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What do you think of 2V0-51.21: What does the Professional VMware Horizon 8. x exam look like?

Exam 2V0-51.21 is also known as Professional VMware Horizon 8. x. The primary purpose of the exam is to verify that individuals are able to install, configure, manage, maintain, and perform basic troubleshooting of VMware Horizon and related solutions, as well as to properly identify and distinguish any required support products and components.

Learning resources(2V0-51.21):

  • VMware Horizon 8: Skills for Virtual Desktop Management
  • VMware Horizon 8: Skills for Virtual Desktop Management – On
  • Demand
  • VMware Horizon 8: Infrastructure Administration
  • VMware Horizon 8: Infrastructure Administration – On Demand
  • VCP Community
  • VMware Customer Connect Learning
  • VMware Press
  • VMware Certification Market Place

Associated Certification:

VCP-DTM 2022

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We highly recommend the Pass4itSure 2V0-51.21 exam dumps. It is a proven, validated, professional VMware Horizon 8. X exam training material to help you achieve VCP-DTM 2022 certification.

Below Are Free 2V0-51.21 Exam Questions

1. Which three options are required to use an instant-clone pool? (Choose three.)

A. VMware vSphere
B. Horizon Intelligence
C. Horizon Composer
D. Horizon Connection Server
E. Horizon Agent
F. High speed Internet Access

Correct Answer: ADE

2. Which Horizon feature provides high availability desktops across datacenters?

A. Cloud Pod Architecture
B. vCenter Linked Mode
C. Instant-Clones
D. Replica Connection Servers

Correct Answer: D

3. Which two built-in apps are supported and automatically added to the profile of a multi-app kiosk profile? (Choose two.)

A. Calculator
B. Microsoft Word
C. Microsoft Edge
D. Camera
E. Sticky Notes

Correct Answer: AE

4. Refer to the exhibit.

Which command is run to produce the output shown in the exhibit?

A. C:\Program Files\VMware\VMware Horizon Agent\DCT\support.bat loglevels
B. C:\Program Files\VMware\VMware Horizon Agent\DCT\support.bat setlogs
C. C:\Program Files\VMware\VMware View\Agent\DCT\support.bat loglevels
D. C:\Program Files\VMware\VMware View\Agent\DCT\support.bat setlogs

Correct Answer: A

5. An administrator wants to provision a new Golden Image but doesn\’t see the VM in the list with golden images. Which could be the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)

A. No snapshot was made after optimizing the golden image.
B. There is more than 1 active snapshot on the golden image.
C. The golden image VM is not configured with a CD-ROM player.
D. The wrong Guest OS Version was selected when creating the golden image.
E. The golden image was not optimized.

Correct Answer: AE

6. A user reports that they are unable to connect to their desktop from the internet using PCoIP, but they are able to connect via BLAST. Which could be the cause of the issue?

A. The firewall is denying port 80 to the Unified Access Gateway.
B. The firewall is denying port 443 to the desktop.
C. The firewall is denying port 4172 to the Unified Access Gateway.
D. The firewall is denying port 3389 to the Desktop.

Correct Answer: C

7. A Horizon administrator is tasked with creating a new pool of desktops with hardware-accelerated graphics with vMotion support. Which graphic acceleration types can the administrator choose to meet the requirement?

A. Virtual Shared Direct 3D
B. Virtual Shared 3D rendering
C. Virtual Dedicated Graphics Acceleration
D. Virtual Shared Pass-through Graphics Acceleration

Correct Answer: C

8. Which two client types have the lowest cost of ownership and are easier to manage deployments, firmware updates, and monitor. (Choose two.)

A. Headless Clients
B. Windows 10 Clients
C. Zero Clients
D. Thin Clients
E. MacOS Clients

Correct Answer: CD

9. Which two methods are available for authentication to a Unified Access Gateway? (Choose two.)

A. Web Services Federation
B. Smart Cards
C. OpenID Connect
D. Open Authentication (OAuth)
E. Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)

Correct Answer: DE

10. Where can an administrator find the VDI machines in the Horizon LDAP?

A. OU=VDI
B. OU=Desktops
C. OU=Servers
D. OU=Machines

Correct Answer: C

11. Which three can be used by a Horizon administrator who wants to provision an application to users\\’ desktops? (Choose three.)

A. VMware App Volumes Application Package
B. VMware Horizon Published Application
C. VMware Thinapp
D. VMware Dynamic Environment Manager
E. VMware App Volumes Writable Volume

Correct Answer: ABD

12. Refer to the exhibit.
When editing an existing instant-clone pool, an administrator cannot find the option to configure the vRAM size in the wizard. Referencing the exhibit, which could be the cause of the issue?

A. Increasing vRAM size is only possible for manual pools.
B. Modifying the vRAM settings is not permitted when selecting VMware Blast as default protocol.
C. Modifying the vRAM settings is not permitted when selecting Manage using vSphere Client.
D. Configuring vRAM size is only permitted during pool creation.

Correct Answer: D

13.Which two Windows Server Operating Systems are supported by VMware Horizon 8? (Choose two.)

A. Windows Server 2019
B. Windows Server 2008 R2
C. Windows Server 2012
D. Windows Server 2003 R2
E. Windows Server 2016

Correct Answer: AE

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EMC DEA-64T1 exam questions and DEA-64T1 exam dumps

Associate – Converged Systems and Hybrid Cloud Version 1.0

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EMC DEA-64T1 practice test questions for free (q1-q10)

QUESTION 1
An organization has a need to provide additional infrastructure resources at various times throughout the year. But they
do not want to use these additional resources unless they are needed. The organization is considering a cloud
deployment.
What cloud characteristic directly addresses this need?
A. Rapid Elasticity
B. IaaS
C. On-demand Self-service
D. Hybrid cloud
Correct Answer: A
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 2
What contributes to improved capacity management for converged infrastructure?
A. Upgrade flexibility
B. Software-defined storage
C. ScaleIO software
D. Physical storage array
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
A systems administrator is deploying a new Dell EMC Hyper-Converged Infrastructure appliance. The appliance is
ideally suited for remote office and back-office operations (ROBO). Which VxRail appliance model is it?
A. P Series
B. G Series
C. E Series
D. V Series
Correct Answer: C
Reference: click here
 

QUESTION 4
VxBlock compute servers use which storage access topology to boot the operating system?
A. NAS
B. iSCSI SAN
C. LAN
D. FC SAN
Correct Answer: D
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 5
Which EMC Hyper-Converged system has an architecture based on modular building blocks, enabling deployments to
be scaled linearly from 1 to 32 appliances using customer network switches?
A. VxRack SDDC
B. VxRack FLEX
C. Vision Intelligent System
D. VxRail
Correct Answer: D
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 6
Which cloud deployment model allows a company to rapidly expand capacity while maintaining full control of their
infrastructure?
A. Public cloud
B. IaaS
C. Rapid Elasticity
D. Private cloud
Correct Answer: B
Reference: click here
 

QUESTION 7
What is a goal of applying artificial intelligence (AI) to Workforce Transformation?
A. Make the workforce more self-managing
B. Remove borders in order for the workforce to be selected from across the globe
C. Help the workforce recognize problems and proactively improve customer value
D. Reduce the workforce by replacing employees with robots
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
What is a goal of IT Transformation?
A. IT becomes more of a consultant to the business
B. IT minimizes security risks involved with mobile data
C. IT implements a Software as a Service solution
D. IT manages BigData analytics projects to drive growth
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
What would cause an IT organization to pursue digital disruption?
A. Currently having a flexible organization structure
B. Experiencing stable operational costs
C. Experiencing increasing resource maintenance costs
D. Maintaining current vendor relationships being a priority
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
What is one factor that differentiates Dell EMC Converged Infrastructure (CI) from Dell EMC Hyper-Converged
Infrastructure (HCI)?
A. HCI uses software-defined storage architecture
B. CI uses all-Flash storage devices
C. HCI does not include physical switches
D. CI allows for greater scalability
Correct Answer: A

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EMC DES-2T13 exam questions and DES-2T13 exam dumps

Specialist – Cloud Architect – Cloud Infrastructure Exam

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EMC DES-2T13 practice test questions for free (q1-q10)

QUESTION 1
You are a cloud architect responsible for designing a multiple availability zone configuration for the organization\\’s
geographically dispersed clouds. You must provide the ability for services to survive a failure at the data center or site
level. The
the primary requirement is to provide for automated site recovery.
What is a key consideration for automating the setup, failover, and recovery of services at the remote site?
A. When implementing automated site recovery, you must have automated orchestration of site failback processes
B. The number of storage volumes in the DR site must be identical in number and size to the primary site.
C. The recovery site must have sufficient available capacity to host workloads after a disaster at the primary site.
D. The DR site must contain the same vendor hardware as the primary site.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
As part of the planning process, a cloud architect may use tools to gather data from customer systems. Match each tool
with its associated description.
Select and Place

examprepwebinar des-2t13 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

examprepwebinar des-2t13 exam questions-q2-2

QUESTION 3
An organization wants to provide its developers with the ability to deploy VMs. These VMs have software and libraries
installed that are used to develop applications. Each VM will be configured with the same IP address and will be able to
download application code from a central server. What will be included in the design to support these requirements?
A. VXLANs and an OS firewall
B. VXLANs and virtual firewall appliances
C. VLANs and virtual IDS appliances
D. VSANs and virtual IDS appliances
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What is a deliverable of the cloud design process?
A. Training for IT staff
B. Operational procedures
C. Lower infrastructure costs
D. Reduced time to market
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
During an assessment for an organization\\’s cloud design, a cloud architect discovers that developers will be creating
applications for tenants. The applications will self-scale based on an internal trigger. The architect has included CMP
components in the design that will support this requirement. What else should the cloud architect consider to meet this
requirement?
A. CMP account with elevated privileges exists that can be shared with developers
B. Mechanisms exist for changing the type of consumer resources automatically
C. Mechanisms exist for re-installing CMP components for scaling
D. Sufficient consumer resources exist to support the application elasticity
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Case 1
Refer to the exhibit.

examprepwebinar des-2t13 exam questions-q6

Your company recently negotiated several contracts with new customers to use its proprietary eCommerce system. As a
the result, the customer base has grown rapidly, which has introduced several challenges and requirements.
Business requirements:
Applications need to scale quickly
Metrics and reporting to anticipate business trends and efficient use of resources External customers are looking to
license the eCommerce application Other considerations:
Applications need to be recorded for the public cloud Address security vulnerabilities for customer data in the cloud
Refer to Case 1.
You are designing a transformation from Platform 2.0 to cloud. You review the existing infrastructure and
business requirements. You must define the method to connect the on-premises network directly to the public cloud
provider.
Which technology should you select?
A. KMS
B. IDPS
C. MPLS
D. IPSec VPN
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
An organization wants to have showback capability in their private cloud. Which cloud management platform component
should be included in the cloud design to support this requirement?
A. SSO
B. Service catalog
C. Metering application
D. Monitoring application
Correct Answer: C



Note: IT chargeback is an accounting strategy that applies the costs of IT hardware, software, cloud services, or shared
services to the business unit in which they are used. IT show back is similar to IT chargeback, but the prices are for
informational purposes only and no one is billed.
References: click here


QUESTION 8
In which cloud design lifecycle phase is business value analysis performed?
A. Understand the requirements
B. Plan and design
C. Implementation
D. Validation
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
You are creating a cloud infrastructure design for an organization. You learn that, for compliance reasons, the
organization needs to maintain a separate set of infrastructures for certain deployed services. Which part of the design
will be impacted by this requirement?
A. Number of computing pools
B. Number of service catalogs
C. Over-commitment ratio
D. Service catalog sizing
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
What is the minimum number of nodes supported for an HCI deployment with RAID 5 erasure coding?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Correct Answer: B
Reference: click here 

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EMC DES-5121 exam questions and DES-5121 exam dumps

Specialist – Implementation Engineer – Campus Networking Exam

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EMC DES-5121 practice test questions for free (q1-q10)

QUESTION 1
When configuring a PBR route-map, what are the configurable “SET” options?
A. set ip source, set ip next-hop, and set ip default next-hop
B. set ip next-hop, set ip source, and set ip precedence
C. set ip next-hop, set ip default next-hop, and set ip precedence
D. set ip source, set ip default next-hop and set ip precedence
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Which function does a VRRP backup router perform?
A. Sends keepalive advertisements to the other backup routers
B. Processes and response to ARP requests
C. Forwards packets to the Master with a destination IP of the virtual IP address
D. Receives packets with the virtual MAC address as the destination for other backup routers
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
How does the weighted Queue Scheduler prioritize packets?
A. Scheduler prioritizes weighted queues over any strict queues
B. Weights are calculated based on the number of packets
C. Weights are used to calculate the number of bytes
D. Weight is assigned to each port
Correct Answer: C
Reference: click here

QUESTION 4
Which packet characteristics can policy-based routing be configured to match against?
A. TTL, TCP Port, and L3 Packet Length
B. L3 Packet Length, TTL, and 802.1p Priority
C. TCP Port, L3 Packet Length, and 802.1p Priority
D. TCP Port, TTL, and 802.1p Priority
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Which port security method converts existing dynamically learned MAC addresses on an interface to this mode and not
age out?
A. Static
B. MAC address
C. Sticky
D. Dynamic
Correct Answer: D
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 6
You need to configure OSPF on a DNOS 6 switch and have entered the following:
Switch-1(config)# ip routing Switch-1(config)# interface vlan 20 Switch-1(config-if-vlan20)# ip address 10.1.20.1
255.255.255.0
Switch-1(config)# router ospf Switch-1(config-router)# router-id 10.1.1.1
Based on the information referenced above, what is missing from the configuration?
A. area 0 is missing from the ip routing command
B. ip ospf area 0 is missing from the interface vlan 20 section
C. router ospf is missing the routing instance
D. area 0 is missing from the router-id command
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What is the recommended maximum number of routers, per area, when using OSPF?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 200 D. 255
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
A network administrator is setting up a Class 5 powered device in their network. Which Dell EMC N-Serves switch
model(s) will support this device?
A. N1100P and N2000P
B. N1500P
C. N2000 and N3000P
D. N3000P only
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Refer to the Exhibit.

examprepwebinar DES-5121 exam questions-q9

A network administrator needs to configure the switches to allow traffic to communicate from Host 1 to Host 2. Which
recommended switch port mode should the interconnecting switch ports be configured?
A. Access
B. Trunk
C. VLAN Stacking
D. Hybrid
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
Which switchport mode is recommended for ports on a Dell EMC N-Series switch with IP phones using voice VLAN?
A. Access
B. Active
C. Hybrid
D. General
Correct Answer: D

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Microsoft, Windows Server 2012

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Exam Code:70-417
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Updated: Feb 23, 2017
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QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed. On Server1, you create and start a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 is configured as shown in the following table.
QQ图片20170302143813
You plan to create a checkpoint of VM1.
You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of disk space used for the checkpoint of VM1.
What should you do before you create the checkpoint?
A. Decrease the Maximum RAM.
B. Convert Disk1.vhd to a dynamically expanding disk.
C. Run the Stop-VM cmdlet.
D. Run the Resize-VHD cmdlet.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
For checkpoints created when the virtual machine is stopped The checkpoint contains the state of the hard
disks only. For checkpoints created when the virtual machine is running The checkpoint contains the state
of the hard disks and the data in memory. Note: A checkpoint saves the state of each virtual hard disk that
is attached to a virtual machine and all of the hard disk’s contents, including application data files. For
virtual machines on Hyper-V and VMware ESX Server hosts, a checkpoint also saves the hardware
configuration information. By creating checkpoints for a virtual machine, you can restore the virtual
machine to a previous state.

QUESTION 2
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
QQ图片20170302143939
You install a network monitoring application on VM2.
You need to ensure that all of the traffic sent to VM3 can be captured on VM2.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: J
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With Hyper-V Virtual Switch port mirroring, you can select the switch ports that are monitored as well as
the switch port that receives copies of all the traffic. And since Port mirroring allows the network traffic of a
virtual machine to be monitored by copying the traffic and forwarding it to another virtual machine that is
configured for monitoring, you should configure port mirroring on VM2.
References:

QUESTION 3
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
QQ图片20170302144101
You plan to schedule a complete backup of Server1 by using Windows Server Backup.
You need to ensure that the state of VM1 is saved before the backup starts.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: I
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Integration Services settings on virtual machines include services such as operating system
shutdown, time synchronization, data exchange, Heartbeat, and Backup (volume snapshot services). This
snapshot will ensure that the state of VM1 is saved prior to backup.
References:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd405549(v=vs.85).aspx Exam Ref 70-410, Installing and
Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create and Configure
virtual machine settings, p. 144

QUESTION 4
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
QQ图片20170302144205
VM3 is used to test applications.
You need to prevent VM3 from synchronizing its clock to Server1.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: I
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Integration Services settings on virtual machines includes services such as operating system shutdown,
time synchronization, data exchange, Heart beat, and Backup (volume snapshot services. Thus you
should disable the time synchronization using Integration Services.
References:

QUESTION 5
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
QQ图片20170302144301
VM2 sends and receives large amounts of data over the network.
You need to ensure that the network traffic of VM2 bypasses the virtual switches of the parent partition.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: K
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Single-root I/O virtualization -capable network adapters can be assigned directly to a virtual machine to
maximize network throughput while minimizing network latency and the CPU overhead required for
processing network traffic.
References:

QUESTION 6
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1.
You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. The imagex.exe command
B. The ocsetup.exe command
C. The setup.exe command
D. The dism.exe command
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The DISM command is called by the Add-WindowsFeature command. Here is the systax for DISM:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /featurename:Server- Gui- Shell /
featurename:Server-Gui-Mgmt
QQ图片20170302144402

QUESTION 7
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You plan to create an image of Server1.
You need to remove the source files for all server roles that are not installed on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. dism.exe
B. servermanagercmd.exe
C. ocsetup.exe
D. imagex.exe
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Dism utility can be used to create and mount an image of Server1.
References:

QUESTION 8
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has following storage
spaces:
Data
Users
Backups
Primordial
You add an additional hard disk to Server1.
You need to identify which storage space contains the new hard disk.
Which storage space contains the new disk?
A. Primordial
B. Data
C. Backups
D. Users
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012.
You create a group Managed Service Account named gservice1.
You need to configure a service named Service1 to run as the gservice1 account.
How should you configure Service1?
A. From a command prompt, run ss.exe and specify the config parameter.
B. From a command prompt, run ss.exe and specify the sdset parameter.
C. From the Services console, configure the General settings.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run Set-Service and specify the -PassThrough parameter.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Services are often run with default settings — for example, a service might be disabled automatically at
startup. You can use the Services snap-in to change the default settings for a service.
* To configure how a service is started using the Windows interface
1. ClickStart , click in theStart Search box, typeservices.msc , and then press ENTER.
2. Optionally, export and save a list of the existing settings. To do this, right-clickServices , selectExport
List , and save the settings list.
3. In the details pane, right-click the service that you want to configure, and then clickProperties .
4. On theGeneral tab, inStartup type , clickAutomatic ,Manual ,Disabled , orAutomatic (Delayed Start) .
5. To specify the user account that the service can use to log on, click theLog On tab, and then do one of
the following:
Etc

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Data1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
Standard.
You need to configure Data1 to run a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter.
You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you perform?
A. An online servicing by using Dism
B. An offline servicing by using Dism
C. An upgrade installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
D. A clean installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There are a couple of ways to install the GUI from the command prompt, although both use the same tool –
DISM (Deployment Image Service Manager). When you are doing it for a single (local) server, the
command is:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /featurename:…
References:
Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter 2: Deploying Servers, p. 44
Exam Ref 70-410: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter 1: Installing and Configuring
Servers, p. 19-22

70-417

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CCNA Data Center, Cisco

Exam Code: 640-916
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
640-916 Latest Dumps Total Q&A: 182 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2017-01-16
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Exam A QUESTION 1
1. By what percentage is the congestion window reduced when the typical TCP congestion avoidance process is engaged due to congestion
A. 100 %
B. 75 %
C. 50 %
D. 12 %
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
2. Which is the correct port type for a Fibre Channel HBA connected to a Fibre Channel hub?
A. NP_Port
B. E_Port
C. N_Port
D. NL_Port

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
3. What is the benefit of a modular data center design?
A. ease of management
B. doesn’t require configuration
C. resilience
D. one size fits all

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
4. What information do bridges and switches use to forward data?
A. destination MAC address
B. destination IP address
C. they send all data to all ports, save port it was received on
D. destination hostname

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
5. What do the following commands accomplish? N100v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N100v-VSM(config-port-prof)# state enabled
A. Pushes the port profile named VMdata to the VMware vcenter server on the Nexus N1000v-VSM
B. Displays the configuration of the port profile named VMdata
C. Resets the port profile named VMdata to default settings
D. Deletes the port profile VMdata

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
6. What interface provides heartbeat messages between the VEM and VSM?
A. packet
B. backplane
C. management
D. control

Correct Answer: D   sy0-401 vce
QUESTION 7
7. Which is not a basic state of an Ethernet interface on a UCS Fabric Interconnect?
A. uplink
B. enabled
C. server
D. unconfigured
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
8. On a Fibre Channel network, what is an example of a control between initiators and targets?
A. ARP
B. zoning
C. Media Access Control
D. Fibre Channel fencing

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
9. Which Nexus 2000-Series Fabric Extender does NOT support connections to both Nexus 5000 Series switches and Nexus 7000 Series Switches
A. Nexus 2248TP
B. Nexus 2232PP
C. Nexus 2248TP-E

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
10. What is the port mapping for a Fibre Channel HBA connected to a MDS Fibre Channel switch?
A. N Port to S Port
B. H Port to S Port
C. N Port to F Port
D. H Port to N Port

Correct Answer: C

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