have the following compute environments. The organization does not want to create another compute
environment.

examprepwebinar dp-100 exam questions-q1

You need to determine which compute environment to use for the following scenarios.
Which compute types should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate compute environments to the correct scenarios.
Each computing environment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between
panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

examprepwebinar dp-100 exam questions-q1-2

Box 1: nb_server Box 2: mlc_cluster With Azure Machine Learning, you can train your model on a variety of resources
or environments, collectively referred to as compute targets. A computing target can be a local machine or a cloud
resource, such as an Azure Machine Learning Compute, Azure HDInsight, or a remote virtual machine.

examprepwebinar dp-100 exam questions-q1-3

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/concept-compute-target
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/how-to-set-up-training-targets

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You are tuning a hyperparameter for an algorithm. The following table shows a data set with different hyperparameter,
training error, and validation errors.

examprepwebinar dp-100 exam questions-q2

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented
in the graphic.
Hot Area:

examprepwebinar dp-100 exam questions-q2-2

Correct Answer:

examprepwebinar dp-100 exam questions-q2-3

Box 1: 4
Choose the one which has lower training and validation error and also the closest match.
Minimize variance (the difference between validation error and train error).
Box 2: 5
Minimize variance (the difference between validation error and train error).
Reference:
https://medium.com/comet-ml/organizing-machine-learning-projects-project-management-guidelines-2d2b85651bbd

QUESTION 3
You need to visually identify whether outliers exist in the Age column and quantify the outliers before the outliers are
removed. Which three Azure Machine Learning Studio modules should you use? Each correct answer presents part of
the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create Scatterplot
B. Summarize Data
C. Clip Values
D. Replace Discrete Values
E. Build Counting Transform
Correct Answer: ABC
B: To have a global view, the summarize data module can be used. Add the module and connect it to the data set that
needs to be visualized.
A: One way to quickly identify Outliers visually is to create scatter plots.
C: The easiest way to treat the outliers in Azure ML is to use the Clip Values module. It can identify and optionally
replace data values that are above or below a specified threshold.
You can use the Clip Values module in Azure Machine Learning Studio, to identify and optionally replace data values
that are above or below a specified threshold. This is useful when you want to remove outliers or replace them with a
mean, a constant, or other substitute value.
References: https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/azuredev/2017/05/27/data-cleansing-tools-in-azure-machine-learning/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/clip-values Question Set 3


QUESTION 4
You have a dataset created for multiclass classification tasks that contains a normalized numerical feature set with
10,000 data points and 150 features.
You use 75 percent of the data points for training and 25 percent for testing. You are using the scikit-learn machine
learning library in Python. You use X to denote the feature set and Y to denote class labels.
You create the following Python data frames:

examprepwebinar dp-100 exam questions-q4

You need to apply the Principal Component Analysis (PCA) method to reduce the dimensionality of the feature set to 10
features in both training and testing sets.
How should you complete the code segment? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

examprepwebinar dp-100 exam questions-q4-2

Box 1: PCA(n_components = 10)
Need to reduce the dimensionality of the feature set to 10 features in both training and testing sets.
Example:
from sklearn.decomposition import PCA
pca = PCA(n_components=2) ;2 dimensions
principalComponents = pca.fit_transform(x)
Box 2: pca
fit_transform(X[, y])fits the model with X and apply the dimensionality reduction on X.
Box 3: transform(x_test)
transform(X) applies dimensionality reduction to X.
References:
https://scikit-learn.org/stable/modules/generated/sklearn.decomposition.PCA.html

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You deploy a model in Azure Container Instance.
You must use the Azure Machine Learning SDK to call the model API.
You need to invoke the deployed model using native SDK classes and methods.
How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer areas.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

examprepwebinar dp-100 exam questions-q5

Box 1: from azureml.core.webservice import Webservice
The following code shows how to use the SDK to update the model, environment, and entry script for a web service to Azure Container Instances:
from azureml.core import Environment
from azureml.core.webservice import Webservice
from azureml.core.model import Model, InferenceConfig
Box 2: predictions = service.run(input_json)
Example: The following code demonstrates sending data to the service:
import json
test_sample = json.dumps({\\’data\\’: [ [1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10], [10, 9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1]
]})
test_sample = bytes(test_sample, encoding=\\’utf8\\’)
prediction = service.run(input_data=test_sample) print(prediction)
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/machine-learning/how-to-deploy-azure-container-instance
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/how-to-troubleshoot-deployment

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You create a model to forecast weather conditions based on historical data.
You need to create a pipeline that runs a processing script to load data from a datastore and pass the processed data to
a machine learning model training script.
Solution: Run the following code:

examprepwebinar dp-100 exam questions-q6

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
The two steps are present: process_step and train_step
Data_input correctly references the data in the data store.
Note:
Data used in pipeline can be produced by one step and consumed in another step by providing a PipelineData object as
an output of one step and an input of one or more subsequent steps.
PipelineData objects are also used when constructing Pipelines to describe step dependencies. To specify that a step
requires the output of another step as input, use a PipelineData object in the constructor of both steps.
For example, the pipeline train step depends on the process_step_output output of the pipeline process step:
from azureml.pipeline.core import Pipeline, PipelineData from azureml.pipeline.steps import PythonScriptStep
datastore = ws.get_default_datastore()
process_step_output = PipelineData(“processed_data”, datastore=datastore) process_step =
PythonScriptStep(script_name=”process.py”, arguments=[“–data_for_train”, process_step_output],
outputs=[process_step_output],
compute_target=aml_compute,
source_directory=process_directory)
train_step = PythonScriptStep(script_name=”train.py”,
arguments=[“–data_for_train”, process_step_output],
inputs=[process_step_output],
compute_target=aml_compute,
source_directory=train_directory)
pipeline = Pipeline(workspace=ws, steps=[process_step, train_step])
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/python/api/azureml-pipeline-core/azureml.pipeline.core.pipelinedata?view=azure-mlpy


QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You are using Azure Machine Learning to train machine learning models. You need to compute the target on which to
remotely run the training script.
You run the following Python code:

examprepwebinar dp-100 exam questions-q7

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

examprepwebinar dp-100 exam questions-q7-2

Correct Answer:

examprepwebinar dp-100 exam questions-q7-3

Box 1: Yes
The compute is created within your workspace region as a resource that can be shared with other users.
Box 2: Yes
It is displayed as a compute cluster.
View compute targets
1.
To see all compute targets for your workspace, use the following steps:
2.
Navigate to Azure Machine Learning studio.
3.
Under Manage, select Compute.
4.
Select tabs at the top to show each type of computing target.

examprepwebinar dp-100 exam questions-q7-4

Box 3: Yes
min_nodes is not specified, so it defaults to 0.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/python/api/azuremlcore/azureml.core.compute.amlcompute.amlcomputeprovisioningconfiguration
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/how-to-create-attach-compute-studio

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
You are performing a classification task in Azure Machine Learning Studio.
You must prepare balanced testing and training samples based on a provided data set.
You need to split the data with a 0.75:0.25 ratio.
Which value should you use for each parameter? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

examprepwebinar dp-100 exam questions-q8

Correct Answer:

examprepwebinar dp-100 exam questions-q8-2

Box 1: Split rows
Use the Split Rows option if you just want to divide the data into two parts. You can specify the percentage of data to put
in each split, but by default, the data is divided 50-50.
You can also randomize the selection of rows in each group, and use stratified sampling. In stratified sampling, you
must select a single column of data for which you want values to be apportioned equally among the two result datasets.
Box 2: 0.75
If you specify a number as a percentage, or if you use a string that contains the “%” character, the value is interpreted
as a percentage. All percentage values must be within the range (0, 100), not including the values 0 and 100.
Box 3: Yes
To ensure splits are balanced.
Box 4: No
If you use the option for a stratified split, the output datasets can be further divided by subgroups, by selecting a strata
column.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/split-data

QUESTION 9
You use the Azure Machine Learning Studio to build a machine learning experiment.
You need to divide data into two distinct datasets.
Which module should you use?
A. Assign Data to Clusters
B. Load Trained Model
C. Partition and Sample
D. Tune Model-Hyperparameters
Correct Answer: C
Partition and Sample with the Stratified split option outputs multiple datasets, partitioned using the rules you specified.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/partition-and-sample

QUESTION 10
You are creating a binary classification by using a two-class logistic regression model.
You need to evaluate the model results for imbalance.
Which evaluation metric should you use?
A. Relative Absolute Error
B. AUC Curve
C. Mean Absolute Error
D. Relative Squared Error
E. Accuracy
F. Root Mean Square Error
Correct Answer: B
One can inspect the true positive rate vs. the false positive rate in the Receiver Operating Characteristic (ROC) curve
and the corresponding Area Under the Curve (AUC) value. The closer this curve is to the upper left corner, the better
the
classifier\\’s performance is (that is maximizing the true positive rate while minimizing the false positive rate). Curves
that are close to the diagonal of the plot, result from classifiers that tend to make predictions that are close to random
guessing.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio/evaluate-model-performance#evaluating-a-binaryclassification-model

QUESTION 11
You are solving a classification task.
You must evaluate your model on a limited data sample by using k-fold cross-validation. You start by configuring a k
parameter as the number of splits.
You need to configure the k parameter for the cross-validation.
Which value should you use?
A. k=0.5
B. k=0.01
C. k=5
D. k=1
Correct Answer: C
Leave One Out (LOO) cross-validation
Setting K = n (the number of observations) yields n-fold and is called leave-one-out cross-validation (LOO), a special
case of the K-fold approach.
LOO CV is sometimes useful but typically doesn\\’t shake up the data enough. The estimates from each fold are highly
correlated and hence their average can have high variance. This is why the usual choice is K=5 or 10. It provides a
good
compromise for the bias-variance tradeoff.

QUESTION 12
You are creating a machine learning model. You have a dataset that contains null rows.
You need to use the Clean Missing Data module in Azure Machine Learning Studio to identify and resolve the null and
missing data in the dataset.
Which parameter should you use?
A. Replace with mean
B. Remove entire column
C. Remove entire row
D. Hot Deck
E. Custom substitution value
F. Replace with mode
Correct Answer: C
Remove entire row: Completely removes any row in the dataset that has one or more missing values. This is useful if
the missing value can be considered randomly missing.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/clean-missing-data

QUESTION 13
You are implementing a machine learning model to predict stock prices.
The model uses a PostgreSQL database and requires GPU processing.
You need to create a virtual machine that is pre-configured with the required tools.
What should you do?
A. Create a Data Science Virtual Machine (DSVM) Windows edition.
B. Create a Geo Al Data Science Virtual Machine (Geo-DSVM) Windows edition.
C. Create a Deep Learning Virtual Machine (DLVM) Linux edition.
D. Create a Deep Learning Virtual Machine (DLVM) Windows edition.
Correct Answer: A
In the DSVM, your training models can use deep learning algorithms on hardware that\\’s based on graphics processing
units (GPUs).
PostgreSQL is available for the following operating systems: Linux (all recent distributions), 64-bit installers available for
macOS (OS X) version 10.6 and newer? Windows (with installers available for 64-bit version; tested on latest versions
and back to Windows 2012 R2.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The Azure Geo AI Data Science VM (Geo-DSVM) delivers geospatial analytics capabilities from Microsoft\\’s Data Science VM. Specifically, this VM extends the AI and data science toolkits in the Data Science VM by adding ESRI\\’s
market-leading ArcGIS Pro Geographic Information System.
C, D: DLVM is a template on top of the DSVM image. In terms of the packages, GPU drivers, etc are all there in the DSVM
image. Mostly it is for convenience during creation where we only allow DLVM to be created on GPU VM instances on
Azure.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/data-science-virtual-machine/overview

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 dumps practice test(questions & answers)

QUESTION 1
An organization is looking to build its second head office another city, which has a history flooding with an average of
two flooding every 100 years. The estimated building cost is $1 million, an the estimated damage due to flooding is half
of the building\\’s cost.
Given this information, which of the following is the SLE?
A. $50,000
B. $250,000
C. $500,000
D. $1,000,000
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a deployment concept that can be used to ensure only the required OS access is exposed to
software applications?
A. Staging environment
B. Sandboxing
C. Secure baseline
D. Trusted OS
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
An attacker captures the encrypted communication between two parties for a week, but is unable to decrypt the
messages. The attacker then compromises the session key during one exchange and successfully compromises a
single message. The attacker plans to use this key to decrypt previously captured and future communications, but is
unable to. This is because the encryption scheme in use adheres to:
A. Asymmetric encryption
B. Out-of-band key exchange
C. Perfect forward secrecy
D. Secure key escrow
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following explains why vendors publish MD5 values when they provide software patches for their
customers to download over the Internet?
A. The recipient can verify integrity of the software patch.
B. The recipient can verify the authenticity of the site used to download the patch.
C. The recipient can request future updates to the software using the published MD5 value.
D. The recipient can successfully activate the new software patch.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
A company recently implemented a new security system. In the course of configuration, the security administrator adds
the following entry:
#Whitelist USB\VID_13FEandPID_4127andREV_0100
Which of the following security technologies is MOST likely being configured?
A. Application whitelisting
B. HIDS
C. Data execution prevention
D. Removable media control
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
In terms of encrypting data, which of the following is BEST described as a way to safeguard password data by adding
random data to it in storage?
A. Using salt
B. Using hash algorithms
C. Implementing elliptical curve
D. Implementing PKI
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
An organization wants to set up a wireless network in the most secure way. Budget is not a major consideration, and the
organization is willing to accept some complexity when clients are connecting. It is also willing to deny wireless
connectivity for clients who cannot be connected in the most secure manner. Which of the following would be the MOST
secure setup that conforms to the organization\\’s requirements?
A. Enable WPA2-PSK for older clients and WPA2-Enterprise for all other clients.
B. Enable WPA2-PSK, disable all other modes, and implement MAC filtering along with port security.
C. Use WPA2-Enterprise with RADIUS and disable pre-shared keys.
D. Use WPA2-PSK with a 24-character complex password and change the password monthly.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
A Chief Information Officer (CIO) has decided it is not cost effective to implement safeguards against a known
vulnerability. Which of the following risk responses does this BEST describe?
A. Transference
B. Avoidance
C. Mitigation
D. Acceptance
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
A datacenter recently experienced a breach. When access was gained, an RF device was used to access an air-gapped
and locked server rack. Which of the following would BEST prevent this type of attack?
A. Faraday cage
B. Smart cards
C. Infrared detection
D. Alarms
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A security administrator needs to address the following audit recommendations for a public-facing SFTP server:
Users should be restricted to upload and download files to their own home directories only. Users should not be allowed
to use interactive shell login. Which of the following configuration parameters should be implemented? (Select TWO).
A. PermitTunnel
B. ChrootDirectory
C. PermitTTY
D. AllowTcpForwarding
E. IgnoreRhosts
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 11
Following the successful response to a data-leakage incident, the incident team lead facilitates an exercise that focuses
on continuous improvement of the organization\\’s incident response capabilities. Which of the following activities has
the incident team lead executed?
A. Lessons learned review
B. Root cause analysis
C. Incident audit
D. Corrective action exercise
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
A systems administrator is attempting to recover from a catastrophic failure in the datacenter. To recover the domain
controller, the systems administrator needs to provide the domain administrator credentials. Which of the following
account types is the systems administrator using?
A. Local account
B. Guest account
C. Service account
D. User account
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Determine the types of attacks below by selecting an option from the dropdown list. Determine the types of Attacks from
right to a specific action.
Select and Place:

examprepwebinar sy0-501 exam questions-q13

Correct Answer:

examprepwebinar sy0-501 exam questions-q13-2

A. Phishing.
B. Whaling.
C. Vishing.
D. Spim.
E. Social engineering.
A: Phishing is the act of sending an email to a user falsely claiming to be an established legitimate enterprise in an
attempt to scam the user into surrendering private information that will be used for identity theft.
Phishing email will direct the user to visit a website where they are asked to update personal information, such as a
password, credit card, social security, or bank account numbers, that the legitimate organization already has. The
website,
however, is bogus and set up only to steal the information the user enters on the page.
B: Whaling is a specific kind of malicious hacking within the more general category of phishing, which involves hunting
for data that can be used by the hacker. In general, phishing efforts are focused on collecting personal data about users.
In
whaling, the targets are high-ranking bankers, executives or others in powerful positions or job titles.
Hackers who engage in whaling often describe these efforts as “reeling in a big fish,” applying a familiar metaphor to the process of scouring technologies for loopholes and opportunities for data theft. Those who are engaged in whaling
may,
for example, hack into specific networks where these powerful individuals work or store sensitive data. They may also
set up keylogging or other malware on a work station associated with one of these executives. There are many ways
that
hackers can pursue whaling, leading C-level or top-level executives in business and government to stay vigilant about
the possibility of cyber threats.
C: Vishing is the act of using the telephone in an attempt to scam the user into surrendering private information that will
be used for identity theft. The scammer usually pretends to be a legitimate business, and fools the victim into thinking
he
or she will profit.
D: SPIM is a term sometimes used to refer to spam over IM (Instant Messaging). It\\’s also called just spam, instant
spam, or IM marketing. No matter what the name, it consists of unwanted messages transmitted through some form of
instant
messaging service, which can include Short Message Service (SMS).
E: Social engineering is a non-technical method of intrusion hackers use that relies heavily on human interaction and
often involves tricking people into breaking normal security procedures. It is one of the greatest threats that
organizations
today encounter.
A social engineer runs what used to be called a “con game.” For example, a person using social engineering to break
into a computer network might try to gain the confidence of an authorized user and get them to reveal information that
compromises the network\\’s security. Social engineers often rely on the natural helpfulness of people as well as on their
weaknesses. They might, for example, call the authorized employee with some kind of urgent problem that requires
immediate network access. Appealing to vanity, appealing to authority, appealing to greed, and old-fashioned
eavesdropping are other typical social engineering techniques.
References:
http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/P/phishing.html
http://www.techopedia.com/definition/28643/whaling
http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/V/vishing.html
http://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/social-engineering

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Latest questions of the Microsoft Role-based MS-100 exam

QUESTION 1
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com that includes a user named User1.
You enable multi-factor authentication for contoso.com and configure the following two fraud alert settings:
Set Allow users to submit fraud alerts: On
Automatically block users who report fraud: On
You need to instruct the users in your organization to use the fraud reporting features correctly.
What should you tell the users to do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

examprepwebinar ms-100 exam questions-q1

QUESTION 2
You need to meet the security requirement for Group1. What should you do?
A. Configure all users to sign in by using multi-factor authentication.
B. Modify the properties of Group1.
C. Assign Group1 a management role.
D. Modify the Password reset properties of the Azure AD tenant.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/concept-sspr-howitworks


QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain and a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant.
The network uses a firewall that contains a list of allowed outbound domains.
You begin to implement directory synchronization.
You discover that the firewall configuration contains only the following domain names in the list of allowed domains:
*.microsoft.com
*.office.com
Directory synchronization fails.
You need to ensure that directory synchronization completes successfully.
What is the best approach to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST
answer.
A. From the firewall, allow the IP address range of the Azure data center for outbound communication.
B. From Azure AD Connect, modify the Customize synchronization options task.
C. Deploy an Azure AD Connect sync server in staging mode.
D. From the firewall, create a list of allowed inbound domains.
E. From the firewall, modify the list of allowed outbound domains.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to prevent phishing email messages from being delivered to your organization.
What should you do?
A. From the Exchange admin center, create an anti-malware policy.
B. From Security and Compliance, create a DLP policy.
C. From Security and Compliance, create a new threat management policy.
D. From the Exchange admin center, create a spam filter policy.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/set-up-anti-phishing-policies

QUESTION 5
Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 tenant.
You suspect that several Office 365 features were recently updated.
You need to view a list of the features that were recently updated in the tenant.
Solution: You use Dashboard in Security and Compliance.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain that is synced to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure
AD) as shown in the following exhibit.

examprepwebinar ms-100 exam questions-q6

An on-premises Active Directory user account named Allan Yoo is synchronized to Azure AD. You view Allan\\’s
account from Microsoft 365 and notice that his username is set to [email protected] For each of the
following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

examprepwebinar ms-100 exam questions-q6-2

Correct Answer:

examprepwebinar ms-100 exam questions-q6-3

QUESTION 7
Your company has offices in several cities and 100,000 users.
The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You purchase Microsoft 365 and plan to deploy several Microsoft 365 services.
You are evaluating the implementation of pass-through authentication and seamless SSO. Azure AD Connect will NOT
be in staging mode.
You need to identify the redundancy limits for the planned implementation.
What should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

examprepwebinar ms-100 exam questions-q7

QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to implement Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) for all the supported devices enrolled
devices enrolled on mobile device management (MDM).
What should you include in the device configuration profile? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

examprepwebinar ms-100 exam questions-q8

Correct Answer:

examprepwebinar ms-100 exam questions-q8-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/advanced-threat-protection


QUESTION 9
Your company has 10 offices.
The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 500 client computers.
Each office is configured as a separate subnet.
You discover that one of the offices has the following:
Computers that have several preinstalled applications
Computers that use nonstandard computer names
Computers that have Windows 10 preinstalled
Computers that are in a workgroup
You must configure the computers to meet the following corporate requirements:
All the computers must be joined to the domain.
All the computers must have computer names that use a prefix of CONTOSO.
All the computers must only have approved corporate applications installed.
You need to recommend a solution to redeploy the computers. The solution must minimize the deployment time.
A. a provisioning package
B. wipe and load refresh
C. Windows Autopilot
D. an in-place upgrade
Correct Answer: A
By using a Provisioning, IT administrators can create a self-contained package that contains all of the configuration,
settings, and apps that need to be applied to a device. Incorrect Answers:
C: With Windows Autopilot the user can set up pre-configure devices without the need consult their IT administrator.
D: Use the In-Place Upgrade option when you want to keep all (or at least most) existing applications.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-10-deployment-scenarios
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-autopilot/windows-autopilot

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 tenant.
You suspect that several Office 365 features were recently updated.
You need to view a list of the features that were recently updated in the tenant.
Solution: You use Monitoring and reports from the Compliance admin center.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You need to assign User2 the required roles to meet the security requirements.
Solution: From the Office 365 admin center, you assign User2 the Security Administrator role. From the Exchange
admin center, you add User2 to the View-Only Organization Management role.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You have a Microsoft 365 Enterprise subscription.
You have a conditional access policy to force multi-factor authentication when accessing Microsoft SharePoint from a
mobile device.
You need to view which users authenticated by using multi-factor authentication.
What should you do?
A. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, view the Security and Compliance reports.
B. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, view the user sign-ins.
C. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, view the Usage reports.
D. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, view the audit logs.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-reporting

QUESTION 13
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com. An external user has a
Microsoft account that uses an email address of [email protected]
An administrator named Admin1 attempts to create a user account for the external user and receives the error message
shown in the following exhibit.

examprepwebinar ms-100 exam questions-q13

You need to ensure that Admin1 can add the user.
What should you do from the Azure Active Directory admin center?
A. Add a custom domain name named outlook.com.
B. Modify the Authentication methods.
C. Modify the External collaboration settings.
D. Assign Admin1 the Security administrator role.
Correct Answer: C

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Veritas NetBackup VCS-278 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following can you not do with Logging Assistant?
A. Setup debugging logging
B. Collect logs
C. View log contents
D. Disable debug logging
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Which characteristic applies to a catalog backup?
A. Catalog staging files deleted after a successful catalog backup.
B. A catalog backup can be configured to send disaster recovery information to an e-mail address.
C. A catalog backup must fit on a single tape.
D. A catalog backup shuts down the NetBackup database.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which backup storage is unsupported with media server load balancing?
A. BasicDisk
B. Media Server Deduplication Pool
C. AdvancedDisk
D. Media Manager storage
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Backups to a storage device fail with the following error message:
Disk storage server is down (2106)
The storage server is an OpenStorage (OST) host, and the master server and media server are both acting as media servers under Credentials > Storage Servers in the NetBackup Administration Console. The disk pool is in an Up state
and
the storage server is in a Down state. Troubleshooting confirmed the OST plug-ins on the servers are mismatched.
Which command should an administrator use to check the plug-in version installed on the servers?
A. bpgetconfig
B. nbemmcmd
C. nbdevquery
D. bpstsinfo
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which statement is true about client-side deduplication?
A. It forces the media server to perform the fingerprinting thereby reducing the processing work for the client.
B. It may significantly reduce the bandwidth used by backups between the client and media server.
C. It requires an additional license for each client.
D. It is not a recommended option.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which storage unit group selection causes NetBackup to choose the least recently selected storage unit in the list as
each new job is started?
A. Prioritized
B. Failover
C. Round Robin
D. Media Server Load Balancing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
NetBackup has frozen some of the tapes added to the robot.
Which log must be enabled to determine why the tapes were frozen?
A. ltid
B. robots
C. bptm
D. vmd
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which action is performed by the NetBackup deduplication plug-in?
A. writing data segments into the MSDP containers.
B. processing MSDP transaction logs.
C. performing file fingerprinting actions.
D. performing queue processing.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
An administrator needs to store secure tape copies of protected data to an offsite location.
How can the administrator automatically eject tape media daily and create detailed reports?
A. encrypt the tapes using software encryption and use a storage lifecycle policy to perform automatic ejects and create
reports.
B. enable the encryption attribute on the vault policy to perform automated ejects and create reports.
C. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a vault policy to perform automated ejects and create
reports.
D. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a storage lifecycle policy to perform automated ejects and
create reports.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
A backup policy uses a Full backup schedule with a schedule type of Frequency: 1 day. The start window for the
schedule is configured as shown in the exhibit:

examprepwebinar VCS-278 exam questions-q10

The administrator runs a manual backup at 10:00 on Thursday.
When will the next backup run, if all prior backups completed successfully?
A. Friday at 2:00
B. Friday at 10:00
C. Monday at 2:00
D. Monday at 1:00
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which statement is false about NetBackup deduplication?
A. Deduplication can be performed at the disk block level.
B. Fingerprinting of data can be performed on the server side as well as the client side.
C. Deduplication uses a capacity-based license.
D. Media server deduplication has only been available since NetBackup 7.0.
Correct Answer: A
Deduplication can be performed at the file and sub-file or segment level.
QUESTION 12
An administrator has created a new policy to back up Windows clients, and has created a single automatic schedule. On
the scheduled date, the administrator notices that the backup job fails to launch automatically as expected. Which
debug log file should the administrator view to determine why the backup job failed to launch?
A. nbpem
B. nbjm
C. nbrb
D. nbemm
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What happens if the “Maximum data streams” property is enabled in the General tab of Client Attributes for a particular
client?
A. NetBackup ignores “Maximum concurrent jobs” per storage unit and uses either “Limit jobs per policy” or “Maximum
data streams”, whichever is lowest.
B. NetBackup ignores “Maximum jobs per client” and uses either “Maximum data streams” or “Limit jobs per policy”,
whichever is lowest.
C. NetBackup ignores “Maximum concurrent jobs” per storage unit and uses “Maximum jobs per client” or the “Limit
jobs per policy”, whichever is lowest.
D. NetBackup ignores “Limit jobs per policy” and uses either “Maximum data streams” or “Maximum jobs per client”,
whichever is lowest.
Correct Answer: B

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Veritas InfoScale VCS-256 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
The exhibit shows an N-to-1 cluster configuration, in which nodes are connected to storage devices via dual-hosted
SCSI cables.
Why is this an inefficient configuration?

examprepwebinar VCS-256 exam questions-q1

A. Storage should be shared by more than two nodes, obtaining a N+1 cluster configuration.
B. Clusters should have at most two nodes.
C. NAS is preferred over SAN for shared storage.
D. NFS is the preferred way to share storage within a cluster.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which requirement must an administrator meet prior to implementing an InfoScale Availability cluster that includes both
physical and virtual machines?
A. ensure all systems in the cluster have access to virtualized storage devices
B. ensure shared storage supports SCSI3 persistent reservations
C. ensure shared storage supports multi-pathing
D. ensure the systems in the SystemList for a service group have access to the same shared storage devices
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An administrator wants to make a new application highly available.
Which two capabilities must the application have to be managed be Veritas Cluster Server? (Select two.)
A. the ability to monitor each instance of the application independently.
B. the ability to be installed on shared storage
C. the ability to determine if the application is running
D. the ability to notify the administrator of the application\\’s state
E. the ability to disconnect users from the application
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Due to a high security risk, a mandatory shutdown of Ethernet switches is scheduled in a data center where the
switches are used for two private heartbeat links on a local cluster. A low-priority heartbeat link, which has been
configured over a public interface, is unaffected by the shutdown. I/O fencing is disabled.
Which cluster behavior is expected when the private switches are both shut down for the upgrade?
A. All nodes in the cluster panic.
B. The cluster remains online, but the service groups go offline.
C. Private cluster communications are rerouted over the public network.
D. The service groups go into ADMIN-WAIT state.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which two capabilities can an administrator use to ensure availability within Docker Containers? (Select two.)
A. provide HA to the application within the container for failover and app restart
B. provide provisioning of a new container when an application within the container fails
C. first restart the application within the container and if continued app failures then provision a new container
D. provide HA to the container and move it between cluster nodes
E. provide provisioning of a new container when a container fails
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Which behavior can be specified using the PreferredFencingPolicy attribute?
A. The fencing driver gives preference to high-capacity networks.
B. The fencing driver gives preference to high-capacity systems.
C. The fencing driver gives preference to Oracle type resources.
D. The fencing driver gives preference to disk groups with solid state devices.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
Which service group dependency type supports two applications being online on any system in the cluster?
A. parallel
B. global
C. local
D. remote
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://sort.veritas.com/public/documents/sf/5.1/aix/html/vcs_admin/ch_vcs_group_dependencies3.html


QUESTION 8
Where is the sysoffline trigger executed if a node goes into a jeopardy state or leaves the cluster?
A. on all nodes in the cluster regardless of state
B. on the node that goes offline by entering a jeopardy state or leaving the cluster
C. on all the nodes in the cluster that are still in a RUNNING state
D. on the lowest numbered system in the cluster with a RUNNING state
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://vox.veritas.com/t5/Articles/Cheat-sheet-VCS-Event-Triggers/ta-p/809426

QUESTION 9
An administrator is bringing a service group online. One of the resources is remaining offline, and is shown in waiting to go online state. Which command should the administrator run to stop Veritas Cluster Server from attempting to bring the
resource online to troubleshoot the issue?
A. hares -clear
B. hares -offline
C. hagrp -offline
D. hagrp -flush
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
How many servers are seeded in the GAB port membership?
GAB status and membership notation

examprepwebinar VCS-256 exam questions-q10

A. the GAB port membership has two nodes: 01 and 12
B. the GAB port membership has three nodes: 0,1, and 12
C. the GAB port membership has two nodes: 0 and 1
D. the GAB port membership has four nodes: 0,1,21, and 22
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
An administrator is evaluating the suitability of an application to be clustered using Veritas InfoScale Availability. Which
condition prevents the application from being made highly available?
A. The application requires the use of solid state drives for performance.
B. The application requires multiple systems accessing shared data simultaneously.
C. The application has a dependency on the host name of the system on which it is running.
D. After a crash, the automated clean-up takes at least one minute before the application can be restarted.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
What does it mean when a cluster node is in the REMOTE_BUILD state?
A. The in-memory cluster configuration is being built by copying the in –memory configuration from another running
cluster node.
B. The node is building the in-memory cluster configuration from the primary main.cf file on a remote node.
C. The in-memory configuration on the node is being updated to reflect configuration changes being made on a remote
node.
D. It is the last node to join the cluster and must wait to build the in-memory configuration until all other nodes have their
in-memory configuration.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which action should the administrator perform to ensure the coordination point (CP) service is highly available when
adding a CP server into a Veritas Cluster Server environment?
A. configure multiple CP server instances on the same node
B. configure the CP server as a resource in a Veritas cluster
C. configure the CP server over iSCSI
D. ensure the CP server is on a reliable network
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
What are some of the shortcomings in using letters regulatory? Choose 3 answers
A. They can be time-consuming
B. They are based on a pre-existing mutual treaty between the countries
C. They are usually restricted to obtainingevidence that can be used for prosecution and other judicial proceedings
D. They must be approved in advance by the countries judicial authorities
Correct Answer: ABD


QUESTION 2
What kind of person should perform the independent testing of an institution\\’s anti-money laundering program?
A. A certified specialist in the anti-money laundering field
B. A former anti-money laundering officer from a similar institution
C. A person who reports directly to the Board of Directors or a Board Committee
D. A retired government regulator or federal law enforcement officer
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
During a law enforcement investigative interview regarding potential money laundering, the suspect starts making
assertions and statements that the investigator believes are false.
How should the investigator respond?
A. Inform the suspect that deception is obvious and continue the interview
B. Advise the suspect that the interview will be terminated if there is suspicion of deception
C. Direct the interview in another direction until there is better rapport before returning back to the troubling questions
D. Ask questions of a material nature about the suspected false statements without revealing the suspected deception
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
According to the Financial Action Task Force 40 Recommendations, Designated Non-Financial Businesses and
Professionals include which entities?
A. Commodities traders
B. Money services businesses
C. Hawala operators
D. Real estate agents
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What should an effective anti-money laundering training program include?
A. Computer-based modules titles differently for each job description in the bank
B. Random testing of employees to ensure proper understanding ofpolicies
C. Real-life money laundering examples
D. Lists of anti-money laundering regulations
Correct Answer: C

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Latest PMI Capm exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the
project management plan?
A. Corrective action
B. Defect repair
C. Preventative action
D. Probable action
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?
A. Project Scope Management
B. Project Time Management
C. Project Communications Management
D. Project Quality Management
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
One of the outputs of the project schedule is a detailed plan. What is the main purpose of that detailed plan?
A. It represents how and when the project will deliver the products, services, and results defined in the project scope
B. It creates a formal record of the project and shows the organizational commitment to the project
C. It describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated
D. It provides the needs of a stakeholders or stakeholder group
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the
plan. This describes:
A. scope creep.
B. a change request.
C. work performance information.
D. deliverables.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000
EV = $40,000
A. 1
B. 0.4
C. 0.5
D. 0.8
Correct Answer: D

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Latest Isaca Cism exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
An information security manager is recommending an investment in a new security initiative to address recently
published threats. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in the business case?
A. Business impact if threats materialize
B. Availability of unused funds in the security budget
C. Threat information from reputable sources
D. Alignment of the new initiative with the approved business strategy
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Effective IT governance is BEST ensured by:
A. utilizing a bottom-up approach.
B. management by the IT department.
C. referring the matter to the organization\\’s legal department.
D. utilizing a top-down approach.
Correct Answer: D
Effective IT governance needs to be a top-down initiative, with the board and executive management setting clear
policies, goals and objectives and providing for ongoing monitoring of the same. Focus on the regulatory issues and
management priorities may not be reflected effectively by a bottom-up approach. IT governance affects the entire
organization and is not a matter concerning only the management of IT. The legal department is part of the overall
governance process, but cannot take full responsibility.

QUESTION 3
Which of the following activities should take place FIRST when a security patch for Internet software is received from a
vendor?
A. The patch should be validated a hash algorithm.
B. The patch should be applied to critical systems.
C. The patch should be deployed quickly to systems that are vulnerable.
D. The patch should be evaluated in a testing environment.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is the MOST effective solution for preventing individuals external to the organization from
modifying sensitive information on a corporate database?
A. Screened subnets
B. Information classification policies and procedures
C. Role-based access controls
D. Intrusion detection system (IDS)
Correct Answer: A
Screened subnets are demilitarized zones (DMZs) and are oriented toward preventing attacks on an internal network by
external users. The policies and procedures to classify information will ultimately result in better protection but they will
not prevent actual modification. Role-based access controls would help ensure that users only had access to files and
systems appropriate for their job role. Intrusion detection systems (IDS) are useful to detect invalid attempts but they will
not prevent attempts.


QUESTION 5
Which of the following should be the MOST important criteria when defining data retention policies?
A. Capacity requirements
B. Audit findings
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Industry best practices
Correct Answer: C

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Latest ISC certification Cissp exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What principle focuses on the uniqueness of separate objects that must be joined together to perform a task? It is
sometimes referred to as “what each must bring” and joined together when getting access or decrypting a file. Each of
which does not reveal the other?
A. Dual control
B. Separation of duties
C. Split knowledge
D. Need to know
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Split knowledge involves encryption keys being separated into two components, each of which does not
reveal the other. Split knowledge is the other complementary access control principle to dual control.
In cryptographic terms, one could say dual control and split knowledge are properly implemented if no one person has
access to or knowledge of the content of the complete cryptographic key being protected by the two rocesses.
The sound implementation of dual control and split knowledge in a cryptographic environment necessarily means that
the quickest way to break the key would be through the best attack known for the algorithm of that key. The principles
of
dual control and split knowledge primarily apply to access to plaintext keys. Access to cryptographic keys used for
encrypting and decrypting data or access to keys that are encrypted under a master key (which may or may not be
maintained under dual control and split knowledge) do not require dual control and split knowledge. Dual control and
split knowledge can be summed up as the determination of any part of a key being protected must require the collusion
between two or more persons with each supplying unique cryptographic materials that must be joined together to
access the protected key.
Any feasible method to violate the axiom means that the principles of dual control and split knowledge are not being
upheld.
Split knowledge is the unique “what each must bring” and joined together when implementing dual control. To illustrate,
a box containing petty cash is secured by one combination lock and one keyed lock. One employee is given the
combination to the combo lock and another employee has possession of the correct key to the keyed lock.
In order to get the cash out of the box both employees must be present at the cash box at the same time. One cannot
open the box without the other. This is the aspect of dual control.
On the other hand, split knowledge is exemplified here by the different objects (the combination to the combo lock and
the correct physical key), both of which are unique and necessary, that each brings to the meeting. Split knowledge
focuses on the uniqueness of separate objects that must be joined together.
Dual control has to do with forcing the collusion of at least two or more persons to combine their split knowledge to gain
access to an asset. Both split knowledge and dual control complement each other and are necessary functions that
implement the segregation of duties in high integrity cryptographic environments.
The following are incorrect answers:
Dual control is a procedure that uses two or more entities (usually persons) operating in concert to protect a system
resource, such that no single entity acting alone can access that resource. Dual control is implemented as a security
procedure that requires two or more persons to come together and collude to complete a process. In a cryptographic
system the two (or more) persons would each supply a unique key, that when taken together, performs a cryptographic
process. Split knowledge is the other complementary access control principle to dual control.
Separation of duties – The practice of dividing the steps in a system function among different individuals, so as to keep a
single individual from subverting the process.
The need-to-know principle requires a user having necessity for access to, knowledge of, or possession of specific
information required to perform official tasks or services.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Schneiter, Andrew (2013-04-15). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition :
Cryptography (Kindle Locations 1621-1635). . Kindle Edition.
and
Schneiter, Andrew (2013-04-15). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition :
Cryptography (Kindle Locations 1643-1650). . Kindle Edition.
and
Shon Harris, CISSP All In One (AIO), 6th Edition , page 126

QUESTION 2
The hashing algorithm in the Digital Signature Standard (DSS) generates a message digest of:
A. 130 bit
B. 56 bits
C. 120 bits
D. 160 bits
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What process is used to accomplish high-speed data transfer between a peripheral device and computer memory,
bypassing the Central Processing Unit (CPU)?
A. Direct memory access
B. Interrupt processing
C. Transfer under program control
D. Direct access control
Correct Answer: A
With DMA, a DMAcontroller essentially takes control of the memory busses and manages the data transfer directly.
Answer interrupt processing involves an external signal interrupting the normal CPU program flow. This interrupt causes
the CPU to halt processing and jump to another program that services the interrupt. When the interrupt has been
serviced, the CPU returns to continue executing the original program. Program control transfer, answer c, is
accomplished by the processor executing input/output (I/O) instructions. Answer Direct access control is a distracter.

QUESTION 4
Which of the following entails identification of data and links to business processes, applications, and data stores as well
as assignment of ownership responsibilities?
A. Security governance
B. Risk management
C. Security portfolio management
D. Risk assessment
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is commonly used for retrofitting multilevel security to a database management system?
A. trusted front-end.
B. trusted back-end.
C. controller.
D. kernel.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: If you are “retrofitting” that means you are adding to an existing database management system (DBMS).
You could go back and redesign the entire DBMS but the cost of that could be expensive and there is no telling what
the
effect will be on existing applications, but that is redesigning and the question states retrofitting. The most cost effective
way with the least effect on existing applications while adding a layer of security on top is through a trusted front-end.
Clark-Wilson is a synonym of that model as well. It was used to add more granular control or control to database that did
not provide appropriate controls or no controls at all. It is one of the most popular model today. Any dynamic website with a back-end database is an example of this today.
Such a model would also introduce separation of duties by allowing the subject only specific rights on the objects they
need to access.
The following answers are incorrect:
trusted back-end. Is incorrect because a trusted back-end would be the database management system (DBMS). Since
the question stated “retrofitting” that eliminates this answer.
controller. Is incorrect because this is a distractor and has nothing to do with “retrofitting”. kernel. Is incorrect because
this is a distractor and has nothing to do with “retrofitting”. A security kernel would provide protection to devices and
processes but would be inefficient in protecting rows or columns in a table.

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Latest APICS Cscp exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
JIT uses what method to move items through the system?
A. push
B. pull
C. backward scheduling
D. forward scheduling
E. available to promise
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
A remanufacturer of equipment is most likely to have what type of supply chain?
A. Modular logistics
B. Reverse logistics
C. Mixed model
D. Lateral
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which of the following planning systems examine both independent and dependent demand items:
A. DRP
II. MPS
III. MRP
B. I
C. II C. III
D. I and II
E. II and III
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A company that is having difficulties prioritizing resources against a long list of improvement projects should use which
of the following processes?
A. Control chart
B. Competitive benchmarking
C. Pareto analysis
D. Six Sigma
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
All of the following are pillars of supply chain excellence, EXCEPT:
A. human resources
B. organizational design
C. information technology
D. financial performance
E. organizational measurement
Correct Answer: D

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Latest NACVA certification Cva exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
There is an additional ____________ valuation rule, which requires that the appraiser determine whether any of the
extraordinary payment rights, if exercised in conjunction with any qualified distribution rights, would lower the total value
of the preferred security.
A. Lower of
B. Separate Command
C. Mandatory redemption rights
D. Lower in
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
The capital asset pricing model is part of a larger body of economic theory known as capital market theory. Capital
market theory also includes:
A. Security analysis
B. Portfolio management theory
C. A normative theory
D. Systematic theory
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 3
The sales comparison approach is based on the economic principles of:
A. Efficient markets
B. Special financing and other terms regarding each sales transactions
C. Age of each property
D. Supply and demand
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
There is a general consensus among appraisers that there is little or no difference in controlling interest market values
between S corporations and C corporations under most circumstances, and that any difference depends on:
A. Finding a seller that there may be differences in value at the shareholder level for noncontrolling interests.
B. Finding a buyer that there may be differences in value at the shareholder level for noncontrolling interests.
C. Finding a dealer that there may be differences in value at the shareholder level for non- controlling interests.
D. Finding a broker that there may be differences in value at the shareholder level for non- controlling interests.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
The rate of interest that, when applied to the expected future payments equal to the debt security\\’s observed market
price is called the:
A. Yield to maturity
B. Return on investment
C. Market interest
D. Interest earning
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6

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16.Your NetBackup environment will consist of four media servers and a robot with
two tape drives. The media servers and the robot are SAN attaches. Each media
servers also functions as a large file server on the network.
Which three goals will be addressed by implementing the Shared Storage Option in
this environment? (Choose three)
A. minimized network traffic during the backup window
B. high performance on the four local media server backups
C. high performance on remote(network) client backups
D. improved tape drive usage among media servers.
E. improved performance data collection for backups
070-410 exam Answer: A,B,D
17.Your environment uses a SAN for disk access.
Which feature of NetBackup 5.0 Advanced Client is appropriate?

A. fast backups
B. off-host backups
C. referential backups D.
incremental backups
Answer: B
18.You are in the process of disaster recovery planning. Your focus is on the
recovery of IT systems. In your evaluation of the environment you must collect
data regarding the physical locations.
Which list contains the main categories of disasters?
A. logical (hardware-related)
logical (software-related)
environmental
B. management failures
Logical (software-related)
environmental
C. SPDFA logical(software
related) environmental(software
related) D. hardware failure
logical(software-related)
environmental
070-410 dumps Answer: D
19.You are encountering problems with host names and network connections. You have
already verified that the correct client and server host names are configured in
NetBackup.
Which commands do you use to verify name resolution on UNIX and Windows clients?
A. bpexpdate
B. bpclntcmd
C. bptest
D. bpverify
Answer: B
20.Your NetBackup environment will consist of two media servers (Server A and Server B)
and a robot with four tape drives. Each media server also functions as a large files server
on the network.
Which design best uses the available hardware?
A. configures Server A as the robot control host, configure the four drives on ServerB
B. configure Server A as the robot control host, configure two drives on each media

server
C. configures both media servers as the robot control hosts, configure the four drives on
ServerA
D. configure both media servers as the robot control hosts, configure two drives on each
media server
070-410 pdf Answer: B

21.This standard addresses restricting physical access to electronic PHI data through interface devices to
authorized users:
A. Facility Security Plan
B. Person or Entity Authentication

C. Workstation Security
D. Contingency Plan
E. Access Control
Answer: C
22.An addressable Implementation Specification of Facility Access Controls is:
A. Unauthorized Access
B. Security Configurations
C. Accountability
D. Maintenance Records
E. Media Disposal
070-410 vce Answer: D
23.This HIPAA security category covers the use of locks, keys and administrative measures used to
control access to computer systems:
A. Technical Safeguards
B. Technical Services
C. Physical Security Policy
D. Administrative Safeguards
E. Physical Safeguards
Answer: E
24.Media Re-use is a required implementation specification associated with which security standard?
A. Facility Access Controls
B. Workstation Use
C. Workstation Security
D. Device and Media Controls
E. Access Control
070-410 exam Answer: D
25.This is a standard within Physical Safeguards
A. Contingency Operations
B. Workstation Use
C. Security Incident Management
D. Disaster Recovery E. Disposal
Answer: B
26.How does EnCase verify that the evidence file contains an exact copy of the suspect hard drive? How does
EnCase verify that the evidence file contains an exact copy of the suspect’s hard drive?
A. By means of a CRC value of the suspect hard drive compared to a CRC value of the data stored in the
evidence file.By means of a CRC value of the suspect? hard drive compared to a CRC value of the data
stored in the evidence file.
B. By means of an MD5 hash of the suspect hard drive compared to an MD5 hash of the data stored in the
evidence file.By means of an MD5 hash of the suspect? hard drive compared to an MD5 hash of the data
stored in the evidence file.
C. By means of a CRC value of the evidence file itself.
D. By means of an MD5 hash value of the evidence file itself.
70-410 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
27.By default, EnCase will display the data from the end of a logical file, to the end of the cluster, in what color:
A. Red
B. Red on black
C. Black on red
D. Black
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
28.A SCSI drive is pinned as a master when it is:
A. The only drive on the computer.
B. The primary of two drives connected to one cable.
C. Whenever another drive is on the same cable and is pinned as a slave.
D. A SCSI drive is not pinned as a master.
070-410 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
29.The following GREP expression was typed in exactly as shown. Choose the answer(s) that would result. [^a-z]
Tom[^a-z]
A. Tomato
B. om? ? RP

C. Toms
D. Stomp
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
30.This question addresses the EnCase for Windows search process. If a target word is within a logical file, and it
begins in cluster 10 and ends in cluster 15 (the word is fragmented), the search:
A. Will not find it unlessile slack is checked on the search dialog box.
B. Will find it because EnCase performs a logical search.
C. Will not find it because EnCase performs a physical search only.
D. Will not find it because the letters of the keyword are not contiguous.
070-410 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
31.An evidence file was archived onto five CD-Rom disks with the third file segment on disk number three. Can
the contents of the third file segment be verified by itself while still on the CD?
A. No. Archived files are compressed and cannot be verified until un-archived.
B. No. All file segments must be put back together.
C. Yes. Any segment of an evidence file can be verified through re-computing and comparing the CRCs, even
if it is on a CD.
D. No. EnCase cannot verify files on CDs.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
32.The case file should be archived with the evidence files at the termination of a case.
A. True
B. False
070-410 exam Correct Answer:
Explanation
33.A signature analysis has been run on a case. The result “Bad Signature ” means:
A. The file signature is known and does not match a known file header.

B. The file signature is known and the file extension is known.
C. The file signature is known and does not match a known file extension.
D. The file signature is unknown and the file extension is known.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
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Microsoft, Windows Server 2012

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Exam Code:70-417
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Updated: Feb 23, 2017
Q&As: 427
Exam Information: https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-417.html
  Printable PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B2TyWAkDAzwIX090cjRidExIaGs

QQ截图20170302143240

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Share some Microsoft Specialist 70-417 Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed. On Server1, you create and start a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 is configured as shown in the following table.
QQ图片20170302143813
You plan to create a checkpoint of VM1.
You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of disk space used for the checkpoint of VM1.
What should you do before you create the checkpoint?
A. Decrease the Maximum RAM.
B. Convert Disk1.vhd to a dynamically expanding disk.
C. Run the Stop-VM cmdlet.
D. Run the Resize-VHD cmdlet.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
For checkpoints created when the virtual machine is stopped The checkpoint contains the state of the hard
disks only. For checkpoints created when the virtual machine is running The checkpoint contains the state
of the hard disks and the data in memory. Note: A checkpoint saves the state of each virtual hard disk that
is attached to a virtual machine and all of the hard disk’s contents, including application data files. For
virtual machines on Hyper-V and VMware ESX Server hosts, a checkpoint also saves the hardware
configuration information. By creating checkpoints for a virtual machine, you can restore the virtual
machine to a previous state.

QUESTION 2
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
QQ图片20170302143939
You install a network monitoring application on VM2.
You need to ensure that all of the traffic sent to VM3 can be captured on VM2.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: J
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With Hyper-V Virtual Switch port mirroring, you can select the switch ports that are monitored as well as
the switch port that receives copies of all the traffic. And since Port mirroring allows the network traffic of a
virtual machine to be monitored by copying the traffic and forwarding it to another virtual machine that is
configured for monitoring, you should configure port mirroring on VM2.
References:

QUESTION 3
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
QQ图片20170302144101
You plan to schedule a complete backup of Server1 by using Windows Server Backup.
You need to ensure that the state of VM1 is saved before the backup starts.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: I
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Integration Services settings on virtual machines include services such as operating system
shutdown, time synchronization, data exchange, Heartbeat, and Backup (volume snapshot services). This
snapshot will ensure that the state of VM1 is saved prior to backup.
References:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd405549(v=vs.85).aspx Exam Ref 70-410, Installing and
Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create and Configure
virtual machine settings, p. 144

QUESTION 4
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
QQ图片20170302144205
VM3 is used to test applications.
You need to prevent VM3 from synchronizing its clock to Server1.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: I
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Integration Services settings on virtual machines includes services such as operating system shutdown,
time synchronization, data exchange, Heart beat, and Backup (volume snapshot services. Thus you
should disable the time synchronization using Integration Services.
References:

QUESTION 5
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
QQ图片20170302144301
VM2 sends and receives large amounts of data over the network.
You need to ensure that the network traffic of VM2 bypasses the virtual switches of the parent partition.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: K
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Single-root I/O virtualization -capable network adapters can be assigned directly to a virtual machine to
maximize network throughput while minimizing network latency and the CPU overhead required for
processing network traffic.
References:

QUESTION 6
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1.
You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. The imagex.exe command
B. The ocsetup.exe command
C. The setup.exe command
D. The dism.exe command
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The DISM command is called by the Add-WindowsFeature command. Here is the systax for DISM:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /featurename:Server- Gui- Shell /
featurename:Server-Gui-Mgmt
QQ图片20170302144402

QUESTION 7
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You plan to create an image of Server1.
You need to remove the source files for all server roles that are not installed on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. dism.exe
B. servermanagercmd.exe
C. ocsetup.exe
D. imagex.exe
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Dism utility can be used to create and mount an image of Server1.
References:

QUESTION 8
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has following storage
spaces:
Data
Users
Backups
Primordial
You add an additional hard disk to Server1.
You need to identify which storage space contains the new hard disk.
Which storage space contains the new disk?
A. Primordial
B. Data
C. Backups
D. Users
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012.
You create a group Managed Service Account named gservice1.
You need to configure a service named Service1 to run as the gservice1 account.
How should you configure Service1?
A. From a command prompt, run ss.exe and specify the config parameter.
B. From a command prompt, run ss.exe and specify the sdset parameter.
C. From the Services console, configure the General settings.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run Set-Service and specify the -PassThrough parameter.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Services are often run with default settings — for example, a service might be disabled automatically at
startup. You can use the Services snap-in to change the default settings for a service.
* To configure how a service is started using the Windows interface
1. ClickStart , click in theStart Search box, typeservices.msc , and then press ENTER.
2. Optionally, export and save a list of the existing settings. To do this, right-clickServices , selectExport
List , and save the settings list.
3. In the details pane, right-click the service that you want to configure, and then clickProperties .
4. On theGeneral tab, inStartup type , clickAutomatic ,Manual ,Disabled , orAutomatic (Delayed Start) .
5. To specify the user account that the service can use to log on, click theLog On tab, and then do one of
the following:
Etc

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Data1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
Standard.
You need to configure Data1 to run a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter.
You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you perform?
A. An online servicing by using Dism
B. An offline servicing by using Dism
C. An upgrade installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
D. A clean installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There are a couple of ways to install the GUI from the command prompt, although both use the same tool –
DISM (Deployment Image Service Manager). When you are doing it for a single (local) server, the
command is:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /featurename:…
References:
Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter 2: Deploying Servers, p. 44
Exam Ref 70-410: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter 1: Installing and Configuring
Servers, p. 19-22

70-417

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Microsoft, Windows Server 2012

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70-410 Dumps Exam Question Question No:1

You work as an administrator at ABC.com.The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com.ABC.com has a domain controller,named ABC-DC01,which has Windows Server 2012 installed.Another ABC.com domain controller,named ABC-DC02,has Windows Server 2008 R2 installed.You have deployed a server,named ABC-SR15,on ABC.com’s perimeter network.ABC-SR15 is running a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 . You have been instructed to make sure that ABC-SR15 is part of the ABC.com domain. Which of the following actions should you take?

  1. You should consider making use of Set-Computer Windows PowerShell cmdlet on ABC-SR15.
  2. You should consider making use of Get-Computer Windows PowerShell cmdlet on ABC-SR15.
  3. You should consider making use of Test-Computer Windows PowerShell cmdlet on ABC-SR15.
  4. You should consider making use of Add-Computer Windows PowerShell cmdlet on ABC-SR15.

Answer: D

70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 2

You work as an administrator at ABC.com.The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com.All servers in the ABC.com domain,including domain controllers,have Windows Server 2012 installed.You have configured a server, named ABC-SR07,as a VPN server.You are required to configure new firewall rules for workstation connections.You want to achieve this using the least amount of administrative effort.Which of the following actions should you take?

  1. You should consider making use of the Enable-NetFirewallRule cmdlet.
  2. You should consider making use of the New-NetFirewallRule cmdlet.
  3. You should consider making use of dism.exe from the command prompt.
  4. You should consider making use of dsadd.exe from the command prompt.

Answer: B

70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 3

Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains three domains. A group named Group1 is configured as a domain local distribution group in the forest root domain. You plan to grant Group1 read-only access to a shared folder named Share1. Share1 is located in a child domain. You need to ensure that the members of Group1 can access Share1. What should you do first?

A. Convert Group1 to a global distribution group.
B. Convert Group1 to a universal security group.
C. Convert Group1 to a universal distribution group.
D. Convert Group1 to a domain local security group

Answer: B

70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 4

You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You connect three new hard disks to Server1.
You need to create a storage space that contains the three disks. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Provide fault tolerance if a single disk fails.
– Maximize the amount of files that can be stored in the storage space.
What should you create?

A. A simple space
B. A spanned volume
C. A mirrored space
D. A parity space

Answer: D

70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 5

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. You create and enforce the default AppLocker executable rules. Users report that they can no longer execute a legacy application installed in the root of drive C. You need to ensure that the users can execute the legacy application. What should you do?

A. Modify the action of the existing rules.
B. Create a new rule.
C. Add an exception to the existing rules.
D. Delete an existing rule.

Answer: B   200-355 dumps

Explanation:

AppLocker is a feature that advances the functionality of the Software Restriction Policies feature. AppLocker contains new capabilities and extensions that reduce administrative overhead and help administrators control how users can access and use files, such as executable files, scripts, Windows Installer files, and DLLs. By using AppLocker, you can:

Define rules based on file attributes that persist across application updates, such as the publisher name (derived from the digital signature), product name, file name, and file version. You can also create rules based on the file path and hash.

Assign a rule to a security group or an individual user. Create exceptions to rules. For example, you can create a rule that allows all users to run all Windows binaries except the Registry Editor (Regedit.exe). Use audit-only mode to deploy the policy and understand its impact before enforcing it. . Create rules on a staging server, test them, export them to your production environment, and then import them into a Group Policy Object. Simplify creating and managing AppLocker rules by using Windows PowerShell cmdlets for AppLocker. AppLocker default rules AppLocker allows you to generate default rules for each of the rule types.

Executable default rule types:
Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all applications. Allow members of the Everyone group to run applications that are located in the Windows folder. Allow members of the Everyone group to run applications that are located in the Program Filesfolder. Windows Installer default rule types:

Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all Windows Installer files. Allow members of the Everyone group to run digitally signed Windows Installer files. Allow members of the Everyone group to run all Windows Installer files located in the Windows\Installer folder. Script
default rule types:

Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all scripts. Allow members of the Everyone group to run scripts located in the Program Files folder. Allow members of the Everyone group to run scripts located in the Windows folder. DLL default rule types:( this on can affect system performance ) Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all DLLs. Allow members of the Everyone group to run DLLs located in the Program Files folder.

Allow members of the Everyone group to run DLLs located in the Windows folder. You can apply AppLocker rules to individual users or to a group of users. If you apply a rule to a group of users, all users in that group are affected by that rule. If you need to allow a subset of a user group to use an application, you can create a special rule for that subset. For example, the rule “Allow Everyone to run Windows except Registry Editor” allows everyone in the organization to run the Windows operating system, but it does not allow anyone to run Registry Editor. The effect of this rule would prevent users such as Help Desk personnel from running a program that is necessary for their support tasks.

To resolve this problem, create a second rule that applies to the Help Desk user group: “Allow Help Desk to run Registry Editor.” If you create a deny rule that does not allow any users to run Registry Editor, the deny rule will override the second rule that allows the Help Desk user group to run

70-410 dumps

70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 6

Your company has a main office and two branch offices. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. In the main office, you have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is configured to use an IPv4 address only. You need to assign an IPv6 address to Server 1. The IP address must be private and routable. Which IPv6 address should you assign to Server1?

A. fe80:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
B. ff00:3fff:65df:145c:dca8::82a4
C. 2001:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
D. fd00:ab32:14:ad88:ac:58:abc2:4

Answer : D

70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 7

Your company has a remote office that contains 600 client computers on a single subnet. You need to select a subnet mask for the network that will support all of the client computers. The solution must minimize the number of unused addresses. Which subnet mask should you select?

A. 255.255.252.0
B. 255.255.254.0
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.128

Answer : A

70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 8

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 contains a single virtual machine named VM1. You need to ensure that a user named User1 can manage the virtual machine settings of VM1. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to User1. To which group should you add User1?

A. Server Operators
B. Administrators
C. Power Users
D. Hyper-V Administrators

Answer: D

70-410 Dumps Exam Question Question No : 9

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains five domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The contoso.com domain contains two user accounts named Admin1 and Admin2.
You need to ensure that Admin1 and Admin2 can configure hardware and services on all of the member servers in the forest. The solution must minimize the number of privileges granted to Admin1 and Admin2.
Which built-in groups should you use?

A. Administrators local groups
B. Administrators domain local groups
C. Domain Admins global groups
D. Server Operators global groups

Answer: A

70-410 Dumps Exam Question QUESTION NO: 10

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains a user named User1 and a global security group named Group1. You need to modify the SAM account name of Group1. Which cmdlet should you run?

A. Add-AdPrincipalGroupMembership
B. Install-AddsDomainController
C. Install-WindowsFeature
D. Install-AddsDomain
E. Rename-AdObject
F. Set AdAccountControl
G. Set-AdGroup
H. Set-User

Answer: G    70-417

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