Microsoft, Windows Server 2012

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QUESTION 13
Your network contains an active directory forest. The forest functional level is Windows server 2012. The forest contains a single domain. The domain contains a member server named Server1 that run windows server 2012. You purchase a network scanner named Scanner1 that supports Web Services on Devices (WDS). You need to share the network scanner on Server1 Which server role should you install on Server1?
A. Web Server (IIS)
B. Fax Server
C. File and Storage Services
D. Print and Document Services
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Print and Document Services enables you to centralize print server and network printer tasks. With this role, you can also receive scanned documents from network scanners and route the documents to a shared network resource, Windows SharePoint Services site, or email addresses. Windows Server 2012 uses Web Services on Devices (WSD) technologies to integrate scanning devices into the system
QUESTION 14
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a child domain named europe.contoso.com. The europe.contoso.com child domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the DHCP Server server role on Server1. You have access to the administrative accounts shown in the following table.

You need to authorize Server1. Which user account should you use?
A. Admin1
B. Admin2
C. Admin3
D. Admin4
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A. Local account can’t be used
B. Authorization needs to happen in contoso.com and must be aEnt Admin C. Authorization needs to happen in contoso.com and must be aEnt Admin D. Correct domain and is a member of Ent Admin’s c9530-404 exam 
QUESTION 15
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has following storage spaces:
-Data
-Users
-Backups
-Primordial
You add an additional hard disk to Server1. You need to identify which storage space contains the new hard disk. Which storage space contains the new disk?
A. Data
B. Primordial
C. Users
D. Backups
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
New Disks (Unallocated space) added to Primordial spacePrimordial Pool? All storage that meets acceptable criteria for Storage Spaces will be placed in the  http://www.microsoft-technet.com/100-valid-download-latest-microsoft-070-410-pdf-exam-free-practice-test-ensure-you-100-pass-from-flydumps.html Primordial Pool. Thiscan be considered the default pool for devices from which any other pools will be created. Notice that there are no other virtual disks or pools
at this point. The Primordial Pool will only consist ofphysical storage devices that do not belong to any other pools.

QUESTION 16
You have a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the File and Storage Services server role installed. You attach four 500-GB disks to Server1. You need to configure the storage to meet the following requirements:
Storage for an application named Application1 must be provided. Application1 requires 20 GB and will require a maximum of 800 GB in three years.
Storage for an application named Application2 must be provided. Application2 requires 20 GB and will require a maximum of 900 GB in three years.
The solution must provide the ability to dynamically add storage without requiring configuration changes to the applications.

The storage must be available if a single disk fails.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. From File and Storage Services, create virtual disks by using fixed provisioning.
B. From File and Storage Services, create a storage pool that uses all four disks.
C. From Disk Management, create two new mirror volumes that use two disks each.
D. From Disk Management, create a new RAID-5 volume that uses all four disks.
E. From File and Storage Services, create virtual disks by using thin provisioning.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A. 2 VHD’s set to fixed size of 800 & 900GB
B. Allows Fault Tolerance
C. No Fault Tolerance MAX when mirroring 2 500GB drives
D. 1500GB MAX App’s require 1700GB MAX
E. Allowing the creation of spaces that are larger than the underlying pool, additional drives can beadded to the pool

QUESTION 17
Your network contains multiple subnets. On one of the subnets, you deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the DNS Server server role on Server1, and then you create a standard primary zone named contoso.com. You need to ensure that client computers can resolve single-label names to IP addresses. What should you do first?
A. Create a reverse lookup zone.
B. Convert the contoso.com zone to an Active Directory-integrated zone.
C. Configure dynamic updates for contoso.com.
D. Create a GlobalNames zone.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
D. use GlobalNames zones in Windows Server 2008 to take advantage of single-label names Providing Single-Label DNS Name Resolution: While Domain Name System (DNS) is the predominant name-resolution technology in TCP/IP networks, Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) is deployed in many networks as an alternative name-resolution protocol. GlobalNames Zone (GNZ) feature: The GNZ feature is designed to enable DNS resolution of these single-label, static, global names. You can deploy a GNZ in a single forest or across multiple forests. GNZ is intended to aid the retirement of WINS. It is not a replacement for WINS. GNZ is not intended to support the single-label name resolution of records that are registered dynamically and therefore not managed by IT administrators. GNZ does make it possible for you to provide single- label name resolution of a fixed set of host computers whose names are guaranteed to be both global and unique.
QUESTION 18
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has six network adapters. Two of the network adapters are connected to a network named LAN1, two of the network adapters are connected to a network named LAN2, and two of the network adapters are connected to a network named LAN3. You create a network adapter team named Team1 from the two adapters connected to LAN1. You create a network adapter team named Team2 from the two adapters connected to LAN2. A company policy states that all server IP addresses must be assigned by using a reserved address in DHCP. You need to identify how many DHCP reservations you must create for Server1. How many reservations should you identify?
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: 2 Adapters = LAN1 = Team1 = 1 IP 2 Adapters = LAN2 = Team2 = 1 IP 2 Adapters = LAN3 = No Team = 2 IP 1 + 1 + 2 = 4

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Microsoft, Microsoft SharePoint Applications

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70-488 Exam
Microsoft 70-488 exam Question 1

You develop a reusable workflow on a development site by using SharePoint Designer. The workflow must be made available to a test site on a different SharePoint environment. You need to deploy and start the workflow on the test site by using Microsoft Visual Studio 2012. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

70-488 exam

Answer: 

70-488 exam

Microsoft 70-488 exam Question 2

A company’s IT department implements a Help Desk Ticketing system that involves workflow development by using SharePoint Designer and InfoPath. The Help Desk Ticket workflow involves multiple steps and tasks that have serial approvals of multiple users and groups with custom task email messages. The Approver accidently rejects a workflow step, and the workflow has stopped. The Approver then corrects the step. You need to continue the workflow to reflect the updated approval. Which activity should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate action from the list of actions in the answer area.)
70-488 exam

Answer: 

70-488 exam

Microsoft 70-488 exam Question 3

You develop a SharePoint app to create an approval workflow for expense reports. The app must collect  user input before starting the workflow. You need to use ASP.NET forms in the workflow. Which form  type should you use?

A. Workflow input form
B. Workflow initiation form
C. Workflow task form
D. Workflow modification form
Answer: B

Microsoft 70-488 exam Question 4

You plan to create a workflow design by using Microsoft Visio 2013 and then import the design into SharePoint Designer 2013. You need to ensure that you have repetition capability. Which shape should you use?

A. Stage
B. Assign a Task
C. Step
D. Loop

Answer: A
70-410 exam Microsoft 70-488 exam Question 5
You plan to create a SharePoint Business Process Automation (BPA) project. You need to process items for approval with the least amount of developer effort. Which tool should you use?A. Remote Event Receiver
B. Out-of-the-box workflow
C. SharePoint Designer workflow
D. Work Item Timer Job
Answer: B
Microsoft 70-488 exam Question 6
You need to create a workflow custom activity to use in a custom action in SharePoint by using  Microsoft Visual Studio 2012. Which five actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the  appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
70-488 exam
Answer:
70-488 exam

Microsoft 70-488 exam Question 7

Contoso uses a SharePoint site that contains subsites. Each subsite represents different projects. Each  project site is based on a team site template and stores information and documents. Contoso has five teams: Manufacturing, Sales, Administration, Marketing, and IT. You must create a different look and feel for each team site such that any visitor to the site can identify the team by looking at the colors, fonts, and background image of the site. You need to create a different look and feel for each team.What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the complete solution. Choose all that  apply.)

A. Open Contoso Corporate Microsoft PowerPoint Slides Template, save the template as ContosoCorporate.master, and then upload it to the Theme Gallery.
B. From SharePoint Designer, go to Content Types. Right-click and select Content Type Settings.
C. Get a site background image for each team and upload it to the site collection images library. Then create a new master page for each team site by using the Master Page Gallery. Set the version to 15.
D. From the Web Designer Galleries, choose Composed Looks and create a new item for each team site. Specify the title, URL of the master page, theme, background image, and font schema file.
E. On the Site Settings page in the Look and Feel section, choose Change the look.
F. Create a new font XML schema with a font specification for each team.

Answer: BCD

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Microsoft

The expert guide to deploying and managing any WebSphere Application 70-410 Server V5.x application and environment
If you¡¯re a WebSphere Application Server administrator or developer, this

is your advanced guide for delivering applications rapidly, running them smoothly, and administering them efficiently. Four leading IBM consultants draw on their years of experience to illuminate the key steps involved in taking WebSphere Application Server applications from development to production. They focus on the areas most crucial to success, including application assembly and build, application and infrastructure configuration and administration, and application testing and verification. Along the way, they show how to implement automated deployment processes that can be executed frequently, reliably, and quicklyso you can get your applications to market fast. The focus is on WebSphere Application Server Version 5.1, but much of the information applies to other versions.
Coverage includes

Installing, testing, and managing WebSphere Application Server environments: clustering, security, messaging, integration, and more

Deploying and managing key J2EE technologies: JDBC, Connectors, EJB, container managed and message driven beans, transactions, JMS, JavaMail, and more

Deploying highly available, scalable multi-node WebSphere Application Server environments: clustering, distributed session management, and
edge components

Advanced

considerations:

working with Java

Management
Extensions,
caching, and much
more

Performance-tuning tools

Troubleshooting

Leveraging key

WebSphere deployment and administration tools: ANT, wsadmin, Admin Console, and the Application Server Toolkit
Advanced discussions of J2EE and architectural concepts you need to deploy successfullywith practical examples

.
Table of Contents

.
Index

IBM WebSphere Deploym Advanced Configuration
By Roland Barcia, Bill Hin Keys Botzum
Publisher : Prentice Hall PTR Pub Date : August 26, 2004 ISBN : 0-13-146862-6
Pages : 720

Copyright IBM Press SeriesInformation Management On Demand Computing Books DB2 Books More Books from IBM Press About the Authors Technical Reviewers and Contributors Foreword Part I. Introduction to WebSphere and Deployment

Chapter 1. Introduction
Who Should Read This Book Why Concentrate So Much on Deployment? How This Book Is

Organized

Introduction to

WebSphere Conclusion Chapter 2. J2EE Applications Understanding J2EE and J2EE Applications J2EE Packaging
Conclusion

Chapter 3. WAS Quick Start
Overview of Applications Used Throughout This Book
WAS Deployment Quick Start Conclusion Chapter 4. Build and Deploy Procedures
Procedures Matter Build and Deployment Models
Automation

Conclusion

Chapter 5. WebSphere Application Server Architecture
Runtime Architecture
Conclusion
Part II. J2EE Deployment and Administration Chapter 6. J2EE Web Applications and the Web Container J2EE Web Application Technologies J2EE Web Application Characteristics WAS Web Container Web Application Descriptors and Packaging
Automation

Conclusion
Chapter 7. JDBC as a Resource
JDBC and J2EE Services
JDBC Object Types

Automation

Conclusion

Chapter 8. J2EE Connector Architecture
J2C Architecture

WAS J2C

Implementation

Conclusion
Chapter 9. Enterprise JavaBeans
Introduction to Enterprise JavaBeans
Enterprise JavaBean Deployment with WAS Conclusion Chapter 10. CMP and Advanced EJB Settings
Understanding CMP 2.0
WebSphere Persistence Architecture Bean and Data Caching Dealing with Isolation Levels in CMP Schema Mapping So Why Does the

Deployer Care?

Automation
Conclusion
Chapter 11. Transactions with WebSphere Application Server
Introduction to Transactions J2EE Applications and Transactions WebSphere Application Server Transaction Manager Distributed Transaction Failure Recovery
Transaction Performance Transaction

Troubleshooting

Conclusion

Chapter 12. JMS and Message Driven Beans Understanding JMS and Message Driven Beans JMS in WebSphere Application Server Automation

Conclusion

Chapter 13. Other Resources

URL Resources

JavaMail

Conclusion

Chapter 14. Client Applications What Is a ¡°Client Application?¡± WAS Application Clients CD
J2EE Clients

Thin Clients

Pluggable Clients

Applet Clients

ActiveX Clients

Conclusion

Part III. Managing WebSphere Application Server Infrastructure
Chapter 15. Advanced

Considerations for Build

Application Packaging Verification in Large Development Environments
Conclusion Chapter 16. Ideal Development and Testing Environments
Ideal Development Environments Environment Stages
Process Matters

Tools
Reducing Costs
Conclusion
Chapter 17. JMX in WebSphere Application Server
An Introduction to JMX JMX in WebSphere Application Server
Custom MBeans in WAS Conclusion Chapter 18. Security Why Security?
WAS Security Architecture Hardening Security
Troubleshooting
Conclusion
Chapter 19. WebSphere Caching
Caching Opportunities Caching Implications on Performance
Caching Static Files
Dynamic Caching Planning for Caching Caching Further Out
Advanced Caching
Topics
Troubleshooting Caching Problems
Conclusion
Part IV. WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment Chapter 20. WAS

Network Deployment

Architecture

WebSphere Architecture Terms Runtime Architecture
Web Services in WAS-
ND
ND Cell Administration Namespace Distributed Replication
Service Conclusion Chapter 21. WAS Network Deployment Clustering WebSphere Clustering Architecture
Creating WebSphere Application Server-ND Clusters Application Installation
and Maintenance Hardware Clustering and WAS-ND Other Components WAS-ND Administrative Runtime
Topologies Conclusion Chapter 22. Session Management Introduction to HTTP Session
Session Tracking

The Session API

WAS Session

Management

Configuration

Conclusion
Chapter 23. WebSphere Edge Components
Edge Topology

Edge Devices

WebSphere Edge

Components Review WebSphere Edge Components Implementation 70-410 practice exam Topology Patterns on the Edge
Conclusion Part V. Problem Determination and Server Tools
Chapter 24. Problem Determination
Problem-Solving First Steps
WAS General Problem Determination
Active WAS Problem Determination When All Else Fails Problem Determination Tools
Problem Prevention
Conclusion
Chapter 25. Performance Tuning Tools WAS Performance

CCIE Data Center

Cisco 400-151 is a challenging exam, to pass this you’ll have to work hard. With the help of the right focus and preparation material passing this exam is an achievable goal.Pass4itsure shares (https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-151.html ) the latest and effective Cisco 400-151 dumps exam questions and answers, online practice tests. The 400-151 CCIE Data Center written exam has been retired as of February 24, 2020. The latest exam select Cisco CCNP Data Center 350-601 exam dumps. Pass4itsure can help you pass the exam easily.

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Maybe you will be interested in other CCIE certification exams!

Best Cisco 400-151 Practice,400-151 Test

QUESTION 1
Which three options can be used to add a device as a member to a zone? (Choose three.)
A. fully qualified domain name
B. Fibre Channel ID
C. VLAN ID
D. IP address
E. device alias
F. LUN ID
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 2
In a Cisco UCS B-Series environment, which option must the network adapters support to enable iSCSI boot?
A. UEFI
B. MPIO
C. vNIC
D. CIMC
E. iBFT
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
A network architect must migrate the legacy infrastructure switches of a customer from a Cisco Nexus 9000 platform.
Which process helps achieve this milestone?
A. Set up a web-based interface for configuration management
B. Manage software upgrades via guest shell
C. Create a container providing separate execution space.
D. Allow guests temporary access to the CLI without logging in
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which three options are SDN Southbound protocols? (Choose three.)
A. Puppet
B. API
C. OpenFlow
D. PCEP
E. VXLAN
F. OVSDB
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 5
Which two guidelines and limitations of policy-based routing are true? (Choose two.)
A. A policy-based routing map can have multiple match or set statements per route-map statement.
B. A match command can refer to more than one ACL in a route map used for policy-based routing.
C. Policy-based routing and WCCPv2 are not supported on the same interface if bank chaining is disabled.
D. An ACL used in a policy-based routing route map cannot include a deny statement.
E. The same route map can be shared among different interfaces for policy-based routing as long as the interfaces
belong to the same VRF instance.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-151 exam questions q6

Which two statements about this configuration command sequence with regards to the Cisco Nexus 5500 are true?
(Choose two.)
A. It reserves this FCID so only this node can use this FCID when communicating with other Fiber Channel entities.
B. It configures this node to use FCID 0EFC2A to forward the FDISC to when an endpoint is connected.
C. It configures this node to use 0EFC2A as the last 3bytes of the FPMA.
D. It permits this node to form FCoE ISLs only with other nodes configured for the same FC-MAP.
E. It configures this node to use 0EFC2A as the first 3 bytes of the FPMA.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Which two statements about connecting spines to the Inter-Site-Network are true? (Choose two)

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-151 exam questions q7

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
Which three functions are key characteristics of the data center access layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose
three.)
A. must support routing protocols such as OSPF and BGP
B. provides connectivity to network based services (load balancer and firewall)
C. segment workgroups
D. implement in top-of-rack or end-of-row topology
E. provides connectivity to the servers
F. performs QoS marking
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 9
Which state is the optimal health state for an APIC cluster?
A. fully fit
B. fully sync\\’d
C. in-sync
D. in service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-151 exam questions q10

Which two statements about spanning tree are true? (Choose two.)
A. BPDUs from a VPC are processed on this switch.
B. This switch generates BPDUs for a VPC.
C. BPDUs are sent to the peer switch for processing.
D. This switch cannot generate BPDUs for a VPC.
E. BPDUs received on this switch are dropped because Type 2 inconsistency issues.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about import and export route control in an ACI fabric are true? (Choose two.)
A. Prefixes learned from BGP L3outs cannot be filtered inbound.
B. Prefixes learned from OSPF/EIGRP are never permitted inbound by default.
C. Prefixes permitted inbound are redistributed into MP-BGP at the ingress leaf.
D. Export route control controls if the prefixes are redistributed from MP-BGP at the egress leaf.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Drag and drop me concept of Cisco UCS Director orchestrator from the left onto the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-151 exam questions q12-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-151 exam questions q12-2

QUESTION 13

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-151 exam questions q13

Refer to the exhibit. Which response of this API request is true?

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-151 exam questions q13-2

A. B. C.

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-151 exam questions q13-3

D.
Correct Answer: D

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CCIE Change(2020)

New CCIE Tracks from February 24th

Original CCIEBefore February 24th, you need to do a written and a lab exam for each track.
New CCIEFrom February 24th, you need to pass 2 exams for each track.

CCIE Data Center Change

From February 24th, you need to take the new exam 350-601 DCCOR to get certified.

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CCIE Wireless

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Cisco exam certification information

400-351 CCIE Wireless – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ccie-wireless2.html

Cisco CCIE Wireless 400-351 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which two statements about 802.11r are true? (Choose two)
A. A PTK is generated before the client roams to the target AP.
B. Non-802.11r clients cannot associate to WLANs that have 802 llr enabled on WLC AireOS code 8.0
C. 802.11r IS supported only on OPEN and WPA2 WLANs.
D. This protocol uses the four-way handshake for the key management upon roaming.
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 400-351 exam question q2 pass4itsure 400-351 exam question q2-1

Your colleague a junior network engineer is struggling to enable DHCP option 82 in the layer 3 switch which is in the
DMZ for a mobile client under a guest anchor Cisco wireless LAN controller deployment . What is your answer.?
A. DHCP proxy must be enabled for DHCP option 82 to operate correctly . All Cisco WLCsthat will be in the setup must
have the same DHCP proxy setting.
B. DHCP option 82 must be enabled on the dynamic interface with which theWLANis associated
C. DHCP option 82 is not supported when it is used with auto-anchor mobility
D. The mobility tunnel datapath control path or both between the anchor cisco WLC and foreign WLC are down.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Harry is a network engineer for a company, he is now upgrading a large autonomous WLAN deployment to LWAPP
operation. He has successfully imported a X.509 self-signed certificate into the WLC. But, when he tries to add
additional self-signed certificates, the WLC GUI reports a “Failed to Add entry” error.
Which command can diagnose the root cause of this problem?
A. Show wps summary
B. Show database summary
C. Show exlusionlist
D. Show sysinfo
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Drag and drop the CAPWAP events on the left into the order in which they occur on the right during the WLC discovery
and join processes.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 400-351 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 400-351 exam question q4-1

 

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:pass4itsure 400-351 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 400-351 exam question q5-1

 

QUESTION 6
For the following cipher suites, which were defined in the IEEE 802.11i-2004 standard and then again in the
802.11-2007 standard? Select all that apply.
A. TKIP
B. WEP-40
C. TCP-IP
D. WEP-104
E. AES-CCMP
Correct Answer: ABDE

 

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:pass4itsure 400-351 exam question q7

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 400-351 exam question q7-1

 

QUESTION 8
Which two features require Network Time Protocol synchronization on the Cisco 5760 WLC?(Choose two)
A. AP CAPWAP multicast
B. SNMPv3
C. AP authentication
D. Band Select
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 9
Which multicast mode is recommended when configuring Media Stream on a Cisco WLC?
A. multicast-uncast
B. multicast-routing
C. multicast-multicast
D. multicast-direct
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
While configuring Wireless Domain Services, which port is used for traffic between infrastructure APs and the WDS
AP?
A. Generic Routing Encapsulation GRE which is IP protocol 47
B. UDP destination and source protocol Port 1812 (0x0714)
C. UDP destination and source protocol port 2887 (0x0B47) or Ethernet Type 34605 (0x872D)
D. UDP destination and Source Protocol Port 1645 (0x066D)
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Given: LAG bundles all distribution ports on a WLC into a single 802.3ad port channel.The system load-balances
access points transparently to the user. Question: Which two items should be taken into consideration when configuring
the neighbor Ethernet switch? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco WLC relies on the neighbor switch to load-balance traffic across the EtherChannel. The Cisco WLC does
not perform any EtherChannel load-balancing on its own.
B. LAG requires theEtherChannel to be configured for the “on” mode on the Catalyst switch.
C. LAG requires that the Catalyst switch be configured with CiscoPAgP. Link Aggregation Control Protocol is not
supported.
D. The load-balancing method configured on the Catalyst switch must be based on Layer 2, not Layer 3. Failure to
follow this recommendation may result in problems with access point association.
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 12
Which option in the Cisco Identity Services Engine checks that the user authentication comes from a domain
computer?
A. It is not possible to validate the computer domain membership through ISE.
B. Machine Access Restriction
C. Machine Access Restriction
D. Active Directory Attributes.
E. An identity source sequence can be used to perform this check.
Correct Answer: C
From:pass4itsure 400-351 exam question q12

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/1-3/ISE-ADIntegrationDoc/b_ISE-ADIntegration.html

 

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the wireless deployment modes on the left to the corresponding roaming descriptions on the right?
Select and Place:pass4itsure 400-351 exam question q13

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 400-351 exam question q13-1

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MCSA, Uncategorized

Work hard! It’s not hard to get certified! Share the latest Microsoft MCSA 70-779 exam dump for free. online 70-779 exam practice tests. the latest 70-779 exam questions and answers, and guarantee your skills and exam experience! “Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Excel” – 70-779 exam! pass4itsure.com expert recommendation! Top pass rate!

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Valid information provided by Microsoft officials

Exam 70-779: Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Excel: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-779.aspx Candidates for this exam should have a strong understanding of how to use Microsoft Excel to perform data analysis. Candidates should be able to consume, transform, model, and visualize data in Excel. Candidates should also be able to configure and manipulate data in PowerPivot, PivotTables, and PivotCharts. Candidates may include BI professionals, data analysts, and other roles responsible for analyzing data with Excel.

pass4itsure 70-779 exam Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Consume and Transform Data by Using Microsoft Excel (30-35%)
  • Model Data (35-40%)
  • Visualize Data (30-35%)

The latest Microsoft MCSA 70-779 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario, For your convenience the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
the
same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario
You are creating reports for a car repair company. You have four datasets in Excel spreadsheets. Four workbook
queries load the datasets to a data model. A sample of the data is shown in the Data Sample exhibit.pass4itsure 70-779 exam question q1

The data model is shown in the Data Model exhibit.

pass4itsure 70-779 exam question q1-1

The tables in the model contain the following data:
DailyRepairs has a log of hours and revenue for each day, workshop, and repair type. Every day, a log entry is created
for each workshop, even if no hours or revenue are recorded for that day. Total Hours and Total Revenue are two
measures defined in DailyRepairs. Total Hours sums the Hours column, and Total Revenue sums the Revenue column.
Workshops has a list of all the workshops and the current and previous workshop managers. The format of the
Workshop Manager column is always Firstname Lastname. A value of 1 in the IsLatest column indicates that the
workshop
manager listed in the record is the current workshop manager.
RepairTypes has a list of alt the repair types.
Dates has a list of dates from 2015 to 2018.
End of repeated scenario.
You create the column chart shown in the Pivot Chart exhibit.pass4itsure 70-779 exam question q1-2

You need to ensure that the month axis is displayed chronologically. What should you do?
A. In the model, configure the Sort By Column setting for [Month] as [MonthID].
B. In the model, configure the Sort By Column setting for (Month) as [Date].
C. In PivotTable Fields, add [MonthID] to the Legend area.
D. In PivotTable Fields, add [Date] to the Legend area.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
You have an Excel workbook query that loads data to a worksheet and the data model.
You need to ensure that the data is refreshed whenever you open the workbook.
What should you do?
A. From the File tab, click Option, and then modify the Data option.
B. From the File tab, click Options, and then modify the General options.
C. From the Data tab, click Queries and Connections, and then edit the properties of the query.
D. From the Power Pivot model, modify the Table Behavior setting.
Correct Answer: C
https://support.office.com/en-us/article/refresh-an-external-data-connection-in-excel-2016-for-windows-1524175f-777a-48fc-8fc7-c8514b984440

 

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
the
same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario
You are creating reports for a car repair company. You have four datasets in Excel spreadsheets. Pour workbook
queries load the datasets to a data model. A sample of the data is shown in the Data Sample exhibit.
Data Sample:pass4itsure 70-779 exam question q3

The data model is shown in the Data Model exhibit. Data Model

pass4itsure 70-779 exam question q3-1

The tables in the model contain the following data:
DailyRepairs has a log of hours and revenue for each day, workshop, and repair type. Every day, a log entry is created
for each workshop, even if no hours or revenue are recorded for that day. Total Hours and Total Revenue are two
measures denned in DailyRepairs. Total Hours sums the Hours column, and Total Revenue sums the Revenue column.
Workshops has a list of all the workshops and the current and previous workshop managers. The format of the
Workshop Manager column is always FirstnameLastname. A value of 1 in the IsLatest column indicates that the
workshop
manager listed in the record is the current workshop manager.
RepairTypes has a list of all the repair types.
Dates has a list of dates from 2015 to 2018.
End of repeated scenario.
You create a measure named Average Revenue Per Hour that average revenue per hour.
You need to populate a cell in a worksheet to display the Average Revenue Per Hour where Repair Type is Engine.
Which Excel formula should you use?

pass4itsure 70-779 exam question q3-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
You have an Excel workbook that contains a table named Sales.
You add Sales to the Power Pivot model.
You need to set a column named TransactionID as the row identifier for the Sales table.
What should you do?
A. From Power Pivot, modify the Table Behavior setting.
B. From Query Editor, add an index column.
C. From Query Editor, modify the Data Type.
D. From Power Pivot, modify the Default Field Set.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have two Microsoft SQL Server database servers named Production1 and Test1. Production1 contains the same
tables as Test1. but only a subset of the data.
You add Test1 as a data source, and you select 10 tables. You configure several transformations.
You need to connect the model to the tables in Production1. The solution must maintain the existing transformations.
Solution: You delete the existing queries, and then you add new data sources.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
You have the Excel worksheet shown in the exhibit.pass4itsure 70-779 exam question q6

You need to transform the data by using Query Editor. What should you do first?
A. From the Data tab, click From Table/Range.
B. From the Data tab, click Flash Fill.
C. From the Data tab, click Consolidate.
D. From the Insert tab, click Store.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
the same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario
You have six workbook queries that each extracts a table from a Microsoft Azure SQL database. The table are loaded to
the data model, but the data is not loaded to any worksheets. The data model is shown in the Data Model exhibit. (Click
the Exhibit button.)
Your company has 100 product subcategories and more than 10,000 products.
End of repeated scenario.
You have a PivotChart that uses Manufacturer as the axis and the sum of SalesAmount as the values.
You need to ensure that only the top 10 manufactures appear in the chart.
What should you do?
A. Change the format of the SalesAmount field.
B. Create a calculated column.
C. Configure the Value Filters.
D. Summarize the SaleAmount field by Max.
Correct Answer: C
https://www.extendoffice.com/documents/excel/1963-excel-pivot-table-filter-top-10.html

 

QUESTION 8
You have 20 workbook queries that load 20 CSV files to a local computer.
You plan to send the workbook and the 20 CSV files to several users. The users will store the files in various location.
You need to ensure that the users can change the path to the CSV files in the queries as quickly as possible.
What should you do from Query Editor?
A. Merge all the queries. Edit the source of the first query.
B. Create a parameter. Modify the source of each query to use the parameter.
C. For each query, create a new query that uses a reference. Modify the source of each new query.
D. Append all the queries. Edit the source of the first query.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer chokes, but the text of the scenario is
the
same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario
You are creating reports for a car repair company. You have four datasets in Excel spreadsheets. Four workbook
queries load the datasets to a data model. A sample of the data is shown in the Data Sample exhibit.
Data Sample:pass4itsure 70-779 exam question q9

The data model is shown in the Data Model exhibit. Data Model:

pass4itsure 70-779 exam question q9-1

A. In the workbook query for Workshops, filter [IsLatest] to equal 1.
B. In the workbook query for Workshops, add an index column.
C. In the Power Pivot model, change the data type for Workshop[lD] to General.
D. In the Power Pivot model, change the Table Behavior setting for Workshops.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
You have a table in Power Pivot model that is loaded from a Microsoft SQL Server database.
The source table has four columns named ID, Price, Quantity, and Total. Total is derived by multiplying Price and
Quantity. ID is a unique row identifier.
You need to minimize the amount of memory used to load the mode. The solution must ensure that you can create
visualizations based on Price, Quantity, and Total.
What should you do?
A. Replace the Total column by using a measure.
B. Replace the Total column by using a calculated column.
C. From Query Editor, remove duplicate rows from the table.
D. Move the Total column to a lookup table.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
You have a data model in Excel.
You export the data and the data model into a dataset in the Microsoft Power BI service.
What can you use to modify the data model that is published to the Power BI service?
A. Microsoft Power BI Desktop
B. Excel and the Microsoft Power BI service
C. Excel only
D. the Microsoft Power BI service only
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
You have a query that retrieves customers and their locations. You have a sample of the data as shown in the following
table.

pass4itsure 70-779 exam question q12

Additional customers and locations are added frequently.
You need to transform the data as shown in the following table

pass4itsure 70-779 exam question q12-1

What should you do?
A. Select the Locations columns and then select Split Column by Delimiter. Use a comma as the delimiter and split into
rows.
B. Select the Locations columns and then select Split Column by Delimiter. Use a comma as the delimiter and split into
columns.
C. Select the Customer columns, and then click Unpivot Columns.
D. Select the Customer columns, and then click Unpivot Other Columns.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
You have an Excel workbook that displays two PivotCharts. One chart displays sales by month. The other chart displays
sales by year.
You add a slicer for month.
You discover that when you select a month in the slicer, the data in the sales by year PivotChart changes.
You need to prevent the slicer from affecting the sales by year PivotChart.
What should you do?
A. Remove all the fields from the Filters area of the sales by month PivotChart.
B. Modify the Value Field Settings for the values of the sales by year PivotChart,
C. Modify the Report Connections of the slicer.
D. Remove all the fields from the Filters area of the sales by year PivotChart.
Correct Answer: C

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ACI

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Pass4itsure offers the latest ACI 3I0-012 practice test free of charge (30Q&As)

QUESTION 1
The two-week repo rate for the 5.25% Bund 2014 is quoted to you at 3.33-38%. You agree to reverse in bonds worth
EUR 266,125,000.00 with no initial margin. You would earn repo interest of:
A. EUR 349,806
B. EUR 344,632
C. EUR 319,315
D. EUR 324,110
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Using the following rates:
3M (90-day) eurodeposits3.50%
6M (180-day) eurodeposits3.75%
What is the rate for a deposit, which runs from 3 to 6 months?
A. 3.625%
B. 3.285%
C. 3.965%
D. 3.835%
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are the fixed-rate payer in a plain vanilla interest rate swap. If your counterparty defaults, your exposure at default
is:
A. greater, the higher the market swap rate and the shorter the term
B. lower, the lower the market swap rate and the shorter the term
C. lower, the lower the market swap rate and the longer the term
D. greater, the higher the market swap rate and the longer the term
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Deliberately inputting incorrect big figures into an electronic dealing platform is:
A. Technically impossible on electronic platforms B. Not an uncommon practice and something which professional dealers should be able to guard against.
C. Not good practice.
D. A criminal offence.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
The andquot;spot basisandquot; of a 2 against 4 months EUR/USD forward/forward swap is:
A. usually the current spot EUR/USD mid-market rate
B. commonly the prevailing 4-month forward EUR/USD mid-rate
C. always the forward EUR/USD bid rate of the first swap leg
D. generally the prevailing 2-month forward EUR/USD mid-rate
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following are specifically quoted in terms of a yield-to-maturity?
A. US Treasury bill
B. CD
C. Interbank deposit
D. USCP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You are paying 5% per annum paid semi-annually and receiving 6-month LIBOR on a USD 10 million interest rate swap
with exactly two years to maturity. 6month LIBOR for the next payment date is fixed today at 4.95%. How would you
hedge the swap using FRAs? How to hedge an IRS with a strip of FRAs?
A. buy a strip of 0x6, 6×12, 12×18 and 18×24 FRAs
B. sell a strip of 0x6, 6×12, 12×18 and 18×24 FRAs
C. buy a strip of 6×12, 12×10 and 16×24 FRAs
D. sell a strip of 6×12, 12×18 and 18×24 FRAs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Today is Monday, 8th December. You sell a 9×12 FRA for value Thursday, 10th September next year. On what date is
the settlement amount due to be paid or received (assuming that there are no holidays)? A. 8th September next year
B. 10th September next year
C. 8th December next year
D. 10th December next year
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You bought a USD 4,000000 6×9 FRA at 6.75%. The settlement rate is 3-month (90-day) BBA LIBOR, which is fixed at
5.50%. What is the settlement amount at maturity?
A. You receive USD 12,330.46
B. You pay USD 12,330.46
C. You pay USD 12,163.81
D. You receive USD 12,163.81
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A customer gives you GBP 25,000,000.00 at 0.625% same day for 7 days.
Through a broker, you place the funds with a bank for the same period at 0.6875%.
Brokerage is charged at 2 basis points per annum.
What is the net profit or loss on the deal?
A. ProfitofGBP 299.66
B. Profit of GBP 203.77
C. LossofGBP299.66
D. Loss ofGBP 203.77
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are quoted the following market rates:
Spot AUD/CAD 1.0600 12M (360-day) AUD 3.40% 12M (360-day) CAD 1.55%
What are the 12-month AUD/CAD forward points?
A. +190
B. -193 C. -192
D. -190
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A 3-month (91-day) UK Treasury bill with a face value of GBP 50,000,000.00 is quoted at a yield of 4.25%. How much is
the bill worth?
A. GBP 47,875,000.00
B. GBP 49,462,847.22
C. GBP 49,470,205.48
D. GBP 49,475,760.27
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
What kind of information should dealers and brokers take care when relaying?
A. Information that could be damaging to a third party
B. Unsubstantiated rumours
C. Unsubstantiated information that they suspect may be inaccurate and damaging to a third party
D. Price-sensitive information
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Convert 8.25% quoted on a semi-annually compounded money market basis for USD to the equivalent annually-
compounded bond basis.
A. 8.30%
B. 8.52%
C. 8.54%
D. 8.69%
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
How long does the Model Code recommend that tape recordings of dealers/brokers should be kept?
A. At least 2 months
B. One year C. Up to one month
D. Until the maturity of the deal
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
You buy a 181-day 2.75% CD with a face value of USD 1,500,000.00 at par when it is issued. You sell it in the
secondary market after 150 days at 2.60%. What is your holding period yield?
A. 2.60%
B. 2.75%
C. 2.775%
D. 2.813%
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which one of the following best describes expected shortfall/conditional value-at-risk at the 95% level?
A. the expected loss on the portfolio in the worst 95% of cases
B. the expected loss in those cases where the loss exceeds the VaR at the 95% level
C. the maximum loss in those cases where the loss exceeds the VaR at the 95% level
D. the expected loss in those cases where the loss exceeds the VaR at the 5% level
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
You quote spot EUR/USD at 1.3023-26 in 5 to another bank. He says, andquot;Take 5, could do 8andquot;. How much
are you obliged to do?
A. Nothing, as he changed the terms of the deal
B. EUR 5,000,000.00
C. More than EUR 5,000,000.00, but a maximum of EUR 8,000,000.00
D. EUR 8,000,000.00
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What would be the strategy for a bank if it is unable to speculate on interest rates and/or unable to absorb market risk?
A. to run a zero gap
B. to hold more interest rate sensitive assets than interest rate sensitive liabilities C. to reduce the size of the balance sheet
D. to hold fewer interest rate sensitive assets than interest rate sensitive liabilities
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
An interest rate guarantee (IRG) is:
A. AnFRA
B. An option on an FRA
C. A collar
D. AnIRS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
An interest rate swap is:
A. A contract to exchange one stream of income payments for another
B. A temporary exchange of one deposit for another of a longer maturity in the same currency
C. A forward-forward contract
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Management has a specific responsibility to issue guidelines to staff on transacting after-hours and off- premises. Which
of the following does the Model Code suggest?
A. Dealing should only be allowed during normal trading hours.
B. It is not recommended that an unofficial close of business be specified for each trading day.
C. There should be clear written guidelines regarding the limit and type of deals that are permitted after normal hours or
off-premises.
D. All after-hours and off-premises transactions must be dealt exclusively with the dealer\’s personal mobile phones
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
How is an outright forward FX transaction quoted?
A. pared points
B. Depends on the term C. Depends on whether it is interbank or to a customer
D. Depends on the currency pair
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Where dealing for personal account is allowed, what safeguards to prevent abuse or insider dealing are stated by the
Model Code?
A. The need to maintain confidentiality with respect to non-public price sensitive information
B. The maximum amounts or sizes of trades dealers are allowed to trade for their own account
C. The instruments/products dealers can trade for their own account
D. The pledge that no action is taken by employees that might adversely affect the interests of clients or counterparties
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Bank participants have a duty to make it clear that their prices are firm or merely indicative:
A. Only if they are dealing with brokers.
B. Only if they are dealing in a fast moving market.
C. Only if the amount is not marketable.
D. At all times.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
To curb attempted fraud, banks should: A. Require greater vigilance by the management and staff.
B. Take particular care when the beneficiary is a third party to the deal.
C. Ensure that details of all telephone deals which do not include pre-agreed standard settlement instructions are
confirmed by telex or similar means without delay.
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which one of the following is a major objective of ACI-The Financial Markets Association?
A. to promote globalization and deregulation of the financial markets
B. to maintain the professional level of competence and to disseminate a high level of ethical and professional behavior
C. to act as the official international market regulator in the absence of government regulation D. to become the sole global corporation of wholesale financial market professionals
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
If several banks hit a broker simultaneously for an amount greater than the amount for which the price was shown:
A. no transaction is done
B. the broker has to honor each and every amount hit
C. the broker has to split the amount among the banks on a pro rata basis
D. the broker may freely choose the bank(s) he will deal with
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Which one of the following statements about claims is true?
A. Claims are not expected to be submitted after 15 days from the actual settlement date.
B. Claims of less than USD 5,000.00 are not expected to be submitted.
C. Claims are calculated on the full principal amount of the failed transaction. Interest rates are imposed by the agent
banks, unless a higher negotiated rate is to be applied.
D. Acknowledgement of receipt of a claim should be confirmed within 48 hours by email or SWIFT.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
If spot GBP/CHF is quoted 2.3875-80 and the 3-month forward outright is 2.3660-70, what are the forward points?
A. 21.5/21
B. 210/215
C. 215/210
D. 21/21.5
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
When applying thermal grease during a repair of the Mac Pro (Late 2013), which of the following are required?
A. Access card tool
B. Putty knife
C. CPU grease ruler
D. CPU grease stencil
E. Capacitor shield
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Where can a technician find the serial number of an SSD that has been replaced on a MacBook Pro (Retina, 13-inch.
Early 2013)?
A. Lift the mylar cover on the SSD.
B. Peel back the thermal pad on the SSD
C. On the top case.
D. On the back of the SSD cable
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Examine the image. When repairing a Mac mini (Mid 2011), which areas of the logic board assembly should you avoid
touching?
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A. The top and bottom of the assembly.
B. The EMI fingers and gasket.
C. The grounding pad and cable guide D. Thermal pad and heat sink clips.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following parts must be removed prior to replacing the left speaker of the MacBook Air (11- inch, Mid
2013)? SELECT THREE.
A. Right speaker
B. Bottom case
C. Battery
D. Logic board
E. I/O Flex cable
F. Display clamshell
G. Input device (IPD) flex cable
Correct Answer: BCG

QUESTION 5
To power on the system, which of the following can be used on the MacBook Pro (Retina, Mid 2012) and MacBook Pro
(Retina, 15-inch, Early 2013 and Late 2013) logic boards?
A. Two switches that can be flipped
B. Two ports that be activated
C. Two pads that can be shorted
D. Two buttons that can be pressed
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following could indicate accidental damage when inspecting the inside of a Mac mini (Late 2012) before a
repair?
A. Light dust in the fans
B. Third-party RAM installed
C. Lint gathered near the rear vents
D. Oxidation or discoloration of the logic board
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
What step is required before upgrading the RAM in a Mac Pro (Mid 2012)?
A. Remove the PCI-e fan.
B. Remove the processor tray.
C. Remove the hard drive carriers.
D. Remove the Optical Drive and Carrier.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What component should be investigated if a MacBook Air (13-inch, Mid 2012) sends video to an external display but not
to the internal?
A. Display Module
B. Logic board
C. I/O flex cable
D. I/O board
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A customer brings his MacBook Pro (15-inch, Mid 2012) in for servicing. It is not functioning correctly and you suspect
the machine has been damaged by the customer. As you inspect for accidental damage, you should open the lid and
confirm that the hinges are working smoothly and inspect the LCD for cracks in the glass. Which of the following should
you also do? Select two.
A. Disassemble the SuperDrive to check for debris or dust inside.
B. Look for cracks, dents, or scratches on the exterior of the system.
C. Connect the system to external speakers to check for sound output.
D. Erase all of the customer\’s data and reinstall OS X to test the hard drive.
E. Check for any unusual odors coming from the system, which might indicate spill damage.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which section of Apple Service Guide contains a detailed view of all service parts and their part numbers?
A. Part View
B. Exploded View
C. Service Parts Matrix
D. Parts General Information
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
According to the Apple Troubleshooting theory, at what stage should you run a diagnostic?
A. After determining the issue is not hardware
B. After determining the issue is Education Opportunity
C. After determining the issue is caused by the Environment
D. After determining the issue is with the device\’s Software or Hardware
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which section of Apple Service Guide contains a diagram for symptoms related to logic board connectors?
A. Quick Checks
B. Block Diagram
C. Exploded View
D. Functional Overview
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following Mac Pro (Late 2013) parts has a slot for flash storage?
A. Interposer
B. Daughterboard
C. Graphics Board A
D. Graphics Board B
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
You are troubleshooting an iMac (Late 2013) that does not power on. You notice that all diagnostic LEDs remain off
when a known-good power cord is connected
to the iMac and to a known-good power outlet.
What is most likely the cause of these symptoms?
A. Faulty power supply
B. Faulty display panel C. Faulty hard drive
D. Faulty video card
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Francine states that she does not see anything on her iMac display when she turns it on. Which of the following should
you use first to isolate as either a backlight issue or a video signal issue?
A. A flashlight
B. A replacement LCD panel
C. A replacement logic board
D. A replacement backlight power board
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
How many simultaneous connections are supported on AirPort Extreme and Time Capsule?
A. 254
B. 100
C. 50
D. 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which of the following measurements is an example of an appropriate use of a Multimeter when troubleshooting a
Mac?
A. Measure logic board battery voltage.
B. Measure amount of ESD voltage in the area.
C. Measure digital signals on the main processor.
D. Measure amount of AC volts going to the hard drive or SSD.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
If a customer uses the wrong wattage power adapter with a MacBook Pro (15-inch, Mid 2012) and cannot power on the
device, which of the following problems spaces best describes this issue?
A. OS B. Software
C. Hardware
D. Educational Opportunity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
The Mac Pro (Late 2013) enclosure is made of the following polished material that must be handled with care to avoid
scratching:
A. plastic
B. acrylic
C. titanium
D. aluminum
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
What color indicates that the Liquid Contact Indicators inside a MacBook Pro (13-inch, Mid 2012, have been triggered?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. White
D. Yellow
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which component for Apple Service Toolkit is designed to help troubleshoot issues with MagSafe and MagSafe 2 power
adapters?
A. NAD
B. VST
C. TPT
D. CSD
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
To help define if an issue is in the Environmental problem space, which question you ask your customer?
A. Do you have this issue on all Wi-Fi networks? B. Could you show me how you use your Mac?
C. Did you add any memory to this Mac?
D. Have you updated your software?
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
William would like to store his MacBook Air (13-inch, Mid 2013) while away for a six month sabbatical. What is the Apple
recommended level of battery charge for storing the computer?
A. 10 percent
B. 20 percent
C. 50 percent
D. 96 percent
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
If an issue is in the Hardware problem space, which of the following should be removed from the Apple product to
further isolate the issue?
A. All third party equipment
B. Any third party applications
C. Any third party extensions
D. Any third party frameworks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which of the following could indicate accidental damage when inspecting the inside of a Mac mini (Late 2012) before a
repair?
A. Light dust in the fans
B. Third-party RAM installed
C. Lint gathered near the rear vents
D. Oxidation or discoloration of the logic board
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which of the following 27-inch Apple Thunderbolt Display features is NOT available on the 27- inch Apple LED Cinema
Display? A. Gigabit Ethernet port
B. Mag Safe cable (85W)
C. Kensington security slot
D. Built-in 2.1 speaker system
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
How do you reset the SMC of a MacBook Pro (Retina, 13-inch, Early 2013)?
A. Press the internal SMC reset button near the SSD slot.
B. Disconnect the main battery, then hold down the power button down for five seconds.
C. Shut down the MacBook Pro and unplug for fifteen seconds. Attach the power adapter and wait five seconds, then
press the power button.
D. Plug in the MagSafe power adapter and shut down the computer. Using the system keyboard, press the Shift-Option-
Control keys and the power button at the same time
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Remaining residue from Very High Bond (VHB) adhesive should only be removed with which of the following:
A. VHB solvent
B. Nail polish remover
C. Isopropyl alcohol wipes
D. VHB neutralizer
E. Liquid acid neutralizer
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 29
You are about to replace a MacBook Air (11-inch. Mid 2013) logic board. Which of the following is the most important
step you should take immediately after removing the bottom case?
A. Remove the thermal module.
B. Install the battery cover.
C. Remove the SSD carrier
D. Remove the battery.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
What is the maximum amount of memory that is supported in a dual-processor Mac Pro (Mid 2012)?
A. 64 GB
B. 32GB
C. 16 GB
D. 8 GB
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
What is a Record Type? Select the right choice
A. Allows you to define different sets of picklist values for both standard and custom picklist
B. Allows you to define different sets of picklist values only for standard picklist
C. Allows you to define different sets of picklist values only for custom picklist
D. Allows you to define different sets of picklist values only for new picklist
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Why are Sharing Rules used?
Correct Answer: To open up access to records you wouldn\’t naturally get through Organization Wide, Defaults and
RoleHierarchy. They are the exceptions to the Organization Wide Defaults.

QUESTION 3
Inline Editing is available in visual force pages?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You can map a single column from the CSV file to multiple fields in Salesforce SFA.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Define the Tabular Report.
Correct Answer: Provides a simple listing of your data without subtotals. The only format that has a floating report
header.

QUESTION 6
Which are true about Trialforce Email Branding?
A. It is available only in Unlimited, Enterprise and Developer Editions
B. It allows you to modify system-generated emails so that they appear to come from your company rather than fromSalesforce.com.
C. Trialforce Email Branding is automatically enabled for existing partners with Trialforce and when a new partner
request Trialforce.
D. Trialforce Email Branding only applies to users who sign up for your application through Trialforce.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which statements are true about Cloud Scheduler?
A. It is available in Group, Professional, Enterprise, Unlimited, and Developer Editions only.
B. Cloud Scheduler is now enabled by default for all organizations.
C. You can automatically see the New Meeting Request button on all eligible contact, lead, and person account detail
pages.
D. Meeting organizers can not use Cloud Scheduler to request meetings with customers, and have customers select
preferred times before confirming the meeting.
E. Administrators can add or remove the New Meeting Request button on multiple page layouts using the new Cloud
Scheduler quick setup method.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 8
When would you choose to build a Public Group?
Correct Answer: To simplify the number of sharing rules built or when defining folder or list view access.

QUESTION 9
How can you export accounts and contacts in a Contact Manager edition of Salesforce?
A. Since there is no Weekly Export in contact manager, you can instead install Salesforce for outlook.
B. You can create a report on those records and use the andquot;Export Detailsandquot; button.
C. Use Connect for Outlook because Salesforce for Outloook does not run without API.
D. Export those records using weekly data export from andquot;Setup andgt; Administration Setup andgt; Data
Management andgt; Exportandquot;.
E. There is no export option in Contact Manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You delete the Custom Field Region. All data related to Region will also be deleted.
A. True B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
If your org is configured for data export, you can generate backup files manually how often?
A. Everyday
B. Once every 6 days
C. Once every 15 days
D. Once every 5 days
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You can rename standard Tabs and Objects. 9962077244
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which of the following features is not available in Professional Edition?
A. Big Deal Alert
B. Workflow
C. Account Sharing Rules
D. Multi-Currency
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
The Console\’s center frame is the detail page view of any record selected from any of the console\’s other frame.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which graphs rely on grand total for dashboards?
A. Metric and table B. Metric and gauge
C. Table and gauge
D. Table and line
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Records in the recycle bin do NOT count against your organization\’s storage limits
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
A Look-up field can look up to what?
A. An Object
B. A field
C. A record
D. A report
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Custom Fiscal years are for companies that break down their fiscal years, quarters, and weeks in to custom fiscal
periods based on their financial planning requirements.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which combination of objects is available when creating a custom report type for Chatter reports?
A. Opportunities, Followers, User Feed
B. Accounts, User Feed, Comments
C. Users, User Feed, Comments
D. Chatter Groups, Members
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 20
A Workflow Alert can be tracked in Activity History
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Customer Portal users can view the tags section of a page, if it is included in a page layout.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
A role has many to many relationships with the user?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Custom Picklist fields can be either controlling or dependent fields
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
When users log in to Salesforce, either via the user interface, the API, or a desktop client Salesforce CRM confirms the
log in is authorized using all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Salesforce CRM then checks whether the user\’s profile has IP address restrictions. If IP address restrictions are
defined for the user\’s profile, any login from an undesignated IP address is denied and any login from a specified IP
address is allowed
B. If profile-based IP address restrictions aren\’t set, then Salesforce CRM checks whether the user is logging in from an
IP address she or he hasn\’t used to access Salesforce CRM before
C. Salesforce CRM checks whether the organization has login hour restrictions. If login hour restrictions are specified,
any login outside the specified hours is denied.
D. Salesforce CRM checks whether the user\’s profile has login hour restrictions. If login hour restrictions are specified
for the user\’s profile, any login outside the specified hours is denied.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
If your organization uses territory management, the new account is evaluated by account assignment rules and may be
assigned to one or more territories.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
You can update licenses on the Company Profile.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which of the following settings directly affects Date fields to display as MM/DD/YYYY?
A. Local
B. Time Zone
C. Language
D. Default Currency
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
It is advisable not to overwrite user records with new user data because it would prevent you from tracking a history of
past users and the records associated to them?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which of the following statements is true about computer activation?
A. It is required to activate additional IP addresses for accessing SF.
B. It is required for all IP addresses and browsers.
C. It is required to access SF online. D. It is required to identify regular SF users.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Data validation ensures the integrity of data when data is exported in SF
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
An organization uses Microsoft Dynamics 365 to track Opportunities and Competitors. They want to make sure that a competitor is always tracked when it is mentioned in an email from a potential customer regarding an opportunity-How can this be
achieved using the fewest steps?
A. Instruct users to always manually associate the competitor when the Competitor Mentioned card is shown by the Relationship Assistant.
B. Configure the Relationship Assistant, and check the Card Option for the Competitor Mentioned card to perform the associated action automatically instead of displaying the card.
C. In the configuration for Auto Capture, enable the option to track competitors automatically when mentioned in emails regarding an opportunity.
D. Create a workflow to scan emails for competitor names, and associate the mentioned competitor to the opportunity.
MB2-717 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You are using Opportunities and Quotes to manage your sales process in Microsoft Dynamics 365. A customer requests quotes tor the same set of products, but from two different price lists for comparison. What should you do in order to respond to this customer’s request?
A. Create two Opportunities with different price lists. Then create one Quote from each of the Opportunities.
B. Create one Opportunity with one Quote. Then, have the customer review the quote Before creating another.
C. Create one Opportunity with one Quote. Then, revise the Quote and add the other price list to the Quote
D. Create two Quotes from the same Opportunity. Then, switch the price list on one of the Quotes.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You are working with a company to implement Microsoft Dynamics 365 for their sales division. The sales manager wants all sales people to have the ability to be alerted when a recipient opens an email that was sent to them. Which component of Microsoft Dynamics 365 should you use to manage this ability?
A. Email Engagement
B. Auto Capture
C. Relationship Assistant
D. Folder Level Tracking
MB2-717 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are a sales professional for a medium-sized firm. You are entering information into Microsoft Dynamics you organized at a trade show. What type of record should you create for each card?
A. Prospect
B. Lead
C. Account
D. Opportunity
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You are working with the default Opportunity form In Microsoft Dynamics 365. Your sales manager has asked all sales staff to maintain best practices when managing sales and to enter as much information as possible. You need to be able to add additional records and activities to the Opportunity without leaving the form. What are two types of records you can add from within the Opportunity form? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Invoices
B. Credit Notes / Adjustment Notes
C. Stakeholders
D. Products
MB2-717 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
You are The technical support specialist for a company that utilizes Microsoft Dynamics 365. A new user calls the help desk complaining that every time they try to create a record, they are being denied the ability to The user states that some type of error is displayed as well. What would cause this error?
A. The user cannot create records using the Outlook client
B. The user failed to populate at (east one required field.
C. The user is using Dynamics 365 Business Edition father than Enterprise Edition.
D. The user cannot input more than 250 characters into a single line of text field.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You are a new sales executive for a company that utilizes Microsoft Dynamics 365. You have begun tracking your activities in Microsoft Dynamics 365. You have completed the activities for one of your customers. How will the activity state of the designated tasks be modified to reflect the fulfillment of these
A. You must manually change the activity state to Canceled.
B. The activity state will update automatically when the associated opportunity is won.
C. The activity state will update automatically when the associated sale order is complete.
D. You must manually change the activity state to Completed.
MB2-717 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You are a sales support specialist for a company that utilizes Microsoft Dynamics 365. You are going through the many records of their current database and inputting this data into Microsoft Dynamics 365. Which instance below would be created as an Opportunity record in Microsoft Dynamics 365?
A. a person who calls into the company after receiving a mass mailing advertisement from your company
B. a person who has prequalified for a mortgage and wants to utilize a real estate agent to look at property
C. a person who signs a contract to purchase three cases of your product on a quarterly basis for 2 years r
D. a list of people supplied by a marketing research firm that matches your target market
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You are using Microsoft Dynamics 365 for sales. Your marketing department has given you a number of illustrated documents that explain how your product is superior to various competitors. You have been tasked with adding this material to Dynamics 365 so the salespeople can use and email the material to their prospects, all from within Dynamics 365. How should you complete this task?
A. Add the documents to SharePoint and set up the SharePoint integration with Dynamics 365.
B. Add the documents as sales literature, and associate them with the right competitors.
C. Add the documents as Email Templates associated with the opportunity entity.
D. Add the documents as attachments in the notes section for each competitor.
MB2-717 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You are a technical support specialist for your company. The Company’s sales staff are issued a company laptop to use when interfacing with Microsoft Dynamics 365. They need to integrate their smart phones with Microsoft Dynamics 365 as well. Many of their phones, however, do not have a supported web browser. What should you suggest to meet this sales staffs need?
A. Advise them to run the Microsoft Dynamics 365 web app on their phones.
B. Advise them to use the web client to access Microsoft Dynamics 365 from their phones.
C. Advise them to download the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App from the Office 365 Admin portal.
D. Advise them to download the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App from their phone’s store.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You are working for a company that is in the process of trying to secure a large contract As you work with this sales opportunity, you need to manage all the various people involved in the sale, both from the customer and external stakeholder point of view. You need visibility on the Opportunity record to do this. Which type of functionality can you use in Microsoft Dynamics 365 to facilitate visibility of those involved?
A. Stakeholders
B. Business Process Flows
C. Contact Preferences
D. Chats
MB2-717 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You are a project manager in charge of implementing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for a sales organization. You are creating a product catalog. You have created a number of products, yet sales people are complaining that they cannot add these products to any invoices. What must be done so that the sales people can add these products to their invoices?
A. The products must first be added to an opportunity.
B. The products must first be activated.
C. The products must be placed into draft status.
D. The products must first be included in a quote.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
An opportunity to partner with one of your competitors on a large project has come up, but you are unable to select the competitor as a customer on the opportunity. Which two record types can you assign to the competitor to enable you to se4ect them as a customer? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Lead
B. Contact
C. Account
D. Prospect
MB2-717 pdf Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
You notice that all of your current customers are stored m Microsoft Dynamics 365 as Account records. You need to create records for other organizations you work with to support your customers. These organizations represent vendors, partners, and distributors. What record type should you use for these organizations?
A. Account
B. Prospect
C. Organization
D. Company
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You are a sales manager who has a large sates team. You want to track when you lose sales to your competitors. Which activity allows you to track your competitors in relationship to a lost opportunity?
A. Resolution activities
B. Phone activities
C. Task activities
D. Email activities
MB2-717 vce Correct Answer: B

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