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QUESTION 1 HOTSPOT Your network contains an Active Directory domain named constoso.com that is synced to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). All computers are enrolled in Microsoft Intune. The domain contains the computers shown in the following table.
You are evaluating which Intune actions you can use to reset the computers to run Windows 10 Enterprise with the latest update. Which computers can you reset by using each action? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 2 Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains computers that run Windows 10 and are enrolled in Microsoft Intune. Updates are deployed by using Windows Update for Business. Users in a group named Group1 must meet the following requirements: Update installations must occur any day only between 00:00 and 05:00. Updates must be downloaded from Microsoft and from other company computers that already downloaded the updates. You need to configure the Windows 10 Update Rings in Intune to meet the requirements. Which two settings should you modify? To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 4 Your company has an infrastructure that has the following: A Microsoft 365 tenant An Active Directory forest Microsoft Store for Business A Key Management Service (KMS) server A Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server A Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Premium tenant The company purchases 100 new computers that run Windows 10. You need to ensure that the new computers are joined automatically to Azure AD by using Windows AutoPilot. What should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 5 You need a new conditional access policy that has an assignment for Office 365 Exchange Online. You need to configure the policy to meet the technical requirements for Group4. Which two settings should you configure in the policy? To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
The policy needs to be applied to Group4 so we need to configure Users and Groups. The Access controls are set to Block access
QUESTION 6 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You create a provisioning package named Package1 as shown in the following exhibit.
What is the maximum number of devices on which you can run Package1 successfully? B. 10 C. 25 D. unlimited Correct Answer: B The device name uses a single random number (applied by %RAND:1%). This allows for 10 unique values (0 ?9).
QUESTION 7 Your company uses Windows AutoPilot to configure the computer settings of computers issued to users. A user named User1 has a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. User1 leaves the company. You plan to transfer the computer to a user named User2. You need to ensure that when User2 first starts the computer, User2 is prompted to select the language setting and to agree to the license agreement. Solution: You create a new Windows AutoPilot self-deploying deployment profile. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-autopilot/self-deploying
QUESTION 8 Your company purchases new computers that run Windows 10. The computers have cameras that support Windows Hello for Business. You configure the Windows Hello for Business Group Policy settings as shown in the following exhibit.
QUESTION 9 Your company uses Windows AutoPilot to configure the computer settings of computers issued to users. A user named User1 has a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. User1 leaves the company. You plan to transfer the computer to a user named User2. You need to ensure that when User2 first starts the computer, User2 is prompted to select the language setting and to agree to the license agreement. Solution: You perform a remote Windows AutoPilot Reset. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-autopilot/windows-autopilot-reset-remote
QUESTION 11 Your company uses Windows Update for Business. The research department has several computers that have specialized hardware and software installed. You need to prevent the video drivers from being updated automatically by using Windows Update. Solution: From the Device Installation and Restrictions settings in a Group Policy object (GPO), you enable Prevent installation of devices using drivers that match these device setup classes, and then you enter the device GUID. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B References: https://www.stigviewer.com/stig/microsoft_windows_server_2012_member_server/2013-07-25/finding/WN12-CC-000024
QUESTION 12 Your company has a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 was used by a user who left the company. You plan to repurpose Computer1 and assign the computer to a new user. You need to redeploy Computer1 by using Windows AutoPilot. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
QUESTION 13 You have 10 computers that run Windows 7 and have the following configurations: A single MBR disk A disabled TPM chip Disabled hardware virtualization UEFI firmware running in BIOS mode Enabled Data Execution Prevention (DEP) You plan to upgrade the computers to Windows 10. You need to ensure that the computers can use Secure Boot. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Convert the MBR disk to a GPT disk B. Enable the TPM chip. C. Disable DEP D. Enable hardware virtualization E. Convert the firmware from BIOS to UEFI. Correct Answer: AE Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/boot-to-uefi-mode-or-legacy-biosmode
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QUESTION 1 You need to configure the server to optimize the afternoon report generation based on the OrderAnalysis cube. Which property should you configure? A. LowMemoryLimit B. VertiPaqPagingPolicy C. TotalMemoryLimit D. VirtualMemoryLimit Correct Answer: A LowMemoryLimit: For multidimensional instances, a lower threshold at which the server first begins releasing memory allocated to infrequently used objects. From scenario: Reports that are generated based on data from the OrderAnalysis cube take more time to complete when they are generated in the afternoon each day. You examine the server and observe that it is under significant memory pressure.
QUESTION 2 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. You have an existing multidimensional cube that provides sales analysis. The users can slice by date, product, location, customer, and employee. The management team plans to evaluate sales employee performance relative to sales targets. You identify the following metrics for employees: You need to implement the KPI based on the Status expression. Solution: You design the following solution:
Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. You have an existing multidimensional cube that provides sales analysis. The users can slice by date, product, location, customer, and employee. The management team plans to evaluate sales employee performance relative to sales targets. You identify the following metrics for employees: You need to implement the KPI based on the Status expression. Solution: You design the following solution:
Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 You are a business analyst for a retail company that uses a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) multidimensional database to track sales. The database contains the following objects:
Your company is developing a promotional plaque to recognize the top resellers in the top 10 cities where the company does business. Each plaque must display the sales total for all resellers in the city. In addition, the plaque must display a total for all cities not in the top 10. You have the following requirements: You need to provide the information needed for the promotional plaques. How should you complete the MDX statement? To answer, drag the appropriate MDX segments to the correct locations. Each MDX segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 5 You need to configure the project option settings to minimize deployment time for the CustomerAnalysis data model. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate setting from each list in the answer area. Hot Area:
Scenario: Box 1, Processing option:Default Process Default detects the process state of database objects, and performs processing necessary to deliver unprocessed or partially processed objects to a fully processed state. If you change a data binding, Process Default will do a Process Full on the affected object. Note: Processing Method This setting controls whether the deployed objects are processed after deployment and the type of processing that will be performed. There are three processing options: Default processing (default) Full processing None Box 2, Transactional deployment: False If this option is False, Analysis Services deploys the metadata changes in a single transaction, and deploys each processing command in its own transaction. Scenario: The CustomerAnalysis data model will contain a large amount of data and needs to be shared with other developers even if a deployment fails. Each time you deploy a change during development, processing takes a long time. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/analysis-services/multidimensionalmodels/deployment-script-filesspecifying-processing-options
QUESTION 6 A database named DB2 uses the InMemory query mode. Users frequently run the following query:
You need to ensure no users see the PriorYearSales measure in the field list for the Sales table. What should you do? A. Create a perspective, and ensure that the PriorYearSales measure is not added to the perspective. Ensure that users connect to the model by using the perspective. B. Set the Display Folder property for PriorYearSales toHidden. C. Remove the PriorYearSales measure from the default field set of the Sales table. D. Create a role using Read permissions, and define a DAX expression to filter out the PriorYearSales measure. Add all users to the role. Correct Answer: A Using perspectives in the data model might help you expose a subset of tables, columns, and measures that are useful for a particular type of analysis. Usually, every user needs only a subset of data you create, and showing him or her the model through perspectives can offer a better user experience. From scenario; The PriorYearSales measure is referenced by other measures, and is not intended to be analyzed directly by users. References: Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Analysis Services, The BISM Tabular Model, Microsoft Press (July 2012), page 305
QUESTION 7 You have a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) multidimensional project. You are developing a dimension that uses data from the following table:
The ManagerKey column defines a foreign key constraint that references the EmployeeKey column. The table stores employee history information by using slowly changing dimensions (SCD). Changes to EmployeeName, Phone, or ManagerKey are managed as SCD Type 1 changes. Changes to SalesRegion are managed as SCD Type 2 changes. You create the following attributes, and set the KeyColumns and NameColumn properties to the columns listed in the table below:
You need to add a parent-child hierarchy to the dimension to enable navigating the organization hierarchy. In the table below, identify the attribute that you must use for each attribute usage type. NOTE: Make only one selection in each column. Hot Area:
The ManagerKey column, the Manager attribute, defines a foreign key constraint that references the EmployeeKey column, the Employee attribute.
QUESTION 8 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. You have a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) multidimensional database that stores customer and order data for customers in the United States only. The database contains the following objects:
You must create a KPI named Large Sales Target that uses the Traffic Light indicator to display status. The KPI must contain:
Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You administer a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) tabular model for a travel agency that specializes in vacation packages. Vacation bookings and packages are stored in a SQL Server database. You use the model as the basis for customer emails that highlight vacation packages that are currently underbooked, or projected to be underbooked. The company plans to incorporate cruise ship vacation packages. Cruise ship vacation packages include new features such as region availability and cruise line specialties that require changes to the tabular model. You must ensure that the tabular model reflects the new vacation packages. You need to configure the tabular data model. What should you do? A. Ensure that DirectQuery is enabled for the model. B. Ensure that DirectQuery is disabled for the model. C. Ensure that the Transactional Deployment property is set to True. D. Ensure that the Transactional Deployment property is set to False. E. Process the model in Process Full mode. F. Process the model in Process Data mode. G. Process the model in Process Defrag mode. Correct Answer: E Process Full processes an Analysis Services object and all the objects that it contains. When Process Full is executed against an object that has already been processed, Analysis Services drops all data in the object, and then processes the object. This kind of processing is required when a structural change has been made to an object, for example, when an attribute hierarchy is added, deleted, or renamed.
QUESTION 10 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. A company has an e-commerce website. When a customer places an order, information about the transaction is inserted into tables in a Microsoft SQL Server relational database named OLTP1. The company has a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) instance that is configured to use Tabular mode. SSAS uses data from OLTP1 to populate a data model. Sales analysts build reports based on the SSAS model. Reports must be able to access data as soon as it is available in the relational database. You need to configure and deploy an Analysis Services project to the Analysis Services instance that allows near realtime data source access. Solution: In the Deployment Option property for the report, you set the Query Mode to InMemory. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B With InMemory the queries can use the cache only. References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/enus/library/hh230898(v=sql.120).aspx
QUESTION 11 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. You deploy a tabular data model to an instance of Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS). The model uses an in-memory cache to store and query data. The data set is already the same size as the available RAM on the server. Data volumes are likely to continue to increase rapidly. Your data model contains multiple calculated tables. The data model must begin processing each day at 2:00 and processing should be complete by 4:00 the same day. You observe that the data processing operation often does not complete before 7:00. This is adversely affecting team members. You need to improve the performance. Solution: Change the storage mode for the data model to DirectQuery. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A By default, tabular models use an in-memory cache to store and query data. When tabular models query data residing in-memory, even complex queries can be incredibly fast. However, there are some limitations to using cached data. Namely, large data sets can exceed available memory, and data freshness requirements can be difficult if not impossible to achieve on a regular processing schedule. DirectQuery overcomes these limitations while also leveraging RDBMS features making query execution more efficient. With DirectQuery: + Data is up-to-date, and there is no extra management overhead of having to maintain a separate copy of the data (in the in-memory cache). Changes to the underlying source data can be immediately reflected in queries against the data model. Datasets can be larger than the memory capacity of an Analysis Services server. Etc. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/analysis-services/tabular-models/directquery-mode-ssas-tabular
QUESTION 12 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) instance that is configured to use multidimensional mode. You create the following cube:
Users need to be able to analyze sales by color. You need to create a dimension that contains all of the colors for products sold by the company. Which relationship type should you use between the InternetSales table and the new dimension? A. no relationship B. regular C. fact D. referenced E. many-to-many F. data mining Correct Answer: B A regular dimension relationship between a cube dimension and a measure group exists when the key column for the dimension is joined directly to the fact table. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/analysisservices/multidimensional-models-olap-logical-cube-objects/dimension-relationships
QUESTION 13 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) instance that is configured to use multidimensional mode. You create the following cube:
Users need to be able to analyze sales by product and color. You need to create the dimension. Which relationship type should you use between the InternetSales table and the new dimension? A. no relationship B. regular C. fact D. referenced E. many-to-many F. data mining Correct Answer: D A reference dimension relationship between a cube dimension and a measure group exists when the key column for the dimension is joined indirectly to the fact table through a key in another dimension table, as shown in the following illustration.
A reference dimension relationship represents the relationship between dimension tables and a fact table in a snowflake schema design. When dimension tables are connected in a snowflake schema, you can define a single dimension using columns from multiple tables, or you can define separate dimensions based on the separate dimension tables and then define a link between them using the reference dimension relationship setting. The following figure shows one fact table named InternetSales, and two dimension tables called Customer and Geography, in a snowflake schema.
You can create two dimensions related to the InternetSales measure group: a dimension based on the Customer table, and a dimension based on the Geography table. You can then relate the Geography dimension to the InternetSales measure group using a reference dimension relationship using the Customer dimension.
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QUESTION 1 An organization has a need to provide additional infrastructure resources at various times throughout the year. But they do not want to use these additional resources unless they are needed. The organization is considering a cloud deployment. What cloud characteristic directly addresses this need? A. Rapid Elasticity B. IaaS C. On-demand Self-service D. Hybrid cloud Correct Answer: A Reference: click here
QUESTION 2 What contributes to improved capacity management for converged infrastructure? A. Upgrade flexibility B. Software-defined storage C. ScaleIO software D. Physical storage array Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 A systems administrator is deploying a new Dell EMC Hyper-Converged Infrastructure appliance. The appliance is ideally suited for remote office and back-office operations (ROBO). Which VxRail appliance model is it? A. P Series B. G Series C. E Series D. V Series Correct Answer: C Reference: click here
QUESTION 4 VxBlock compute servers use which storage access topology to boot the operating system? A. NAS B. iSCSI SAN C. LAN D. FC SAN Correct Answer: D Reference: click here
QUESTION 5 Which EMC Hyper-Converged system has an architecture based on modular building blocks, enabling deployments to be scaled linearly from 1 to 32 appliances using customer network switches? A. VxRack SDDC B. VxRack FLEX C. Vision Intelligent System D. VxRail Correct Answer: D Reference: click here
QUESTION 6 Which cloud deployment model allows a company to rapidly expand capacity while maintaining full control of their infrastructure? A. Public cloud B. IaaS C. Rapid Elasticity D. Private cloud Correct Answer: B Reference: click here
QUESTION 7 What is a goal of applying artificial intelligence (AI) to Workforce Transformation? A. Make the workforce more self-managing B. Remove borders in order for the workforce to be selected from across the globe C. Help the workforce recognize problems and proactively improve customer value D. Reduce the workforce by replacing employees with robots Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 What is a goal of IT Transformation? A. IT becomes more of a consultant to the business B. IT minimizes security risks involved with mobile data C. IT implements a Software as a Service solution D. IT manages BigData analytics projects to drive growth Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 What would cause an IT organization to pursue digital disruption? A. Currently having a flexible organization structure B. Experiencing stable operational costs C. Experiencing increasing resource maintenance costs D. Maintaining current vendor relationships being a priority Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 What is one factor that differentiates Dell EMC Converged Infrastructure (CI) from Dell EMC Hyper-Converged Infrastructure (HCI)? A. HCI uses software-defined storage architecture B. CI uses all-Flash storage devices C. HCI does not include physical switches D. CI allows for greater scalability Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1 You are a cloud architect responsible for designing a multiple availability zone configuration for the organization\\’s geographically dispersed clouds. You must provide the ability for services to survive a failure at the data center or site level. The the primary requirement is to provide for automated site recovery. What is a key consideration for automating the setup, failover, and recovery of services at the remote site? A. When implementing automated site recovery, you must have automated orchestration of site failback processes B. The number of storage volumes in the DR site must be identical in number and size to the primary site. C. The recovery site must have sufficient available capacity to host workloads after a disaster at the primary site. D. The DR site must contain the same vendor hardware as the primary site. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 DRAG DROP As part of the planning process, a cloud architect may use tools to gather data from customer systems. Match each tool with its associated description. Select and Place
QUESTION 3 An organization wants to provide its developers with the ability to deploy VMs. These VMs have software and libraries installed that are used to develop applications. Each VM will be configured with the same IP address and will be able to download application code from a central server. What will be included in the design to support these requirements? A. VXLANs and an OS firewall B. VXLANs and virtual firewall appliances C. VLANs and virtual IDS appliances D. VSANs and virtual IDS appliances Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 What is a deliverable of the cloud design process? A. Training for IT staff B. Operational procedures C. Lower infrastructure costs D. Reduced time to market Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 During an assessment for an organization\\’s cloud design, a cloud architect discovers that developers will be creating applications for tenants. The applications will self-scale based on an internal trigger. The architect has included CMP components in the design that will support this requirement. What else should the cloud architect consider to meet this requirement? A. CMP account with elevated privileges exists that can be shared with developers B. Mechanisms exist for changing the type of consumer resources automatically C. Mechanisms exist for re-installing CMP components for scaling D. Sufficient consumer resources exist to support the application elasticity Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Case 1 Refer to the exhibit.
Your company recently negotiated several contracts with new customers to use its proprietary eCommerce system. As a the result, the customer base has grown rapidly, which has introduced several challenges and requirements. Business requirements: Applications need to scale quickly Metrics and reporting to anticipate business trends and efficient use of resources External customers are looking to license the eCommerce application Other considerations: Applications need to be recorded for the public cloud Address security vulnerabilities for customer data in the cloud Refer to Case 1. You are designing a transformation from Platform 2.0 to cloud. You review the existing infrastructure and business requirements. You must define the method to connect the on-premises network directly to the public cloud provider. Which technology should you select? A. KMS B. IDPS C. MPLS D. IPSec VPN Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 An organization wants to have showback capability in their private cloud. Which cloud management platform component should be included in the cloud design to support this requirement? A. SSO B. Service catalog C. Metering application D. Monitoring application Correct Answer: C
Note: IT chargeback is an accounting strategy that applies the costs of IT hardware, software, cloud services, or shared services to the business unit in which they are used. IT show back is similar to IT chargeback, but the prices are for informational purposes only and no one is billed. References: click here
QUESTION 8 In which cloud design lifecycle phase is business value analysis performed? A. Understand the requirements B. Plan and design C. Implementation D. Validation Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 You are creating a cloud infrastructure design for an organization. You learn that, for compliance reasons, the organization needs to maintain a separate set of infrastructures for certain deployed services. Which part of the design will be impacted by this requirement? A. Number of computing pools B. Number of service catalogs C. Over-commitment ratio D. Service catalog sizing Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 What is the minimum number of nodes supported for an HCI deployment with RAID 5 erasure coding? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 Correct Answer: B Reference: click here
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QUESTION 1 When configuring a PBR route-map, what are the configurable “SET” options? A. set ip source, set ip next-hop, and set ip default next-hop B. set ip next-hop, set ip source, and set ip precedence C. set ip next-hop, set ip default next-hop, and set ip precedence D. set ip source, set ip default next-hop and set ip precedence Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which function does a VRRP backup router perform? A. Sends keepalive advertisements to the other backup routers B. Processes and response to ARP requests C. Forwards packets to the Master with a destination IP of the virtual IP address D. Receives packets with the virtual MAC address as the destination for other backup routers Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 How does the weighted Queue Scheduler prioritize packets? A. Scheduler prioritizes weighted queues over any strict queues B. Weights are calculated based on the number of packets C. Weights are used to calculate the number of bytes D. Weight is assigned to each port Correct Answer: C Reference: click here
QUESTION 4 Which packet characteristics can policy-based routing be configured to match against? A. TTL, TCP Port, and L3 Packet Length B. L3 Packet Length, TTL, and 802.1p Priority C. TCP Port, L3 Packet Length, and 802.1p Priority D. TCP Port, TTL, and 802.1p Priority Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Which port security method converts existing dynamically learned MAC addresses on an interface to this mode and not age out? A. Static B. MAC address C. Sticky D. Dynamic Correct Answer: D Reference: click here
QUESTION 6 You need to configure OSPF on a DNOS 6 switch and have entered the following: Switch-1(config)# ip routing Switch-1(config)# interface vlan 20 Switch-1(config-if-vlan20)# ip address 10.1.20.1 255.255.255.0 Switch-1(config)# router ospf Switch-1(config-router)# router-id 10.1.1.1 Based on the information referenced above, what is missing from the configuration? A. area 0 is missing from the ip routing command B. ip ospf area 0 is missing from the interface vlan 20 section C. router ospf is missing the routing instance D. area 0 is missing from the router-id command Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 What is the recommended maximum number of routers, per area, when using OSPF? A. 50 B. 100 C. 200 D. 255 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 A network administrator is setting up a Class 5 powered device in their network. Which Dell EMC N-Serves switch model(s) will support this device? A. N1100P and N2000P B. N1500P C. N2000 and N3000P D. N3000P only Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Refer to the Exhibit.
A network administrator needs to configure the switches to allow traffic to communicate from Host 1 to Host 2. Which recommended switch port mode should the interconnecting switch ports be configured? A. Access B. Trunk C. VLAN Stacking D. Hybrid Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which switchport mode is recommended for ports on a Dell EMC N-Series switch with IP phones using voice VLAN? A. Access B. Active C. Hybrid D. General Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 DRAG DROP An organization uses Azure Machine Learning service and wants to expand its use of machine learning. You have the following compute environments. The organization does not want to create another compute environment.
You need to determine which compute environment to use for the following scenarios. Which compute types should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate compute environments to the correct scenarios. Each computing environment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Box 1: nb_server Box 2: mlc_cluster With Azure Machine Learning, you can train your model on a variety of resources or environments, collectively referred to as compute targets. A computing target can be a local machine or a cloud resource, such as an Azure Machine Learning Compute, Azure HDInsight, or a remote virtual machine.
QUESTION 3 You need to visually identify whether outliers exist in the Age column and quantify the outliers before the outliers are removed. Which three Azure Machine Learning Studio modules should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Create Scatterplot B. Summarize Data C. Clip Values D. Replace Discrete Values E. Build Counting Transform Correct Answer: ABC B: To have a global view, the summarize data module can be used. Add the module and connect it to the data set that needs to be visualized. A: One way to quickly identify Outliers visually is to create scatter plots. C: The easiest way to treat the outliers in Azure ML is to use the Clip Values module. It can identify and optionally replace data values that are above or below a specified threshold. You can use the Clip Values module in Azure Machine Learning Studio, to identify and optionally replace data values that are above or below a specified threshold. This is useful when you want to remove outliers or replace them with a mean, a constant, or other substitute value. References: https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/azuredev/2017/05/27/data-cleansing-tools-in-azure-machine-learning/ https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/clip-values Question Set 3
QUESTION 4 You have a dataset created for multiclass classification tasks that contains a normalized numerical feature set with 10,000 data points and 150 features. You use 75 percent of the data points for training and 25 percent for testing. You are using the scikit-learn machine learning library in Python. You use X to denote the feature set and Y to denote class labels. You create the following Python data frames:
You need to apply the Principal Component Analysis (PCA) method to reduce the dimensionality of the feature set to 10 features in both training and testing sets. How should you complete the code segment? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Box 1: PCA(n_components = 10) Need to reduce the dimensionality of the feature set to 10 features in both training and testing sets. Example: from sklearn.decomposition import PCA pca = PCA(n_components=2) ;2 dimensions principalComponents = pca.fit_transform(x) Box 2: pca fit_transform(X[, y])fits the model with X and apply the dimensionality reduction on X. Box 3: transform(x_test) transform(X) applies dimensionality reduction to X. References: https://scikit-learn.org/stable/modules/generated/sklearn.decomposition.PCA.html
QUESTION 5 HOTSPOT You deploy a model in Azure Container Instance. You must use the Azure Machine Learning SDK to call the model API. You need to invoke the deployed model using native SDK classes and methods. How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer areas. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 6 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You create a model to forecast weather conditions based on historical data. You need to create a pipeline that runs a processing script to load data from a datastore and pass the processed data to a machine learning model training script. Solution: Run the following code:
Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A The two steps are present: process_step and train_step Data_input correctly references the data in the data store. Note: Data used in pipeline can be produced by one step and consumed in another step by providing a PipelineData object as an output of one step and an input of one or more subsequent steps. PipelineData objects are also used when constructing Pipelines to describe step dependencies. To specify that a step requires the output of another step as input, use a PipelineData object in the constructor of both steps. For example, the pipeline train step depends on the process_step_output output of the pipeline process step: from azureml.pipeline.core import Pipeline, PipelineData from azureml.pipeline.steps import PythonScriptStep datastore = ws.get_default_datastore() process_step_output = PipelineData(“processed_data”, datastore=datastore) process_step = PythonScriptStep(script_name=”process.py”, arguments=[“–data_for_train”, process_step_output], outputs=[process_step_output], compute_target=aml_compute, source_directory=process_directory) train_step = PythonScriptStep(script_name=”train.py”, arguments=[“–data_for_train”, process_step_output], inputs=[process_step_output], compute_target=aml_compute, source_directory=train_directory) pipeline = Pipeline(workspace=ws, steps=[process_step, train_step]) Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/python/api/azureml-pipeline-core/azureml.pipeline.core.pipelinedata?view=azure-mlpy
QUESTION 7 HOTSPOT You are using Azure Machine Learning to train machine learning models. You need to compute the target on which to remotely run the training script. You run the following Python code:
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Box 1: Yes The compute is created within your workspace region as a resource that can be shared with other users. Box 2: Yes It is displayed as a compute cluster. View compute targets 1. To see all compute targets for your workspace, use the following steps: 2. Navigate to Azure Machine Learning studio. 3. Under Manage, select Compute. 4. Select tabs at the top to show each type of computing target.
QUESTION 8 HOTSPOT You are performing a classification task in Azure Machine Learning Studio. You must prepare balanced testing and training samples based on a provided data set. You need to split the data with a 0.75:0.25 ratio. Which value should you use for each parameter? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Box 1: Split rows Use the Split Rows option if you just want to divide the data into two parts. You can specify the percentage of data to put in each split, but by default, the data is divided 50-50. You can also randomize the selection of rows in each group, and use stratified sampling. In stratified sampling, you must select a single column of data for which you want values to be apportioned equally among the two result datasets. Box 2: 0.75 If you specify a number as a percentage, or if you use a string that contains the “%” character, the value is interpreted as a percentage. All percentage values must be within the range (0, 100), not including the values 0 and 100. Box 3: Yes To ensure splits are balanced. Box 4: No If you use the option for a stratified split, the output datasets can be further divided by subgroups, by selecting a strata column. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/split-data
QUESTION 9 You use the Azure Machine Learning Studio to build a machine learning experiment. You need to divide data into two distinct datasets. Which module should you use? A. Assign Data to Clusters B. Load Trained Model C. Partition and Sample D. Tune Model-Hyperparameters Correct Answer: C Partition and Sample with the Stratified split option outputs multiple datasets, partitioned using the rules you specified. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/partition-and-sample
QUESTION 10 You are creating a binary classification by using a two-class logistic regression model. You need to evaluate the model results for imbalance. Which evaluation metric should you use? A. Relative Absolute Error B. AUC Curve C. Mean Absolute Error D. Relative Squared Error E. Accuracy F. Root Mean Square Error Correct Answer: B One can inspect the true positive rate vs. the false positive rate in the Receiver Operating Characteristic (ROC) curve and the corresponding Area Under the Curve (AUC) value. The closer this curve is to the upper left corner, the better the classifier\\’s performance is (that is maximizing the true positive rate while minimizing the false positive rate). Curves that are close to the diagonal of the plot, result from classifiers that tend to make predictions that are close to random guessing. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio/evaluate-model-performance#evaluating-a-binaryclassification-model
QUESTION 11 You are solving a classification task. You must evaluate your model on a limited data sample by using k-fold cross-validation. You start by configuring a k parameter as the number of splits. You need to configure the k parameter for the cross-validation. Which value should you use? A. k=0.5 B. k=0.01 C. k=5 D. k=1 Correct Answer: C Leave One Out (LOO) cross-validation Setting K = n (the number of observations) yields n-fold and is called leave-one-out cross-validation (LOO), a special case of the K-fold approach. LOO CV is sometimes useful but typically doesn\\’t shake up the data enough. The estimates from each fold are highly correlated and hence their average can have high variance. This is why the usual choice is K=5 or 10. It provides a good compromise for the bias-variance tradeoff.
QUESTION 12 You are creating a machine learning model. You have a dataset that contains null rows. You need to use the Clean Missing Data module in Azure Machine Learning Studio to identify and resolve the null and missing data in the dataset. Which parameter should you use? A. Replace with mean B. Remove entire column C. Remove entire row D. Hot Deck E. Custom substitution value F. Replace with mode Correct Answer: C Remove entire row: Completely removes any row in the dataset that has one or more missing values. This is useful if the missing value can be considered randomly missing. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/clean-missing-data
QUESTION 13 You are implementing a machine learning model to predict stock prices. The model uses a PostgreSQL database and requires GPU processing. You need to create a virtual machine that is pre-configured with the required tools. What should you do? A. Create a Data Science Virtual Machine (DSVM) Windows edition. B. Create a Geo Al Data Science Virtual Machine (Geo-DSVM) Windows edition. C. Create a Deep Learning Virtual Machine (DLVM) Linux edition. D. Create a Deep Learning Virtual Machine (DLVM) Windows edition. Correct Answer: A In the DSVM, your training models can use deep learning algorithms on hardware that\\’s based on graphics processing units (GPUs). PostgreSQL is available for the following operating systems: Linux (all recent distributions), 64-bit installers available for macOS (OS X) version 10.6 and newer? Windows (with installers available for 64-bit version; tested on latest versions and back to Windows 2012 R2. Incorrect Answers: B: The Azure Geo AI Data Science VM (Geo-DSVM) delivers geospatial analytics capabilities from Microsoft\\’s Data Science VM. Specifically, this VM extends the AI and data science toolkits in the Data Science VM by adding ESRI\\’s market-leading ArcGIS Pro Geographic Information System. C, D: DLVM is a template on top of the DSVM image. In terms of the packages, GPU drivers, etc are all there in the DSVM image. Mostly it is for convenience during creation where we only allow DLVM to be created on GPU VM instances on Azure. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/data-science-virtual-machine/overview
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QUESTION 1 An organization is looking to build its second head office another city, which has a history flooding with an average of two flooding every 100 years. The estimated building cost is $1 million, an the estimated damage due to flooding is half of the building\\’s cost. Given this information, which of the following is the SLE? A. $50,000 B. $250,000 C. $500,000 D. $1,000,000 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which of the following is a deployment concept that can be used to ensure only the required OS access is exposed to software applications? A. Staging environment B. Sandboxing C. Secure baseline D. Trusted OS Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 An attacker captures the encrypted communication between two parties for a week, but is unable to decrypt the messages. The attacker then compromises the session key during one exchange and successfully compromises a single message. The attacker plans to use this key to decrypt previously captured and future communications, but is unable to. This is because the encryption scheme in use adheres to: A. Asymmetric encryption B. Out-of-band key exchange C. Perfect forward secrecy D. Secure key escrow Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which of the following explains why vendors publish MD5 values when they provide software patches for their customers to download over the Internet? A. The recipient can verify integrity of the software patch. B. The recipient can verify the authenticity of the site used to download the patch. C. The recipient can request future updates to the software using the published MD5 value. D. The recipient can successfully activate the new software patch. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 A company recently implemented a new security system. In the course of configuration, the security administrator adds the following entry: #Whitelist USB\VID_13FEandPID_4127andREV_0100 Which of the following security technologies is MOST likely being configured? A. Application whitelisting B. HIDS C. Data execution prevention D. Removable media control Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 In terms of encrypting data, which of the following is BEST described as a way to safeguard password data by adding random data to it in storage? A. Using salt B. Using hash algorithms C. Implementing elliptical curve D. Implementing PKI Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 An organization wants to set up a wireless network in the most secure way. Budget is not a major consideration, and the organization is willing to accept some complexity when clients are connecting. It is also willing to deny wireless connectivity for clients who cannot be connected in the most secure manner. Which of the following would be the MOST secure setup that conforms to the organization\\’s requirements? A. Enable WPA2-PSK for older clients and WPA2-Enterprise for all other clients. B. Enable WPA2-PSK, disable all other modes, and implement MAC filtering along with port security. C. Use WPA2-Enterprise with RADIUS and disable pre-shared keys. D. Use WPA2-PSK with a 24-character complex password and change the password monthly. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 A Chief Information Officer (CIO) has decided it is not cost effective to implement safeguards against a known vulnerability. Which of the following risk responses does this BEST describe? A. Transference B. Avoidance C. Mitigation D. Acceptance Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 A datacenter recently experienced a breach. When access was gained, an RF device was used to access an air-gapped and locked server rack. Which of the following would BEST prevent this type of attack? A. Faraday cage B. Smart cards C. Infrared detection D. Alarms Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 A security administrator needs to address the following audit recommendations for a public-facing SFTP server: Users should be restricted to upload and download files to their own home directories only. Users should not be allowed to use interactive shell login. Which of the following configuration parameters should be implemented? (Select TWO). A. PermitTunnel B. ChrootDirectory C. PermitTTY D. AllowTcpForwarding E. IgnoreRhosts Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 11 Following the successful response to a data-leakage incident, the incident team lead facilitates an exercise that focuses on continuous improvement of the organization\\’s incident response capabilities. Which of the following activities has the incident team lead executed? A. Lessons learned review B. Root cause analysis C. Incident audit D. Corrective action exercise Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 A systems administrator is attempting to recover from a catastrophic failure in the datacenter. To recover the domain controller, the systems administrator needs to provide the domain administrator credentials. Which of the following account types is the systems administrator using? A. Local account B. Guest account C. Service account D. User account Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Determine the types of attacks below by selecting an option from the dropdown list. Determine the types of Attacks from right to a specific action. Select and Place:
A. Phishing. B. Whaling. C. Vishing. D. Spim. E. Social engineering. A: Phishing is the act of sending an email to a user falsely claiming to be an established legitimate enterprise in an attempt to scam the user into surrendering private information that will be used for identity theft. Phishing email will direct the user to visit a website where they are asked to update personal information, such as a password, credit card, social security, or bank account numbers, that the legitimate organization already has. The website, however, is bogus and set up only to steal the information the user enters on the page. B: Whaling is a specific kind of malicious hacking within the more general category of phishing, which involves hunting for data that can be used by the hacker. In general, phishing efforts are focused on collecting personal data about users. In whaling, the targets are high-ranking bankers, executives or others in powerful positions or job titles. Hackers who engage in whaling often describe these efforts as “reeling in a big fish,” applying a familiar metaphor to the process of scouring technologies for loopholes and opportunities for data theft. Those who are engaged in whaling may, for example, hack into specific networks where these powerful individuals work or store sensitive data. They may also set up keylogging or other malware on a work station associated with one of these executives. There are many ways that hackers can pursue whaling, leading C-level or top-level executives in business and government to stay vigilant about the possibility of cyber threats. C: Vishing is the act of using the telephone in an attempt to scam the user into surrendering private information that will be used for identity theft. The scammer usually pretends to be a legitimate business, and fools the victim into thinking he or she will profit. D: SPIM is a term sometimes used to refer to spam over IM (Instant Messaging). It\\’s also called just spam, instant spam, or IM marketing. No matter what the name, it consists of unwanted messages transmitted through some form of instant messaging service, which can include Short Message Service (SMS). E: Social engineering is a non-technical method of intrusion hackers use that relies heavily on human interaction and often involves tricking people into breaking normal security procedures. It is one of the greatest threats that organizations today encounter. A social engineer runs what used to be called a “con game.” For example, a person using social engineering to break into a computer network might try to gain the confidence of an authorized user and get them to reveal information that compromises the network\\’s security. Social engineers often rely on the natural helpfulness of people as well as on their weaknesses. They might, for example, call the authorized employee with some kind of urgent problem that requires immediate network access. Appealing to vanity, appealing to authority, appealing to greed, and old-fashioned eavesdropping are other typical social engineering techniques. References: http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/P/phishing.html http://www.techopedia.com/definition/28643/whaling http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/V/vishing.html http://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/social-engineering
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Latest questions of the Microsoft Role-based MS-100 exam
QUESTION 1 You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com that includes a user named User1. You enable multi-factor authentication for contoso.com and configure the following two fraud alert settings: Set Allow users to submit fraud alerts: On Automatically block users who report fraud: On You need to instruct the users in your organization to use the fraud reporting features correctly. What should you tell the users to do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 3 Your network contains an Active Directory domain and a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. The network uses a firewall that contains a list of allowed outbound domains. You begin to implement directory synchronization. You discover that the firewall configuration contains only the following domain names in the list of allowed domains: *.microsoft.com *.office.com Directory synchronization fails. You need to ensure that directory synchronization completes successfully. What is the best approach to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer. A. From the firewall, allow the IP address range of the Azure data center for outbound communication. B. From Azure AD Connect, modify the Customize synchronization options task. C. Deploy an Azure AD Connect sync server in staging mode. D. From the firewall, create a list of allowed inbound domains. E. From the firewall, modify the list of allowed outbound domains. Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4 You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to prevent phishing email messages from being delivered to your organization. What should you do? A. From the Exchange admin center, create an anti-malware policy. B. From Security and Compliance, create a DLP policy. C. From Security and Compliance, create a new threat management policy. D. From the Exchange admin center, create a spam filter policy. Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/set-up-anti-phishing-policies
QUESTION 5 Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 tenant. You suspect that several Office 365 features were recently updated. You need to view a list of the features that were recently updated in the tenant. Solution: You use Dashboard in Security and Compliance. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain that is synced to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) as shown in the following exhibit.
An on-premises Active Directory user account named Allan Yoo is synchronized to Azure AD. You view Allan\\’s account from Microsoft 365 and notice that his username is set to [email protected] For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 7 Your company has offices in several cities and 100,000 users. The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You purchase Microsoft 365 and plan to deploy several Microsoft 365 services. You are evaluating the implementation of pass-through authentication and seamless SSO. Azure AD Connect will NOT be in staging mode. You need to identify the redundancy limits for the planned implementation. What should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 8 You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to implement Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) for all the supported devices enrolled devices enrolled on mobile device management (MDM). What should you include in the device configuration profile? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 9 Your company has 10 offices. The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 500 client computers. Each office is configured as a separate subnet. You discover that one of the offices has the following: Computers that have several preinstalled applications Computers that use nonstandard computer names Computers that have Windows 10 preinstalled Computers that are in a workgroup You must configure the computers to meet the following corporate requirements: All the computers must be joined to the domain. All the computers must have computer names that use a prefix of CONTOSO. All the computers must only have approved corporate applications installed. You need to recommend a solution to redeploy the computers. The solution must minimize the deployment time. A. a provisioning package B. wipe and load refresh C. Windows Autopilot D. an in-place upgrade Correct Answer: A By using a Provisioning, IT administrators can create a self-contained package that contains all of the configuration, settings, and apps that need to be applied to a device. Incorrect Answers: C: With Windows Autopilot the user can set up pre-configure devices without the need consult their IT administrator. D: Use the In-Place Upgrade option when you want to keep all (or at least most) existing applications. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-10-deployment-scenarios https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-autopilot/windows-autopilot
QUESTION 10 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 tenant. You suspect that several Office 365 features were recently updated. You need to view a list of the features that were recently updated in the tenant. Solution: You use Monitoring and reports from the Compliance admin center. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You need to assign User2 the required roles to meet the security requirements. Solution: From the Office 365 admin center, you assign User2 the Security Administrator role. From the Exchange admin center, you add User2 to the View-Only Organization Management role. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 You have a Microsoft 365 Enterprise subscription. You have a conditional access policy to force multi-factor authentication when accessing Microsoft SharePoint from a mobile device. You need to view which users authenticated by using multi-factor authentication. What should you do? A. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, view the Security and Compliance reports. B. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, view the user sign-ins. C. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, view the Usage reports. D. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, view the audit logs. Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-reporting
QUESTION 13 You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com. An external user has a Microsoft account that uses an email address of [email protected] An administrator named Admin1 attempts to create a user account for the external user and receives the error message shown in the following exhibit.
You need to ensure that Admin1 can add the user. What should you do from the Azure Active Directory admin center? A. Add a custom domain name named outlook.com. B. Modify the Authentication methods. C. Modify the External collaboration settings. D. Assign Admin1 the Security administrator role. Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 Which of the following can you not do with Logging Assistant? A. Setup debugging logging B. Collect logs C. View log contents D. Disable debug logging Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which characteristic applies to a catalog backup? A. Catalog staging files deleted after a successful catalog backup. B. A catalog backup can be configured to send disaster recovery information to an e-mail address. C. A catalog backup must fit on a single tape. D. A catalog backup shuts down the NetBackup database. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which backup storage is unsupported with media server load balancing? A. BasicDisk B. Media Server Deduplication Pool C. AdvancedDisk D. Media Manager storage Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Backups to a storage device fail with the following error message: Disk storage server is down (2106) The storage server is an OpenStorage (OST) host, and the master server and media server are both acting as media servers under Credentials > Storage Servers in the NetBackup Administration Console. The disk pool is in an Up state and the storage server is in a Down state. Troubleshooting confirmed the OST plug-ins on the servers are mismatched. Which command should an administrator use to check the plug-in version installed on the servers? A. bpgetconfig B. nbemmcmd C. nbdevquery D. bpstsinfo Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which statement is true about client-side deduplication? A. It forces the media server to perform the fingerprinting thereby reducing the processing work for the client. B. It may significantly reduce the bandwidth used by backups between the client and media server. C. It requires an additional license for each client. D. It is not a recommended option. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Which storage unit group selection causes NetBackup to choose the least recently selected storage unit in the list as each new job is started? A. Prioritized B. Failover C. Round Robin D. Media Server Load Balancing Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 NetBackup has frozen some of the tapes added to the robot. Which log must be enabled to determine why the tapes were frozen? A. ltid B. robots C. bptm D. vmd Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Which action is performed by the NetBackup deduplication plug-in? A. writing data segments into the MSDP containers. B. processing MSDP transaction logs. C. performing file fingerprinting actions. D. performing queue processing. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 An administrator needs to store secure tape copies of protected data to an offsite location. How can the administrator automatically eject tape media daily and create detailed reports? A. encrypt the tapes using software encryption and use a storage lifecycle policy to perform automatic ejects and create reports. B. enable the encryption attribute on the vault policy to perform automated ejects and create reports. C. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a vault policy to perform automated ejects and create reports. D. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a storage lifecycle policy to perform automated ejects and create reports. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Refer to the exhibit. A backup policy uses a Full backup schedule with a schedule type of Frequency: 1 day. The start window for the schedule is configured as shown in the exhibit:
The administrator runs a manual backup at 10:00 on Thursday. When will the next backup run, if all prior backups completed successfully? A. Friday at 2:00 B. Friday at 10:00 C. Monday at 2:00 D. Monday at 1:00 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which statement is false about NetBackup deduplication? A. Deduplication can be performed at the disk block level. B. Fingerprinting of data can be performed on the server side as well as the client side. C. Deduplication uses a capacity-based license. D. Media server deduplication has only been available since NetBackup 7.0. Correct Answer: A Deduplication can be performed at the file and sub-file or segment level. QUESTION 12 An administrator has created a new policy to back up Windows clients, and has created a single automatic schedule. On the scheduled date, the administrator notices that the backup job fails to launch automatically as expected. Which debug log file should the administrator view to determine why the backup job failed to launch? A. nbpem B. nbjm C. nbrb D. nbemm Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 What happens if the “Maximum data streams” property is enabled in the General tab of Client Attributes for a particular client? A. NetBackup ignores “Maximum concurrent jobs” per storage unit and uses either “Limit jobs per policy” or “Maximum data streams”, whichever is lowest. B. NetBackup ignores “Maximum jobs per client” and uses either “Maximum data streams” or “Limit jobs per policy”, whichever is lowest. C. NetBackup ignores “Maximum concurrent jobs” per storage unit and uses “Maximum jobs per client” or the “Limit jobs per policy”, whichever is lowest. D. NetBackup ignores “Limit jobs per policy” and uses either “Maximum data streams” or “Maximum jobs per client”, whichever is lowest. Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows an N-to-1 cluster configuration, in which nodes are connected to storage devices via dual-hosted SCSI cables. Why is this an inefficient configuration?
A. Storage should be shared by more than two nodes, obtaining a N+1 cluster configuration. B. Clusters should have at most two nodes. C. NAS is preferred over SAN for shared storage. D. NFS is the preferred way to share storage within a cluster. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which requirement must an administrator meet prior to implementing an InfoScale Availability cluster that includes both physical and virtual machines? A. ensure all systems in the cluster have access to virtualized storage devices B. ensure shared storage supports SCSI3 persistent reservations C. ensure shared storage supports multi-pathing D. ensure the systems in the SystemList for a service group have access to the same shared storage devices Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 An administrator wants to make a new application highly available. Which two capabilities must the application have to be managed be Veritas Cluster Server? (Select two.) A. the ability to monitor each instance of the application independently. B. the ability to be installed on shared storage C. the ability to determine if the application is running D. the ability to notify the administrator of the application\\’s state E. the ability to disconnect users from the application Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4 Due to a high security risk, a mandatory shutdown of Ethernet switches is scheduled in a data center where the switches are used for two private heartbeat links on a local cluster. A low-priority heartbeat link, which has been configured over a public interface, is unaffected by the shutdown. I/O fencing is disabled. Which cluster behavior is expected when the private switches are both shut down for the upgrade? A. All nodes in the cluster panic. B. The cluster remains online, but the service groups go offline. C. Private cluster communications are rerouted over the public network. D. The service groups go into ADMIN-WAIT state. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which two capabilities can an administrator use to ensure availability within Docker Containers? (Select two.) A. provide HA to the application within the container for failover and app restart B. provide provisioning of a new container when an application within the container fails C. first restart the application within the container and if continued app failures then provision a new container D. provide HA to the container and move it between cluster nodes E. provide provisioning of a new container when a container fails Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 6 Which behavior can be specified using the PreferredFencingPolicy attribute? A. The fencing driver gives preference to high-capacity networks. B. The fencing driver gives preference to high-capacity systems. C. The fencing driver gives preference to Oracle type resources. D. The fencing driver gives preference to disk groups with solid state devices. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Where is the sysoffline trigger executed if a node goes into a jeopardy state or leaves the cluster? A. on all nodes in the cluster regardless of state B. on the node that goes offline by entering a jeopardy state or leaving the cluster C. on all the nodes in the cluster that are still in a RUNNING state D. on the lowest numbered system in the cluster with a RUNNING state Correct Answer: D Reference: https://vox.veritas.com/t5/Articles/Cheat-sheet-VCS-Event-Triggers/ta-p/809426
QUESTION 9 An administrator is bringing a service group online. One of the resources is remaining offline, and is shown in waiting to go online state. Which command should the administrator run to stop Veritas Cluster Server from attempting to bring the resource online to troubleshoot the issue? A. hares -clear B. hares -offline C. hagrp -offline D. hagrp -flush Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Refer to the exhibit. How many servers are seeded in the GAB port membership? GAB status and membership notation
A. the GAB port membership has two nodes: 01 and 12 B. the GAB port membership has three nodes: 0,1, and 12 C. the GAB port membership has two nodes: 0 and 1 D. the GAB port membership has four nodes: 0,1,21, and 22 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 An administrator is evaluating the suitability of an application to be clustered using Veritas InfoScale Availability. Which condition prevents the application from being made highly available? A. The application requires the use of solid state drives for performance. B. The application requires multiple systems accessing shared data simultaneously. C. The application has a dependency on the host name of the system on which it is running. D. After a crash, the automated clean-up takes at least one minute before the application can be restarted. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 What does it mean when a cluster node is in the REMOTE_BUILD state? A. The in-memory cluster configuration is being built by copying the in –memory configuration from another running cluster node. B. The node is building the in-memory cluster configuration from the primary main.cf file on a remote node. C. The in-memory configuration on the node is being updated to reflect configuration changes being made on a remote node. D. It is the last node to join the cluster and must wait to build the in-memory configuration until all other nodes have their in-memory configuration. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Which action should the administrator perform to ensure the coordination point (CP) service is highly available when adding a CP server into a Veritas Cluster Server environment? A. configure multiple CP server instances on the same node B. configure the CP server as a resource in a Veritas cluster C. configure the CP server over iSCSI D. ensure the CP server is on a reliable network Correct Answer: D
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Latest ACAMS Cams certification exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 What are some of the shortcomings in using letters regulatory? Choose 3 answers A. They can be time-consuming B. They are based on a pre-existing mutual treaty between the countries C. They are usually restricted to obtainingevidence that can be used for prosecution and other judicial proceedings D. They must be approved in advance by the countries judicial authorities Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 2 What kind of person should perform the independent testing of an institution\\’s anti-money laundering program? A. A certified specialist in the anti-money laundering field B. A former anti-money laundering officer from a similar institution C. A person who reports directly to the Board of Directors or a Board Committee D. A retired government regulator or federal law enforcement officer Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 During a law enforcement investigative interview regarding potential money laundering, the suspect starts making assertions and statements that the investigator believes are false. How should the investigator respond? A. Inform the suspect that deception is obvious and continue the interview B. Advise the suspect that the interview will be terminated if there is suspicion of deception C. Direct the interview in another direction until there is better rapport before returning back to the troubling questions D. Ask questions of a material nature about the suspected false statements without revealing the suspected deception Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 According to the Financial Action Task Force 40 Recommendations, Designated Non-Financial Businesses and Professionals include which entities? A. Commodities traders B. Money services businesses C. Hawala operators D. Real estate agents Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 What should an effective anti-money laundering training program include? A. Computer-based modules titles differently for each job description in the bank B. Random testing of employees to ensure proper understanding ofpolicies C. Real-life money laundering examples D. Lists of anti-money laundering regulations Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 1 Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan? A. Corrective action B. Defect repair C. Preventative action D. Probable action Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information? A. Project Scope Management B. Project Time Management C. Project Communications Management D. Project Quality Management Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 One of the outputs of the project schedule is a detailed plan. What is the main purpose of that detailed plan? A. It represents how and when the project will deliver the products, services, and results defined in the project scope B. It creates a formal record of the project and shows the organizational commitment to the project C. It describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated D. It provides the needs of a stakeholders or stakeholder group Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes: A. scope creep. B. a change request. C. work performance information. D. deliverables. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000 A. 1 B. 0.4 C. 0.5 D. 0.8 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 1 An information security manager is recommending an investment in a new security initiative to address recently published threats. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in the business case? A. Business impact if threats materialize B. Availability of unused funds in the security budget C. Threat information from reputable sources D. Alignment of the new initiative with the approved business strategy Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Effective IT governance is BEST ensured by: A. utilizing a bottom-up approach. B. management by the IT department. C. referring the matter to the organization\\’s legal department. D. utilizing a top-down approach. Correct Answer: D Effective IT governance needs to be a top-down initiative, with the board and executive management setting clear policies, goals and objectives and providing for ongoing monitoring of the same. Focus on the regulatory issues and management priorities may not be reflected effectively by a bottom-up approach. IT governance affects the entire organization and is not a matter concerning only the management of IT. The legal department is part of the overall governance process, but cannot take full responsibility.
QUESTION 3 Which of the following activities should take place FIRST when a security patch for Internet software is received from a vendor? A. The patch should be validated a hash algorithm. B. The patch should be applied to critical systems. C. The patch should be deployed quickly to systems that are vulnerable. D. The patch should be evaluated in a testing environment. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which of the following is the MOST effective solution for preventing individuals external to the organization from modifying sensitive information on a corporate database? A. Screened subnets B. Information classification policies and procedures C. Role-based access controls D. Intrusion detection system (IDS) Correct Answer: A Screened subnets are demilitarized zones (DMZs) and are oriented toward preventing attacks on an internal network by external users. The policies and procedures to classify information will ultimately result in better protection but they will not prevent actual modification. Role-based access controls would help ensure that users only had access to files and systems appropriate for their job role. Intrusion detection systems (IDS) are useful to detect invalid attempts but they will not prevent attempts.
QUESTION 5 Which of the following should be the MOST important criteria when defining data retention policies? A. Capacity requirements B. Audit findings C. Regulatory requirements D. Industry best practices Correct Answer: C
Latest ISC certification Cissp exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 What principle focuses on the uniqueness of separate objects that must be joined together to perform a task? It is sometimes referred to as “what each must bring” and joined together when getting access or decrypting a file. Each of which does not reveal the other? A. Dual control B. Separation of duties C. Split knowledge D. Need to know Correct Answer: C Explanation: Split knowledge involves encryption keys being separated into two components, each of which does not reveal the other. Split knowledge is the other complementary access control principle to dual control. In cryptographic terms, one could say dual control and split knowledge are properly implemented if no one person has access to or knowledge of the content of the complete cryptographic key being protected by the two rocesses. The sound implementation of dual control and split knowledge in a cryptographic environment necessarily means that the quickest way to break the key would be through the best attack known for the algorithm of that key. The principles of dual control and split knowledge primarily apply to access to plaintext keys. Access to cryptographic keys used for encrypting and decrypting data or access to keys that are encrypted under a master key (which may or may not be maintained under dual control and split knowledge) do not require dual control and split knowledge. Dual control and split knowledge can be summed up as the determination of any part of a key being protected must require the collusion between two or more persons with each supplying unique cryptographic materials that must be joined together to access the protected key. Any feasible method to violate the axiom means that the principles of dual control and split knowledge are not being upheld. Split knowledge is the unique “what each must bring” and joined together when implementing dual control. To illustrate, a box containing petty cash is secured by one combination lock and one keyed lock. One employee is given the combination to the combo lock and another employee has possession of the correct key to the keyed lock. In order to get the cash out of the box both employees must be present at the cash box at the same time. One cannot open the box without the other. This is the aspect of dual control. On the other hand, split knowledge is exemplified here by the different objects (the combination to the combo lock and the correct physical key), both of which are unique and necessary, that each brings to the meeting. Split knowledge focuses on the uniqueness of separate objects that must be joined together. Dual control has to do with forcing the collusion of at least two or more persons to combine their split knowledge to gain access to an asset. Both split knowledge and dual control complement each other and are necessary functions that implement the segregation of duties in high integrity cryptographic environments. The following are incorrect answers: Dual control is a procedure that uses two or more entities (usually persons) operating in concert to protect a system resource, such that no single entity acting alone can access that resource. Dual control is implemented as a security procedure that requires two or more persons to come together and collude to complete a process. In a cryptographic system the two (or more) persons would each supply a unique key, that when taken together, performs a cryptographic process. Split knowledge is the other complementary access control principle to dual control. Separation of duties – The practice of dividing the steps in a system function among different individuals, so as to keep a single individual from subverting the process. The need-to-know principle requires a user having necessity for access to, knowledge of, or possession of specific information required to perform official tasks or services. Reference(s) used for this question: Schneiter, Andrew (2013-04-15). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition : Cryptography (Kindle Locations 1621-1635). . Kindle Edition. and Schneiter, Andrew (2013-04-15). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition : Cryptography (Kindle Locations 1643-1650). . Kindle Edition. and Shon Harris, CISSP All In One (AIO), 6th Edition , page 126
QUESTION 2 The hashing algorithm in the Digital Signature Standard (DSS) generates a message digest of: A. 130 bit B. 56 bits C. 120 bits D. 160 bits Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 What process is used to accomplish high-speed data transfer between a peripheral device and computer memory, bypassing the Central Processing Unit (CPU)? A. Direct memory access B. Interrupt processing C. Transfer under program control D. Direct access control Correct Answer: A With DMA, a DMAcontroller essentially takes control of the memory busses and manages the data transfer directly. Answer interrupt processing involves an external signal interrupting the normal CPU program flow. This interrupt causes the CPU to halt processing and jump to another program that services the interrupt. When the interrupt has been serviced, the CPU returns to continue executing the original program. Program control transfer, answer c, is accomplished by the processor executing input/output (I/O) instructions. Answer Direct access control is a distracter.
QUESTION 4 Which of the following entails identification of data and links to business processes, applications, and data stores as well as assignment of ownership responsibilities? A. Security governance B. Risk management C. Security portfolio management D. Risk assessment Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Which of the following is commonly used for retrofitting multilevel security to a database management system? A. trusted front-end. B. trusted back-end. C. controller. D. kernel. Correct Answer: A Explanation: If you are “retrofitting” that means you are adding to an existing database management system (DBMS). You could go back and redesign the entire DBMS but the cost of that could be expensive and there is no telling what the effect will be on existing applications, but that is redesigning and the question states retrofitting. The most cost effective way with the least effect on existing applications while adding a layer of security on top is through a trusted front-end. Clark-Wilson is a synonym of that model as well. It was used to add more granular control or control to database that did not provide appropriate controls or no controls at all. It is one of the most popular model today. Any dynamic website with a back-end database is an example of this today. Such a model would also introduce separation of duties by allowing the subject only specific rights on the objects they need to access. The following answers are incorrect: trusted back-end. Is incorrect because a trusted back-end would be the database management system (DBMS). Since the question stated “retrofitting” that eliminates this answer. controller. Is incorrect because this is a distractor and has nothing to do with “retrofitting”. kernel. Is incorrect because this is a distractor and has nothing to do with “retrofitting”. A security kernel would provide protection to devices and processes but would be inefficient in protecting rows or columns in a table.
QUESTION 1 JIT uses what method to move items through the system? A. push B. pull C. backward scheduling D. forward scheduling E. available to promise Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 A remanufacturer of equipment is most likely to have what type of supply chain? A. Modular logistics B. Reverse logistics C. Mixed model D. Lateral Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which of the following planning systems examine both independent and dependent demand items: A. DRP II. MPS III. MRP B. I C. II C. III D. I and II E. II and III Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 A company that is having difficulties prioritizing resources against a long list of improvement projects should use which of the following processes? A. Control chart B. Competitive benchmarking C. Pareto analysis D. Six Sigma Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 All of the following are pillars of supply chain excellence, EXCEPT: A. human resources B. organizational design C. information technology D. financial performance E. organizational measurement Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 There is an additional ____________ valuation rule, which requires that the appraiser determine whether any of the extraordinary payment rights, if exercised in conjunction with any qualified distribution rights, would lower the total value of the preferred security. A. Lower of B. Separate Command C. Mandatory redemption rights D. Lower in Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 The capital asset pricing model is part of a larger body of economic theory known as capital market theory. Capital market theory also includes: A. Security analysis B. Portfolio management theory C. A normative theory D. Systematic theory Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 3 The sales comparison approach is based on the economic principles of: A. Efficient markets B. Special financing and other terms regarding each sales transactions C. Age of each property D. Supply and demand Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 4 There is a general consensus among appraisers that there is little or no difference in controlling interest market values between S corporations and C corporations under most circumstances, and that any difference depends on: A. Finding a seller that there may be differences in value at the shareholder level for noncontrolling interests. B. Finding a buyer that there may be differences in value at the shareholder level for noncontrolling interests. C. Finding a dealer that there may be differences in value at the shareholder level for non- controlling interests. D. Finding a broker that there may be differences in value at the shareholder level for non- controlling interests. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 The rate of interest that, when applied to the expected future payments equal to the debt security\\’s observed market price is called the: A. Yield to maturity B. Return on investment C. Market interest D. Interest earning Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
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Exam Code: 070-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Aug 14, 2017
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16.Your NetBackup environment will consist of four media servers and a robot with
two tape drives. The media servers and the robot are SAN attaches. Each media
servers also functions as a large file server on the network.
Which three goals will be addressed by implementing the Shared Storage Option in
this environment? (Choose three)
A. minimized network traffic during the backup window
B. high performance on the four local media server backups
C. high performance on remote(network) client backups
D. improved tape drive usage among media servers.
E. improved performance data collection for backups
070-410 exam Answer: A,B,D
17.Your environment uses a SAN for disk access.
Which feature of NetBackup 5.0 Advanced Client is appropriate? A. fast backups
B. off-host backups
C. referential backups D.
18.You are in the process of disaster recovery planning. Your focus is on the
recovery of IT systems. In your evaluation of the environment you must collect
data regarding the physical locations.
Which list contains the main categories of disasters?
A. logical (hardware-related)
B. management failures
C. SPDFA logical(software
related) D. hardware failure
environmental 070-410 dumps Answer: D
19.You are encountering problems with host names and network connections. You have
already verified that the correct client and server host names are configured in
Which commands do you use to verify name resolution on UNIX and Windows clients?
20.Your NetBackup environment will consist of two media servers (Server A and Server B)
and a robot with four tape drives. Each media server also functions as a large files server
on the network.
Which design best uses the available hardware?
A. configures Server A as the robot control host, configure the four drives on ServerB
B. configure Server A as the robot control host, configure two drives on each media server
C. configures both media servers as the robot control hosts, configure the four drives on
D. configure both media servers as the robot control hosts, configure two drives on each
070-410 pdf Answer: B 21.This standard addresses restricting physical access to electronic PHI data through interface devices to
A. Facility Security Plan
B. Person or Entity Authentication C. Workstation Security
D. Contingency Plan
E. Access Control Answer: C
22.An addressable Implementation Specification of Facility Access Controls is:
A. Unauthorized Access
B. Security Configurations
D. Maintenance Records
E. Media Disposal 070-410 vce Answer: D
23.This HIPAA security category covers the use of locks, keys and administrative measures used to
control access to computer systems:
A. Technical Safeguards
B. Technical Services
C. Physical Security Policy
D. Administrative Safeguards
E. Physical Safeguards Answer: E
24.Media Re-use is a required implementation specification associated with which security standard?
A. Facility Access Controls
B. Workstation Use
C. Workstation Security
D. Device and Media Controls
E. Access Control 070-410 exam Answer: D
25.This is a standard within Physical Safeguards
A. Contingency Operations
B. Workstation Use
C. Security Incident Management
D. Disaster Recovery E. Disposal Answer: B 26.How does EnCase verify that the evidence file contains an exact copy of the suspect hard drive? How does
EnCase verify that the evidence file contains an exact copy of the suspect’s hard drive?
A. By means of a CRC value of the suspect hard drive compared to a CRC value of the data stored in the
evidence file.By means of a CRC value of the suspect? hard drive compared to a CRC value of the data
stored in the evidence file.
B. By means of an MD5 hash of the suspect hard drive compared to an MD5 hash of the data stored in the
evidence file.By means of an MD5 hash of the suspect? hard drive compared to an MD5 hash of the data
stored in the evidence file.
C. By means of a CRC value of the evidence file itself.
D. By means of an MD5 hash value of the evidence file itself. 70-410 dumps Correct Answer: B Explanation 27.By default, EnCase will display the data from the end of a logical file, to the end of the cluster, in what color:
B. Red on black
C. Black on red
D. Black Correct Answer: A Explanation 28.A SCSI drive is pinned as a master when it is:
A. The only drive on the computer.
B. The primary of two drives connected to one cable.
C. Whenever another drive is on the same cable and is pinned as a slave.
D. A SCSI drive is not pinned as a master. 070-410 pdf Correct Answer: D Explanation 29.The following GREP expression was typed in exactly as shown. Choose the answer(s) that would result. [^a-z]
B. om? ? RP C. Toms
D. Stomp Correct Answer: B Explanation 30.This question addresses the EnCase for Windows search process. If a target word is within a logical file, and it
begins in cluster 10 and ends in cluster 15 (the word is fragmented), the search:
A. Will not find it unlessile slack is checked on the search dialog box.
B. Will find it because EnCase performs a logical search.
C. Will not find it because EnCase performs a physical search only.
D. Will not find it because the letters of the keyword are not contiguous. 070-410 vce Correct Answer: B Explanation 31.An evidence file was archived onto five CD-Rom disks with the third file segment on disk number three. Can
the contents of the third file segment be verified by itself while still on the CD?
A. No. Archived files are compressed and cannot be verified until un-archived.
B. No. All file segments must be put back together.
C. Yes. Any segment of an evidence file can be verified through re-computing and comparing the CRCs, even
if it is on a CD.
D. No. EnCase cannot verify files on CDs. Correct Answer: C Explanation 32.The case file should be archived with the evidence files at the termination of a case.
B. False 070-410 exam Correct Answer:
Explanation 33.A signature analysis has been run on a case. The result “Bad Signature ” means:
A. The file signature is known and does not match a known file header. B. The file signature is known and the file extension is known.
C. The file signature is known and does not match a known file extension.
D. The file signature is unknown and the file extension is known. Correct Answer: D Explanation
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