CCIE Data Center

Cisco 400-151 is a challenging exam, to pass this you’ll have to work hard. With the help of the right focus and preparation material passing this exam is an achievable goal.Pass4itsure shares (https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-151.html ) the latest and effective Cisco 400-151 dumps exam questions and answers, online practice tests. The 400-151 CCIE Data Center written exam has been retired as of February 24, 2020. The latest exam select Cisco CCNP Data Center 350-601 exam dumps. Pass4itsure can help you pass the exam easily.

Latest (2020) Cisco 400-151 google drive

[PDF] Free Cisco 400-151 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1VlinMrl35_fXQTbUn-kc2JLSy4NNLMg1

CCIE Data Center Written Exam https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ccie-datacenter-unified.html

Maybe you will be interested in other CCIE certification exams!

Best Cisco 400-151 Practice,400-151 Test

QUESTION 1
Which three options can be used to add a device as a member to a zone? (Choose three.)
A. fully qualified domain name
B. Fibre Channel ID
C. VLAN ID
D. IP address
E. device alias
F. LUN ID
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 2
In a Cisco UCS B-Series environment, which option must the network adapters support to enable iSCSI boot?
A. UEFI
B. MPIO
C. vNIC
D. CIMC
E. iBFT
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
A network architect must migrate the legacy infrastructure switches of a customer from a Cisco Nexus 9000 platform.
Which process helps achieve this milestone?
A. Set up a web-based interface for configuration management
B. Manage software upgrades via guest shell
C. Create a container providing separate execution space.
D. Allow guests temporary access to the CLI without logging in
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which three options are SDN Southbound protocols? (Choose three.)
A. Puppet
B. API
C. OpenFlow
D. PCEP
E. VXLAN
F. OVSDB
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 5
Which two guidelines and limitations of policy-based routing are true? (Choose two.)
A. A policy-based routing map can have multiple match or set statements per route-map statement.
B. A match command can refer to more than one ACL in a route map used for policy-based routing.
C. Policy-based routing and WCCPv2 are not supported on the same interface if bank chaining is disabled.
D. An ACL used in a policy-based routing route map cannot include a deny statement.
E. The same route map can be shared among different interfaces for policy-based routing as long as the interfaces
belong to the same VRF instance.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-151 exam questions q6

Which two statements about this configuration command sequence with regards to the Cisco Nexus 5500 are true?
(Choose two.)
A. It reserves this FCID so only this node can use this FCID when communicating with other Fiber Channel entities.
B. It configures this node to use FCID 0EFC2A to forward the FDISC to when an endpoint is connected.
C. It configures this node to use 0EFC2A as the last 3bytes of the FPMA.
D. It permits this node to form FCoE ISLs only with other nodes configured for the same FC-MAP.
E. It configures this node to use 0EFC2A as the first 3 bytes of the FPMA.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Which two statements about connecting spines to the Inter-Site-Network are true? (Choose two)

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-151 exam questions q7

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
Which three functions are key characteristics of the data center access layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose
three.)
A. must support routing protocols such as OSPF and BGP
B. provides connectivity to network based services (load balancer and firewall)
C. segment workgroups
D. implement in top-of-rack or end-of-row topology
E. provides connectivity to the servers
F. performs QoS marking
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 9
Which state is the optimal health state for an APIC cluster?
A. fully fit
B. fully sync\\’d
C. in-sync
D. in service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-151 exam questions q10

Which two statements about spanning tree are true? (Choose two.)
A. BPDUs from a VPC are processed on this switch.
B. This switch generates BPDUs for a VPC.
C. BPDUs are sent to the peer switch for processing.
D. This switch cannot generate BPDUs for a VPC.
E. BPDUs received on this switch are dropped because Type 2 inconsistency issues.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about import and export route control in an ACI fabric are true? (Choose two.)
A. Prefixes learned from BGP L3outs cannot be filtered inbound.
B. Prefixes learned from OSPF/EIGRP are never permitted inbound by default.
C. Prefixes permitted inbound are redistributed into MP-BGP at the ingress leaf.
D. Export route control controls if the prefixes are redistributed from MP-BGP at the egress leaf.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Drag and drop me concept of Cisco UCS Director orchestrator from the left onto the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-151 exam questions q12-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-151 exam questions q12-2

QUESTION 13

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-151 exam questions q13

Refer to the exhibit. Which response of this API request is true?

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-151 exam questions q13-2

A. B. C.

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-151 exam questions q13-3

D.
Correct Answer: D

Cisco CCIE Data Center 400-151 Exam Video

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CCIE Change(2020)

New CCIE Tracks from February 24th

Original CCIEBefore February 24th, you need to do a written and a lab exam for each track.
New CCIEFrom February 24th, you need to pass 2 exams for each track.

CCIE Data Center Change

From February 24th, you need to take the new exam 350-601 DCCOR to get certified.

350-601 DCCOR – Cisco https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/dccor-350-601.html

350-601 dumps – Pass4itsure https://www.pass4itsure.com/350-601.html

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CCIE Wireless

Where do I find a 400-351 PDF or any dump to download? Here you can easily get the latest Cisco CCIE Wireless 400-351 exam dumps and 400-351 pdf! We’ve compiled the latest Cisco 400-351 exam questions and answers to
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Cisco CCIE Wireless 400-351 Exam pdf

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Cisco exam certification information

400-351 CCIE Wireless – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ccie-wireless2.html

Cisco CCIE Wireless 400-351 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which two statements about 802.11r are true? (Choose two)
A. A PTK is generated before the client roams to the target AP.
B. Non-802.11r clients cannot associate to WLANs that have 802 llr enabled on WLC AireOS code 8.0
C. 802.11r IS supported only on OPEN and WPA2 WLANs.
D. This protocol uses the four-way handshake for the key management upon roaming.
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 400-351 exam question q2 pass4itsure 400-351 exam question q2-1

Your colleague a junior network engineer is struggling to enable DHCP option 82 in the layer 3 switch which is in the
DMZ for a mobile client under a guest anchor Cisco wireless LAN controller deployment . What is your answer.?
A. DHCP proxy must be enabled for DHCP option 82 to operate correctly . All Cisco WLCsthat will be in the setup must
have the same DHCP proxy setting.
B. DHCP option 82 must be enabled on the dynamic interface with which theWLANis associated
C. DHCP option 82 is not supported when it is used with auto-anchor mobility
D. The mobility tunnel datapath control path or both between the anchor cisco WLC and foreign WLC are down.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Harry is a network engineer for a company, he is now upgrading a large autonomous WLAN deployment to LWAPP
operation. He has successfully imported a X.509 self-signed certificate into the WLC. But, when he tries to add
additional self-signed certificates, the WLC GUI reports a “Failed to Add entry” error.
Which command can diagnose the root cause of this problem?
A. Show wps summary
B. Show database summary
C. Show exlusionlist
D. Show sysinfo
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Drag and drop the CAPWAP events on the left into the order in which they occur on the right during the WLC discovery
and join processes.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 400-351 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 400-351 exam question q4-1

 

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:pass4itsure 400-351 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 400-351 exam question q5-1

 

QUESTION 6
For the following cipher suites, which were defined in the IEEE 802.11i-2004 standard and then again in the
802.11-2007 standard? Select all that apply.
A. TKIP
B. WEP-40
C. TCP-IP
D. WEP-104
E. AES-CCMP
Correct Answer: ABDE

 

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:pass4itsure 400-351 exam question q7

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 400-351 exam question q7-1

 

QUESTION 8
Which two features require Network Time Protocol synchronization on the Cisco 5760 WLC?(Choose two)
A. AP CAPWAP multicast
B. SNMPv3
C. AP authentication
D. Band Select
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 9
Which multicast mode is recommended when configuring Media Stream on a Cisco WLC?
A. multicast-uncast
B. multicast-routing
C. multicast-multicast
D. multicast-direct
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
While configuring Wireless Domain Services, which port is used for traffic between infrastructure APs and the WDS
AP?
A. Generic Routing Encapsulation GRE which is IP protocol 47
B. UDP destination and source protocol Port 1812 (0x0714)
C. UDP destination and source protocol port 2887 (0x0B47) or Ethernet Type 34605 (0x872D)
D. UDP destination and Source Protocol Port 1645 (0x066D)
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Given: LAG bundles all distribution ports on a WLC into a single 802.3ad port channel.The system load-balances
access points transparently to the user. Question: Which two items should be taken into consideration when configuring
the neighbor Ethernet switch? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco WLC relies on the neighbor switch to load-balance traffic across the EtherChannel. The Cisco WLC does
not perform any EtherChannel load-balancing on its own.
B. LAG requires theEtherChannel to be configured for the “on” mode on the Catalyst switch.
C. LAG requires that the Catalyst switch be configured with CiscoPAgP. Link Aggregation Control Protocol is not
supported.
D. The load-balancing method configured on the Catalyst switch must be based on Layer 2, not Layer 3. Failure to
follow this recommendation may result in problems with access point association.
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 12
Which option in the Cisco Identity Services Engine checks that the user authentication comes from a domain
computer?
A. It is not possible to validate the computer domain membership through ISE.
B. Machine Access Restriction
C. Machine Access Restriction
D. Active Directory Attributes.
E. An identity source sequence can be used to perform this check.
Correct Answer: C
From:pass4itsure 400-351 exam question q12

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/1-3/ISE-ADIntegrationDoc/b_ISE-ADIntegration.html

 

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the wireless deployment modes on the left to the corresponding roaming descriptions on the right?
Select and Place:pass4itsure 400-351 exam question q13

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 400-351 exam question q13-1

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MCSA, Uncategorized

Work hard! It’s not hard to get certified! Share the latest Microsoft MCSA 70-779 exam dump for free. online 70-779 exam practice tests. the latest 70-779 exam questions and answers, and guarantee your skills and exam experience! “Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Excel” – 70-779 exam! pass4itsure.com expert recommendation! Top pass rate!

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Valid information provided by Microsoft officials

Exam 70-779: Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Excel: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-779.aspx Candidates for this exam should have a strong understanding of how to use Microsoft Excel to perform data analysis. Candidates should be able to consume, transform, model, and visualize data in Excel. Candidates should also be able to configure and manipulate data in PowerPivot, PivotTables, and PivotCharts. Candidates may include BI professionals, data analysts, and other roles responsible for analyzing data with Excel.

pass4itsure 70-779 exam Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Consume and Transform Data by Using Microsoft Excel (30-35%)
  • Model Data (35-40%)
  • Visualize Data (30-35%)

The latest Microsoft MCSA 70-779 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario, For your convenience the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
the
same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario
You are creating reports for a car repair company. You have four datasets in Excel spreadsheets. Four workbook
queries load the datasets to a data model. A sample of the data is shown in the Data Sample exhibit.pass4itsure 70-779 exam question q1

The data model is shown in the Data Model exhibit.

pass4itsure 70-779 exam question q1-1

The tables in the model contain the following data:
DailyRepairs has a log of hours and revenue for each day, workshop, and repair type. Every day, a log entry is created
for each workshop, even if no hours or revenue are recorded for that day. Total Hours and Total Revenue are two
measures defined in DailyRepairs. Total Hours sums the Hours column, and Total Revenue sums the Revenue column.
Workshops has a list of all the workshops and the current and previous workshop managers. The format of the
Workshop Manager column is always Firstname Lastname. A value of 1 in the IsLatest column indicates that the
workshop
manager listed in the record is the current workshop manager.
RepairTypes has a list of alt the repair types.
Dates has a list of dates from 2015 to 2018.
End of repeated scenario.
You create the column chart shown in the Pivot Chart exhibit.pass4itsure 70-779 exam question q1-2

You need to ensure that the month axis is displayed chronologically. What should you do?
A. In the model, configure the Sort By Column setting for [Month] as [MonthID].
B. In the model, configure the Sort By Column setting for (Month) as [Date].
C. In PivotTable Fields, add [MonthID] to the Legend area.
D. In PivotTable Fields, add [Date] to the Legend area.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
You have an Excel workbook query that loads data to a worksheet and the data model.
You need to ensure that the data is refreshed whenever you open the workbook.
What should you do?
A. From the File tab, click Option, and then modify the Data option.
B. From the File tab, click Options, and then modify the General options.
C. From the Data tab, click Queries and Connections, and then edit the properties of the query.
D. From the Power Pivot model, modify the Table Behavior setting.
Correct Answer: C
https://support.office.com/en-us/article/refresh-an-external-data-connection-in-excel-2016-for-windows-1524175f-777a-48fc-8fc7-c8514b984440

 

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
the
same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario
You are creating reports for a car repair company. You have four datasets in Excel spreadsheets. Pour workbook
queries load the datasets to a data model. A sample of the data is shown in the Data Sample exhibit.
Data Sample:pass4itsure 70-779 exam question q3

The data model is shown in the Data Model exhibit. Data Model

pass4itsure 70-779 exam question q3-1

The tables in the model contain the following data:
DailyRepairs has a log of hours and revenue for each day, workshop, and repair type. Every day, a log entry is created
for each workshop, even if no hours or revenue are recorded for that day. Total Hours and Total Revenue are two
measures denned in DailyRepairs. Total Hours sums the Hours column, and Total Revenue sums the Revenue column.
Workshops has a list of all the workshops and the current and previous workshop managers. The format of the
Workshop Manager column is always FirstnameLastname. A value of 1 in the IsLatest column indicates that the
workshop
manager listed in the record is the current workshop manager.
RepairTypes has a list of all the repair types.
Dates has a list of dates from 2015 to 2018.
End of repeated scenario.
You create a measure named Average Revenue Per Hour that average revenue per hour.
You need to populate a cell in a worksheet to display the Average Revenue Per Hour where Repair Type is Engine.
Which Excel formula should you use?

pass4itsure 70-779 exam question q3-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
You have an Excel workbook that contains a table named Sales.
You add Sales to the Power Pivot model.
You need to set a column named TransactionID as the row identifier for the Sales table.
What should you do?
A. From Power Pivot, modify the Table Behavior setting.
B. From Query Editor, add an index column.
C. From Query Editor, modify the Data Type.
D. From Power Pivot, modify the Default Field Set.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have two Microsoft SQL Server database servers named Production1 and Test1. Production1 contains the same
tables as Test1. but only a subset of the data.
You add Test1 as a data source, and you select 10 tables. You configure several transformations.
You need to connect the model to the tables in Production1. The solution must maintain the existing transformations.
Solution: You delete the existing queries, and then you add new data sources.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
You have the Excel worksheet shown in the exhibit.pass4itsure 70-779 exam question q6

You need to transform the data by using Query Editor. What should you do first?
A. From the Data tab, click From Table/Range.
B. From the Data tab, click Flash Fill.
C. From the Data tab, click Consolidate.
D. From the Insert tab, click Store.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
the same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario
You have six workbook queries that each extracts a table from a Microsoft Azure SQL database. The table are loaded to
the data model, but the data is not loaded to any worksheets. The data model is shown in the Data Model exhibit. (Click
the Exhibit button.)
Your company has 100 product subcategories and more than 10,000 products.
End of repeated scenario.
You have a PivotChart that uses Manufacturer as the axis and the sum of SalesAmount as the values.
You need to ensure that only the top 10 manufactures appear in the chart.
What should you do?
A. Change the format of the SalesAmount field.
B. Create a calculated column.
C. Configure the Value Filters.
D. Summarize the SaleAmount field by Max.
Correct Answer: C
https://www.extendoffice.com/documents/excel/1963-excel-pivot-table-filter-top-10.html

 

QUESTION 8
You have 20 workbook queries that load 20 CSV files to a local computer.
You plan to send the workbook and the 20 CSV files to several users. The users will store the files in various location.
You need to ensure that the users can change the path to the CSV files in the queries as quickly as possible.
What should you do from Query Editor?
A. Merge all the queries. Edit the source of the first query.
B. Create a parameter. Modify the source of each query to use the parameter.
C. For each query, create a new query that uses a reference. Modify the source of each new query.
D. Append all the queries. Edit the source of the first query.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer chokes, but the text of the scenario is
the
same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario
You are creating reports for a car repair company. You have four datasets in Excel spreadsheets. Four workbook
queries load the datasets to a data model. A sample of the data is shown in the Data Sample exhibit.
Data Sample:pass4itsure 70-779 exam question q9

The data model is shown in the Data Model exhibit. Data Model:

pass4itsure 70-779 exam question q9-1

A. In the workbook query for Workshops, filter [IsLatest] to equal 1.
B. In the workbook query for Workshops, add an index column.
C. In the Power Pivot model, change the data type for Workshop[lD] to General.
D. In the Power Pivot model, change the Table Behavior setting for Workshops.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
You have a table in Power Pivot model that is loaded from a Microsoft SQL Server database.
The source table has four columns named ID, Price, Quantity, and Total. Total is derived by multiplying Price and
Quantity. ID is a unique row identifier.
You need to minimize the amount of memory used to load the mode. The solution must ensure that you can create
visualizations based on Price, Quantity, and Total.
What should you do?
A. Replace the Total column by using a measure.
B. Replace the Total column by using a calculated column.
C. From Query Editor, remove duplicate rows from the table.
D. Move the Total column to a lookup table.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
You have a data model in Excel.
You export the data and the data model into a dataset in the Microsoft Power BI service.
What can you use to modify the data model that is published to the Power BI service?
A. Microsoft Power BI Desktop
B. Excel and the Microsoft Power BI service
C. Excel only
D. the Microsoft Power BI service only
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
You have a query that retrieves customers and their locations. You have a sample of the data as shown in the following
table.

pass4itsure 70-779 exam question q12

Additional customers and locations are added frequently.
You need to transform the data as shown in the following table

pass4itsure 70-779 exam question q12-1

What should you do?
A. Select the Locations columns and then select Split Column by Delimiter. Use a comma as the delimiter and split into
rows.
B. Select the Locations columns and then select Split Column by Delimiter. Use a comma as the delimiter and split into
columns.
C. Select the Customer columns, and then click Unpivot Columns.
D. Select the Customer columns, and then click Unpivot Other Columns.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
You have an Excel workbook that displays two PivotCharts. One chart displays sales by month. The other chart displays
sales by year.
You add a slicer for month.
You discover that when you select a month in the slicer, the data in the sales by year PivotChart changes.
You need to prevent the slicer from affecting the sales by year PivotChart.
What should you do?
A. Remove all the fields from the Filters area of the sales by month PivotChart.
B. Modify the Value Field Settings for the values of the sales by year PivotChart,
C. Modify the Report Connections of the slicer.
D. Remove all the fields from the Filters area of the sales by year PivotChart.
Correct Answer: C

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ACI

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QUESTION 1
The two-week repo rate for the 5.25% Bund 2014 is quoted to you at 3.33-38%. You agree to reverse in bonds worth
EUR 266,125,000.00 with no initial margin. You would earn repo interest of:
A. EUR 349,806
B. EUR 344,632
C. EUR 319,315
D. EUR 324,110
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Using the following rates:
3M (90-day) eurodeposits3.50%
6M (180-day) eurodeposits3.75%
What is the rate for a deposit, which runs from 3 to 6 months?
A. 3.625%
B. 3.285%
C. 3.965%
D. 3.835%
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are the fixed-rate payer in a plain vanilla interest rate swap. If your counterparty defaults, your exposure at default
is:
A. greater, the higher the market swap rate and the shorter the term
B. lower, the lower the market swap rate and the shorter the term
C. lower, the lower the market swap rate and the longer the term
D. greater, the higher the market swap rate and the longer the term
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Deliberately inputting incorrect big figures into an electronic dealing platform is:
A. Technically impossible on electronic platforms B. Not an uncommon practice and something which professional dealers should be able to guard against.
C. Not good practice.
D. A criminal offence.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
The andquot;spot basisandquot; of a 2 against 4 months EUR/USD forward/forward swap is:
A. usually the current spot EUR/USD mid-market rate
B. commonly the prevailing 4-month forward EUR/USD mid-rate
C. always the forward EUR/USD bid rate of the first swap leg
D. generally the prevailing 2-month forward EUR/USD mid-rate
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following are specifically quoted in terms of a yield-to-maturity?
A. US Treasury bill
B. CD
C. Interbank deposit
D. USCP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You are paying 5% per annum paid semi-annually and receiving 6-month LIBOR on a USD 10 million interest rate swap
with exactly two years to maturity. 6month LIBOR for the next payment date is fixed today at 4.95%. How would you
hedge the swap using FRAs? How to hedge an IRS with a strip of FRAs?
A. buy a strip of 0x6, 6×12, 12×18 and 18×24 FRAs
B. sell a strip of 0x6, 6×12, 12×18 and 18×24 FRAs
C. buy a strip of 6×12, 12×10 and 16×24 FRAs
D. sell a strip of 6×12, 12×18 and 18×24 FRAs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Today is Monday, 8th December. You sell a 9×12 FRA for value Thursday, 10th September next year. On what date is
the settlement amount due to be paid or received (assuming that there are no holidays)? A. 8th September next year
B. 10th September next year
C. 8th December next year
D. 10th December next year
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You bought a USD 4,000000 6×9 FRA at 6.75%. The settlement rate is 3-month (90-day) BBA LIBOR, which is fixed at
5.50%. What is the settlement amount at maturity?
A. You receive USD 12,330.46
B. You pay USD 12,330.46
C. You pay USD 12,163.81
D. You receive USD 12,163.81
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A customer gives you GBP 25,000,000.00 at 0.625% same day for 7 days.
Through a broker, you place the funds with a bank for the same period at 0.6875%.
Brokerage is charged at 2 basis points per annum.
What is the net profit or loss on the deal?
A. ProfitofGBP 299.66
B. Profit of GBP 203.77
C. LossofGBP299.66
D. Loss ofGBP 203.77
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are quoted the following market rates:
Spot AUD/CAD 1.0600 12M (360-day) AUD 3.40% 12M (360-day) CAD 1.55%
What are the 12-month AUD/CAD forward points?
A. +190
B. -193 C. -192
D. -190
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A 3-month (91-day) UK Treasury bill with a face value of GBP 50,000,000.00 is quoted at a yield of 4.25%. How much is
the bill worth?
A. GBP 47,875,000.00
B. GBP 49,462,847.22
C. GBP 49,470,205.48
D. GBP 49,475,760.27
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
What kind of information should dealers and brokers take care when relaying?
A. Information that could be damaging to a third party
B. Unsubstantiated rumours
C. Unsubstantiated information that they suspect may be inaccurate and damaging to a third party
D. Price-sensitive information
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Convert 8.25% quoted on a semi-annually compounded money market basis for USD to the equivalent annually-
compounded bond basis.
A. 8.30%
B. 8.52%
C. 8.54%
D. 8.69%
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
How long does the Model Code recommend that tape recordings of dealers/brokers should be kept?
A. At least 2 months
B. One year C. Up to one month
D. Until the maturity of the deal
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
You buy a 181-day 2.75% CD with a face value of USD 1,500,000.00 at par when it is issued. You sell it in the
secondary market after 150 days at 2.60%. What is your holding period yield?
A. 2.60%
B. 2.75%
C. 2.775%
D. 2.813%
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which one of the following best describes expected shortfall/conditional value-at-risk at the 95% level?
A. the expected loss on the portfolio in the worst 95% of cases
B. the expected loss in those cases where the loss exceeds the VaR at the 95% level
C. the maximum loss in those cases where the loss exceeds the VaR at the 95% level
D. the expected loss in those cases where the loss exceeds the VaR at the 5% level
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
You quote spot EUR/USD at 1.3023-26 in 5 to another bank. He says, andquot;Take 5, could do 8andquot;. How much
are you obliged to do?
A. Nothing, as he changed the terms of the deal
B. EUR 5,000,000.00
C. More than EUR 5,000,000.00, but a maximum of EUR 8,000,000.00
D. EUR 8,000,000.00
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What would be the strategy for a bank if it is unable to speculate on interest rates and/or unable to absorb market risk?
A. to run a zero gap
B. to hold more interest rate sensitive assets than interest rate sensitive liabilities C. to reduce the size of the balance sheet
D. to hold fewer interest rate sensitive assets than interest rate sensitive liabilities
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
An interest rate guarantee (IRG) is:
A. AnFRA
B. An option on an FRA
C. A collar
D. AnIRS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
An interest rate swap is:
A. A contract to exchange one stream of income payments for another
B. A temporary exchange of one deposit for another of a longer maturity in the same currency
C. A forward-forward contract
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Management has a specific responsibility to issue guidelines to staff on transacting after-hours and off- premises. Which
of the following does the Model Code suggest?
A. Dealing should only be allowed during normal trading hours.
B. It is not recommended that an unofficial close of business be specified for each trading day.
C. There should be clear written guidelines regarding the limit and type of deals that are permitted after normal hours or
off-premises.
D. All after-hours and off-premises transactions must be dealt exclusively with the dealer\’s personal mobile phones
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
How is an outright forward FX transaction quoted?
A. pared points
B. Depends on the term C. Depends on whether it is interbank or to a customer
D. Depends on the currency pair
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Where dealing for personal account is allowed, what safeguards to prevent abuse or insider dealing are stated by the
Model Code?
A. The need to maintain confidentiality with respect to non-public price sensitive information
B. The maximum amounts or sizes of trades dealers are allowed to trade for their own account
C. The instruments/products dealers can trade for their own account
D. The pledge that no action is taken by employees that might adversely affect the interests of clients or counterparties
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Bank participants have a duty to make it clear that their prices are firm or merely indicative:
A. Only if they are dealing with brokers.
B. Only if they are dealing in a fast moving market.
C. Only if the amount is not marketable.
D. At all times.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
To curb attempted fraud, banks should: A. Require greater vigilance by the management and staff.
B. Take particular care when the beneficiary is a third party to the deal.
C. Ensure that details of all telephone deals which do not include pre-agreed standard settlement instructions are
confirmed by telex or similar means without delay.
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which one of the following is a major objective of ACI-The Financial Markets Association?
A. to promote globalization and deregulation of the financial markets
B. to maintain the professional level of competence and to disseminate a high level of ethical and professional behavior
C. to act as the official international market regulator in the absence of government regulation D. to become the sole global corporation of wholesale financial market professionals
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
If several banks hit a broker simultaneously for an amount greater than the amount for which the price was shown:
A. no transaction is done
B. the broker has to honor each and every amount hit
C. the broker has to split the amount among the banks on a pro rata basis
D. the broker may freely choose the bank(s) he will deal with
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Which one of the following statements about claims is true?
A. Claims are not expected to be submitted after 15 days from the actual settlement date.
B. Claims of less than USD 5,000.00 are not expected to be submitted.
C. Claims are calculated on the full principal amount of the failed transaction. Interest rates are imposed by the agent
banks, unless a higher negotiated rate is to be applied.
D. Acknowledgement of receipt of a claim should be confirmed within 48 hours by email or SWIFT.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
If spot GBP/CHF is quoted 2.3875-80 and the 3-month forward outright is 2.3660-70, what are the forward points?
A. 21.5/21
B. 210/215
C. 215/210
D. 21/21.5
Correct Answer: C

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Apple

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QUESTION 1
When applying thermal grease during a repair of the Mac Pro (Late 2013), which of the following are required?
A. Access card tool
B. Putty knife
C. CPU grease ruler
D. CPU grease stencil
E. Capacitor shield
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Where can a technician find the serial number of an SSD that has been replaced on a MacBook Pro (Retina, 13-inch.
Early 2013)?
A. Lift the mylar cover on the SSD.
B. Peel back the thermal pad on the SSD
C. On the top case.
D. On the back of the SSD cable
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Examine the image. When repairing a Mac mini (Mid 2011), which areas of the logic board assembly should you avoid
touching?
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A. The top and bottom of the assembly.
B. The EMI fingers and gasket.
C. The grounding pad and cable guide D. Thermal pad and heat sink clips.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following parts must be removed prior to replacing the left speaker of the MacBook Air (11- inch, Mid
2013)? SELECT THREE.
A. Right speaker
B. Bottom case
C. Battery
D. Logic board
E. I/O Flex cable
F. Display clamshell
G. Input device (IPD) flex cable
Correct Answer: BCG

QUESTION 5
To power on the system, which of the following can be used on the MacBook Pro (Retina, Mid 2012) and MacBook Pro
(Retina, 15-inch, Early 2013 and Late 2013) logic boards?
A. Two switches that can be flipped
B. Two ports that be activated
C. Two pads that can be shorted
D. Two buttons that can be pressed
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following could indicate accidental damage when inspecting the inside of a Mac mini (Late 2012) before a
repair?
A. Light dust in the fans
B. Third-party RAM installed
C. Lint gathered near the rear vents
D. Oxidation or discoloration of the logic board
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
What step is required before upgrading the RAM in a Mac Pro (Mid 2012)?
A. Remove the PCI-e fan.
B. Remove the processor tray.
C. Remove the hard drive carriers.
D. Remove the Optical Drive and Carrier.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What component should be investigated if a MacBook Air (13-inch, Mid 2012) sends video to an external display but not
to the internal?
A. Display Module
B. Logic board
C. I/O flex cable
D. I/O board
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A customer brings his MacBook Pro (15-inch, Mid 2012) in for servicing. It is not functioning correctly and you suspect
the machine has been damaged by the customer. As you inspect for accidental damage, you should open the lid and
confirm that the hinges are working smoothly and inspect the LCD for cracks in the glass. Which of the following should
you also do? Select two.
A. Disassemble the SuperDrive to check for debris or dust inside.
B. Look for cracks, dents, or scratches on the exterior of the system.
C. Connect the system to external speakers to check for sound output.
D. Erase all of the customer\’s data and reinstall OS X to test the hard drive.
E. Check for any unusual odors coming from the system, which might indicate spill damage.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which section of Apple Service Guide contains a detailed view of all service parts and their part numbers?
A. Part View
B. Exploded View
C. Service Parts Matrix
D. Parts General Information
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
According to the Apple Troubleshooting theory, at what stage should you run a diagnostic?
A. After determining the issue is not hardware
B. After determining the issue is Education Opportunity
C. After determining the issue is caused by the Environment
D. After determining the issue is with the device\’s Software or Hardware
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which section of Apple Service Guide contains a diagram for symptoms related to logic board connectors?
A. Quick Checks
B. Block Diagram
C. Exploded View
D. Functional Overview
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following Mac Pro (Late 2013) parts has a slot for flash storage?
A. Interposer
B. Daughterboard
C. Graphics Board A
D. Graphics Board B
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
You are troubleshooting an iMac (Late 2013) that does not power on. You notice that all diagnostic LEDs remain off
when a known-good power cord is connected
to the iMac and to a known-good power outlet.
What is most likely the cause of these symptoms?
A. Faulty power supply
B. Faulty display panel C. Faulty hard drive
D. Faulty video card
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Francine states that she does not see anything on her iMac display when she turns it on. Which of the following should
you use first to isolate as either a backlight issue or a video signal issue?
A. A flashlight
B. A replacement LCD panel
C. A replacement logic board
D. A replacement backlight power board
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
How many simultaneous connections are supported on AirPort Extreme and Time Capsule?
A. 254
B. 100
C. 50
D. 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which of the following measurements is an example of an appropriate use of a Multimeter when troubleshooting a
Mac?
A. Measure logic board battery voltage.
B. Measure amount of ESD voltage in the area.
C. Measure digital signals on the main processor.
D. Measure amount of AC volts going to the hard drive or SSD.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
If a customer uses the wrong wattage power adapter with a MacBook Pro (15-inch, Mid 2012) and cannot power on the
device, which of the following problems spaces best describes this issue?
A. OS B. Software
C. Hardware
D. Educational Opportunity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
The Mac Pro (Late 2013) enclosure is made of the following polished material that must be handled with care to avoid
scratching:
A. plastic
B. acrylic
C. titanium
D. aluminum
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
What color indicates that the Liquid Contact Indicators inside a MacBook Pro (13-inch, Mid 2012, have been triggered?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. White
D. Yellow
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which component for Apple Service Toolkit is designed to help troubleshoot issues with MagSafe and MagSafe 2 power
adapters?
A. NAD
B. VST
C. TPT
D. CSD
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
To help define if an issue is in the Environmental problem space, which question you ask your customer?
A. Do you have this issue on all Wi-Fi networks? B. Could you show me how you use your Mac?
C. Did you add any memory to this Mac?
D. Have you updated your software?
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
William would like to store his MacBook Air (13-inch, Mid 2013) while away for a six month sabbatical. What is the Apple
recommended level of battery charge for storing the computer?
A. 10 percent
B. 20 percent
C. 50 percent
D. 96 percent
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
If an issue is in the Hardware problem space, which of the following should be removed from the Apple product to
further isolate the issue?
A. All third party equipment
B. Any third party applications
C. Any third party extensions
D. Any third party frameworks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which of the following could indicate accidental damage when inspecting the inside of a Mac mini (Late 2012) before a
repair?
A. Light dust in the fans
B. Third-party RAM installed
C. Lint gathered near the rear vents
D. Oxidation or discoloration of the logic board
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which of the following 27-inch Apple Thunderbolt Display features is NOT available on the 27- inch Apple LED Cinema
Display? A. Gigabit Ethernet port
B. Mag Safe cable (85W)
C. Kensington security slot
D. Built-in 2.1 speaker system
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
How do you reset the SMC of a MacBook Pro (Retina, 13-inch, Early 2013)?
A. Press the internal SMC reset button near the SSD slot.
B. Disconnect the main battery, then hold down the power button down for five seconds.
C. Shut down the MacBook Pro and unplug for fifteen seconds. Attach the power adapter and wait five seconds, then
press the power button.
D. Plug in the MagSafe power adapter and shut down the computer. Using the system keyboard, press the Shift-Option-
Control keys and the power button at the same time
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Remaining residue from Very High Bond (VHB) adhesive should only be removed with which of the following:
A. VHB solvent
B. Nail polish remover
C. Isopropyl alcohol wipes
D. VHB neutralizer
E. Liquid acid neutralizer
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 29
You are about to replace a MacBook Air (11-inch. Mid 2013) logic board. Which of the following is the most important
step you should take immediately after removing the bottom case?
A. Remove the thermal module.
B. Install the battery cover.
C. Remove the SSD carrier
D. Remove the battery.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
What is the maximum amount of memory that is supported in a dual-processor Mac Pro (Mid 2012)?
A. 64 GB
B. 32GB
C. 16 GB
D. 8 GB
Correct Answer: D

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Salesforce

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QUESTION 1
What is a Record Type? Select the right choice
A. Allows you to define different sets of picklist values for both standard and custom picklist
B. Allows you to define different sets of picklist values only for standard picklist
C. Allows you to define different sets of picklist values only for custom picklist
D. Allows you to define different sets of picklist values only for new picklist
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Why are Sharing Rules used?
Correct Answer: To open up access to records you wouldn\’t naturally get through Organization Wide, Defaults and
RoleHierarchy. They are the exceptions to the Organization Wide Defaults.

QUESTION 3
Inline Editing is available in visual force pages?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You can map a single column from the CSV file to multiple fields in Salesforce SFA.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Define the Tabular Report.
Correct Answer: Provides a simple listing of your data without subtotals. The only format that has a floating report
header.

QUESTION 6
Which are true about Trialforce Email Branding?
A. It is available only in Unlimited, Enterprise and Developer Editions
B. It allows you to modify system-generated emails so that they appear to come from your company rather than fromSalesforce.com.
C. Trialforce Email Branding is automatically enabled for existing partners with Trialforce and when a new partner
request Trialforce.
D. Trialforce Email Branding only applies to users who sign up for your application through Trialforce.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which statements are true about Cloud Scheduler?
A. It is available in Group, Professional, Enterprise, Unlimited, and Developer Editions only.
B. Cloud Scheduler is now enabled by default for all organizations.
C. You can automatically see the New Meeting Request button on all eligible contact, lead, and person account detail
pages.
D. Meeting organizers can not use Cloud Scheduler to request meetings with customers, and have customers select
preferred times before confirming the meeting.
E. Administrators can add or remove the New Meeting Request button on multiple page layouts using the new Cloud
Scheduler quick setup method.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 8
When would you choose to build a Public Group?
Correct Answer: To simplify the number of sharing rules built or when defining folder or list view access.

QUESTION 9
How can you export accounts and contacts in a Contact Manager edition of Salesforce?
A. Since there is no Weekly Export in contact manager, you can instead install Salesforce for outlook.
B. You can create a report on those records and use the andquot;Export Detailsandquot; button.
C. Use Connect for Outlook because Salesforce for Outloook does not run without API.
D. Export those records using weekly data export from andquot;Setup andgt; Administration Setup andgt; Data
Management andgt; Exportandquot;.
E. There is no export option in Contact Manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You delete the Custom Field Region. All data related to Region will also be deleted.
A. True B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
If your org is configured for data export, you can generate backup files manually how often?
A. Everyday
B. Once every 6 days
C. Once every 15 days
D. Once every 5 days
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You can rename standard Tabs and Objects. 9962077244
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which of the following features is not available in Professional Edition?
A. Big Deal Alert
B. Workflow
C. Account Sharing Rules
D. Multi-Currency
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
The Console\’s center frame is the detail page view of any record selected from any of the console\’s other frame.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which graphs rely on grand total for dashboards?
A. Metric and table B. Metric and gauge
C. Table and gauge
D. Table and line
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Records in the recycle bin do NOT count against your organization\’s storage limits
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
A Look-up field can look up to what?
A. An Object
B. A field
C. A record
D. A report
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Custom Fiscal years are for companies that break down their fiscal years, quarters, and weeks in to custom fiscal
periods based on their financial planning requirements.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which combination of objects is available when creating a custom report type for Chatter reports?
A. Opportunities, Followers, User Feed
B. Accounts, User Feed, Comments
C. Users, User Feed, Comments
D. Chatter Groups, Members
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 20
A Workflow Alert can be tracked in Activity History
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Customer Portal users can view the tags section of a page, if it is included in a page layout.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
A role has many to many relationships with the user?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Custom Picklist fields can be either controlling or dependent fields
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
When users log in to Salesforce, either via the user interface, the API, or a desktop client Salesforce CRM confirms the
log in is authorized using all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Salesforce CRM then checks whether the user\’s profile has IP address restrictions. If IP address restrictions are
defined for the user\’s profile, any login from an undesignated IP address is denied and any login from a specified IP
address is allowed
B. If profile-based IP address restrictions aren\’t set, then Salesforce CRM checks whether the user is logging in from an
IP address she or he hasn\’t used to access Salesforce CRM before
C. Salesforce CRM checks whether the organization has login hour restrictions. If login hour restrictions are specified,
any login outside the specified hours is denied.
D. Salesforce CRM checks whether the user\’s profile has login hour restrictions. If login hour restrictions are specified
for the user\’s profile, any login outside the specified hours is denied.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
If your organization uses territory management, the new account is evaluated by account assignment rules and may be
assigned to one or more territories.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
You can update licenses on the Company Profile.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which of the following settings directly affects Date fields to display as MM/DD/YYYY?
A. Local
B. Time Zone
C. Language
D. Default Currency
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
It is advisable not to overwrite user records with new user data because it would prevent you from tracking a history of
past users and the records associated to them?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which of the following statements is true about computer activation?
A. It is required to activate additional IP addresses for accessing SF.
B. It is required for all IP addresses and browsers.
C. It is required to access SF online. D. It is required to identify regular SF users.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Data validation ensures the integrity of data when data is exported in SF
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
An organization uses Microsoft Dynamics 365 to track Opportunities and Competitors. They want to make sure that a competitor is always tracked when it is mentioned in an email from a potential customer regarding an opportunity-How can this be
achieved using the fewest steps?
A. Instruct users to always manually associate the competitor when the Competitor Mentioned card is shown by the Relationship Assistant.
B. Configure the Relationship Assistant, and check the Card Option for the Competitor Mentioned card to perform the associated action automatically instead of displaying the card.
C. In the configuration for Auto Capture, enable the option to track competitors automatically when mentioned in emails regarding an opportunity.
D. Create a workflow to scan emails for competitor names, and associate the mentioned competitor to the opportunity.
MB2-717 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You are using Opportunities and Quotes to manage your sales process in Microsoft Dynamics 365. A customer requests quotes tor the same set of products, but from two different price lists for comparison. What should you do in order to respond to this customer’s request?
A. Create two Opportunities with different price lists. Then create one Quote from each of the Opportunities.
B. Create one Opportunity with one Quote. Then, have the customer review the quote Before creating another.
C. Create one Opportunity with one Quote. Then, revise the Quote and add the other price list to the Quote
D. Create two Quotes from the same Opportunity. Then, switch the price list on one of the Quotes.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You are working with a company to implement Microsoft Dynamics 365 for their sales division. The sales manager wants all sales people to have the ability to be alerted when a recipient opens an email that was sent to them. Which component of Microsoft Dynamics 365 should you use to manage this ability?
A. Email Engagement
B. Auto Capture
C. Relationship Assistant
D. Folder Level Tracking
MB2-717 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are a sales professional for a medium-sized firm. You are entering information into Microsoft Dynamics you organized at a trade show. What type of record should you create for each card?
A. Prospect
B. Lead
C. Account
D. Opportunity
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You are working with the default Opportunity form In Microsoft Dynamics 365. Your sales manager has asked all sales staff to maintain best practices when managing sales and to enter as much information as possible. You need to be able to add additional records and activities to the Opportunity without leaving the form. What are two types of records you can add from within the Opportunity form? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Invoices
B. Credit Notes / Adjustment Notes
C. Stakeholders
D. Products
MB2-717 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
You are The technical support specialist for a company that utilizes Microsoft Dynamics 365. A new user calls the help desk complaining that every time they try to create a record, they are being denied the ability to The user states that some type of error is displayed as well. What would cause this error?
A. The user cannot create records using the Outlook client
B. The user failed to populate at (east one required field.
C. The user is using Dynamics 365 Business Edition father than Enterprise Edition.
D. The user cannot input more than 250 characters into a single line of text field.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You are a new sales executive for a company that utilizes Microsoft Dynamics 365. You have begun tracking your activities in Microsoft Dynamics 365. You have completed the activities for one of your customers. How will the activity state of the designated tasks be modified to reflect the fulfillment of these
A. You must manually change the activity state to Canceled.
B. The activity state will update automatically when the associated opportunity is won.
C. The activity state will update automatically when the associated sale order is complete.
D. You must manually change the activity state to Completed.
MB2-717 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You are a sales support specialist for a company that utilizes Microsoft Dynamics 365. You are going through the many records of their current database and inputting this data into Microsoft Dynamics 365. Which instance below would be created as an Opportunity record in Microsoft Dynamics 365?
A. a person who calls into the company after receiving a mass mailing advertisement from your company
B. a person who has prequalified for a mortgage and wants to utilize a real estate agent to look at property
C. a person who signs a contract to purchase three cases of your product on a quarterly basis for 2 years r
D. a list of people supplied by a marketing research firm that matches your target market
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You are using Microsoft Dynamics 365 for sales. Your marketing department has given you a number of illustrated documents that explain how your product is superior to various competitors. You have been tasked with adding this material to Dynamics 365 so the salespeople can use and email the material to their prospects, all from within Dynamics 365. How should you complete this task?
A. Add the documents to SharePoint and set up the SharePoint integration with Dynamics 365.
B. Add the documents as sales literature, and associate them with the right competitors.
C. Add the documents as Email Templates associated with the opportunity entity.
D. Add the documents as attachments in the notes section for each competitor.
MB2-717 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You are a technical support specialist for your company. The Company’s sales staff are issued a company laptop to use when interfacing with Microsoft Dynamics 365. They need to integrate their smart phones with Microsoft Dynamics 365 as well. Many of their phones, however, do not have a supported web browser. What should you suggest to meet this sales staffs need?
A. Advise them to run the Microsoft Dynamics 365 web app on their phones.
B. Advise them to use the web client to access Microsoft Dynamics 365 from their phones.
C. Advise them to download the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App from the Office 365 Admin portal.
D. Advise them to download the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App from their phone’s store.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You are working for a company that is in the process of trying to secure a large contract As you work with this sales opportunity, you need to manage all the various people involved in the sale, both from the customer and external stakeholder point of view. You need visibility on the Opportunity record to do this. Which type of functionality can you use in Microsoft Dynamics 365 to facilitate visibility of those involved?
A. Stakeholders
B. Business Process Flows
C. Contact Preferences
D. Chats
MB2-717 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You are a project manager in charge of implementing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for a sales organization. You are creating a product catalog. You have created a number of products, yet sales people are complaining that they cannot add these products to any invoices. What must be done so that the sales people can add these products to their invoices?
A. The products must first be added to an opportunity.
B. The products must first be activated.
C. The products must be placed into draft status.
D. The products must first be included in a quote.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
An opportunity to partner with one of your competitors on a large project has come up, but you are unable to select the competitor as a customer on the opportunity. Which two record types can you assign to the competitor to enable you to se4ect them as a customer? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Lead
B. Contact
C. Account
D. Prospect
MB2-717 pdf Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
You notice that all of your current customers are stored m Microsoft Dynamics 365 as Account records. You need to create records for other organizations you work with to support your customers. These organizations represent vendors, partners, and distributors. What record type should you use for these organizations?
A. Account
B. Prospect
C. Organization
D. Company
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You are a sales manager who has a large sates team. You want to track when you lose sales to your competitors. Which activity allows you to track your competitors in relationship to a lost opportunity?
A. Resolution activities
B. Phone activities
C. Task activities
D. Email activities
MB2-717 vce Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 28
Which two explanations of DTMF dialing are true? (Choose two.)
A. DTMF dialing consists of simultaneous voice-band tones generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
B. The use of DTMF enables support for advanced telephony services.
C. DTMF dialing uses INVITE messages to signal when the first digit is pressed in a new call.
D. DTMF dialing consists of a simultaneous digital-band pulse generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
210-060 exam Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
A Cisco administrator is asked to set up two new end users in Cisco Unified Communication Manager. Which two fields are required? (Choose two.)
A. First Name
B. User ID
C. PIN
D. Telephone Number
E. Password
F. Last Name
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 30
A user reports that during calls they hear excessive hissing when neither party is talking.
Which option is one cause of this noise?
A. QoS
B. LoPS
C. VAD
D. EPL
E. SRST
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 31
A voice admin is trying to help a user to remotely change the call forward busy settings for a directory number. Which option shows how to make this change remotely?
A. Log in to https:///ucmuser > general settings.
B. Log in to https:///ucmuser > phone > phone settings.
C. Log in to https:///ucmuser > phone > call forwarding > advanced calling rules.
D. Log in to https:///ucmuser > voicemail.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 32
A Cisco IP phone is connected to a Cisco switch and is trying to obtain its network configuration. What is the first protocol that is used?
A. RTP
B. DHCP
C. CDP
D. SIP
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 33
Which component allows Cisco Jabber to communicate with clients who are outside the corporate network?
A. Cisco Extension Mobility
B. Cisco TMS
C. Cisco Mobility Remote Destination
D. Cisco Unified RTMT
E. Cisco Mobile and Remote Access
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 34
Several users in the same Call Manager group reported that they receive a fast busy tone when they go off hook. They reported that the issue went away after a few minutes. Where should the voice systems administrator begin troubleshooting?
A. SIP gateway
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber
C. network cable
D. 7945 IP phone
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 35
A network administrator wants a new employee to download the RTMT tool. Which menu option supports this function?
A. Bulk Administration > Job Scheduler > Plugins
B. Application > Plugins
C. Call routing > Plugins
D. Server > Region > Plugins
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
An administrator must keep CDR data for a longer period of time and wants to modify the configured value of the CDR/CMR Files Presentation Duration Days). Which menu options does the engineer navigate?
A. Unified CM Administration > System > Enterprise Parameters
B. Unified Serviceability > Tools > Serviceability Reports Archive
C. Unified CM Administration > Call Routing > Route Plan Report
D. Unified Serviceability > Tools > CDR Management
210-060 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 37
What is the maximum amount of packet loss an engineer should allow for voice traffic on an IP network?
A. 5 percent
B. 2 percent
C. 3 percent
D. 1 percent
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 38
A user presses the envelope button on a 7945 IP phone, but it only launches audio voicemail. Where should the voice systems administrator troubleshoot?
A. Visual voicemail IP phone service in Cisco Unity Connection
B. Visual voicemail IP phone service in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. SIP trunk between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Unity Connection
D. IP phone network connectivity
210-060 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 39
A manager is generating bill reports for a particular user. Which navigation sequence must be used for this task?
A. Bills > Department
B. User Reports > Bills > Department
C. Bill > Individual
D. User Reports > Bills > Individual
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
Which address is required to create a video endpoint in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. MAC
B. IP
C. E.164
D. SIP URI
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 41
A voicemail user reports that he cannot access Cisco Unity Connection from the IP phone message button. Which option must you perform to resolve the problem?
A. In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, navigate to Advanced Features > Voicemail to confirm that the user has the correct voicemail profile
B. In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, navigate to Device > Phone to confirm that the device has the correct voicemail profile
C. In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, navigate to Device > Phone to confirm that the directory number has the correct voicemail profile
D. In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, navigate to User Management > End User to confirm that the user has the correct voicemail profile
E. In Cisco Unity Connection, navigate to Users > Users to confirm that the user web password is correct.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 42
Which two user attributes must be defined in Cisco Unity Connection before the users can be added? (Choose two.)
A. display name
B. alias
C. time zone
D. class of service
E. dial plan
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43
Users are complaining about dropped calls, so a network engineer needs to troubleshoot Cisco Unified Communications Manager to view concurrent calls and dropped calls. Where does the engineer generate such reports?
A. Cisco Unified Serviceability
B. Cisco Unified OS Administration
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration
D. Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 44
An engineer must ensure that user data is maintained in lightweight directory access protocol and copied to Cisco Unity Connection, but Cisco Unity Connection-specific data is locally maintained in the Cisco Unity Connection database.
Which user creation option accomplishes this task?
A. bulk administration
B. import from CUCM via AXL
C. import from LDAP
D. manual creation
210-060 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 45
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
210-060 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 46
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
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210-060 exam Correct Answer:
210-060 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 47
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
210-060 dumps

QUESTION 48
DRAG DROP
Drag from the left to correct steps.
Select and Place:
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210-060 dumps Correct Answer:
210-060 dumps

QUESTION 49
An IP phone that is using PoE shows andquot;unknownandquot; in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What should the engineer do to restore the phone to service?
A. restart the phone from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. reset the phone from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. enter **# locally on the IP phone
D. check the network cable and switch port
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 50
Which menu option should be selected to add a desk phone as an endpoint in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Application
B. Device
C. System
D. User management
E. Media devices
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 51
Which component is needed to facilitate the connection between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco Unified Presence Server?
A. SIP trunk
B. H.323 gateway
C. Gatekeeper
D. MGCP gateway
E. Cisco Unified Border Element
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 52
An engineer is configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager disaster recovery system. Which three statements about the disaster recovery system are true? (Choose three.)
A. It requires the use of schedules for backups.
B. Backup files are encrypted using the cluster security password.
C. If the backup device is listed in a backup schedule, it cannot be manually deleted.
D. If the backup does not complete within 40 hours, the backup times out.
E. Archiving backups to tape drives is supported.
F. SSL is used between the master and local agents.
210-060 vce Correct Answer: BCF

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QUESTION 1
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application to be used on the Internet. The environment does not use Active Directory. Users must be able to log on to the application to maintain their personal preferences. You need to use the least amount of development effort to enable users to log on. What should you do?
A. Enable Digest authentication.
B. Enable Windows authentication.
C. Enable Forms authentication.
D. Generate server SSL certificates and install them in IIS.
70-486 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Many Web applications require a way to restrict access to some resources (such as specific pages) so that those resources are accessible only to authenticated users. The default Web application project template for ASP.NET MVC provides a controller, data models, and views that you can use to add ASP.NET forms authentication to your application. The built-in functionality lets users register, log on and off, and change their password. For many applications, this functionality provides a sufficient level of user authentication.
Incorrect:
Not B: Windows authentication would require an Active Directory. Windows authentication method works only if the following two conditions exist:
/ You set up your network to use the Kerberos authentication protocol that requires Active Directory.
/ You set up the computers and accounts on your network as trusted for delegation.
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff398049(VS.98).aspx

QUESTION 2
You are designing an enterprise-level Windows Communication Foundation (WCF) application. User accounts will migrate from the existing system. The new system must be able to scale to accommodate the increasing load.
The new servers are experiencing significant stress under load of large-scale role changes. You need to ensure that the application can handle the stress. Which authorizations should you redesign? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Role-based approach
B. Identity-based approach
C. Resource-based trusted subsystem model
D. Resource-based impersonation/delegation model
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

QUESTION 3
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that will run in a shared environment.
The application requests the user’s password, and then uses the password to sign data.
You need to minimize the potential for the password to be discovered by other processes that run in the shared environment. What should you do?
A. Add the SecuritySafeCriticalAttribute attribute to the methods which process the password.
B. Store the password in a SecureString instance.
C. Encrypt the password on the web page, and decrypt the password in the MVC application.
D. Run the code that processes the password in its own AppDomain.
70-486 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Application domains provide a unit of isolation for the common language runtime. They are created and run inside a process. Application domains are usually created by a runtime host, which is an application responsible for loading the
runtime into a process and executing user code within an application domain. The runtime host creates a process and a default application domain, and runs managed code inside it. Runtime hosts include ASP.NET, Microsoft Internet
Explorer, and the Windows shell. For most applications, you do not need to create your own application domain; the runtime host creates any necessary application domains for you. However, you can create and configure additional
application domains if your application needs to isolate code or to use and unload DLLs.

QUESTION 4
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that uses forms authentication. The user database contains a user named LibraryAdmin. You have the following requirements:
70-486 dumps
You need to implement the controller to meet the requirements.
Which code segment should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
70-486 dumps
70-486 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. Devices that use many different browsers will use the application.
You have the following requirements:
70-486 dumps
You need to configure the application. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use JavaScript to evaluate the window.innerWidth and window.innerHeigh properties.
B. Set the value of the width property for the viewport meta tag to device-width.
C. Use CSS to target the HTML element on each page. Set the values of the width and height properties to 100%.
D. Use CSS media queries to target screen size, device orientation, and other browser capabilities.
70-486 pdf Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: If you want the viewport width to match the device’s physical pixels, you can specify the following:
For this to work correctly, you must not explicitly force elements to exceed that width (e.g., using a width attribute or CSS property), otherwise the browser will be forced to use a larger viewport regardless. D: Media queries in CSS3 extend the CSS2 media types idea: Instead of looking for a type of device, they look at the capability of the device. Media queries can be used to check many things, such as: width and height of the viewport width and height of the device orientation (is the tablet/phone in landscape or portrait mode?) resolution Using media queries are a popular technique for delivering a tailored style sheet to tablets, iPhone, and Androids.

QUESTION 6
You are developing an ASP.NET application that allows users to download Microsoft Azure log files. You need to improve the performance of the application. What should you do?
A. Minify the content files.
B. Enable compression in IIS.
C. Bundle the content files into a single .tar file.
D. Host the image, JavaScript, and CSS files on a different server.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Bundling is a new feature in ASP.NET 4.5 that makes it easy to combine or bundle multiple files into a single file. You can create CSS, JavaScript and other bundles. Fewer files means fewer HTTP requests and that can improve first page
load performance.

QUESTION 7
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that enables you to edit and save a contact.
The application must not save on an HTTP GET request.
You need to implement the controller.
Which two possible code segments should you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
70-486 dumps
70-486 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-486 pdf Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: We retrieve the GET and POST methods through
this.HttpContext.Request.RequestType.
B: This is the default MVC implementation of having separate methods for GET and POST via function overloading.
Incorrect:
Not D: We retrieve the GET and POST methods through this.HttpContext.Request.RequestType, not through this.HttpContext.Request[“ActionName”].

QUESTION 8
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that enables you to edit and save a student object.
The application must not retrieve student objects on an HTTP POST request.
You need to implement the controller. Which code segment should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
70-486 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:

QUESTION 9
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that enables you to edit and save a student object.
The application must not retrieve student objects on an HTTP POST request.
You need to implement the controller.
Which code segment should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
70-486 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-486 vce Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:

QUESTION 10
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that delivers real-time game results to sports fans. The application includes the following code. Line numbers are included for reference only.
70-486 dumps
The source data for the game results is updated every 30 seconds. Testers report the following issues with the application:
70-486 dumps
You need to correct the performance issues. Which two changes should you make to the code? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Replace the code at line 07 with the following code segment:[OutputCache(Duration =30, VaryByParam = “none”, Location = OutputCacheLocation.Client, NoStore = true)]
B. Replace the code at line 12 with the following code segment:[OutputCache(Duration = 30, VaryByParam = “none”, Location = OutputCacheLocation.Server, NoStore = true)]
C. Replace the code at line 07 with the following code segment:[OutputCache(Duration = 3600, VaryByParam = “none”, Location = OutputCacheLocation.Server, NoStore = false)]
D. Replace the code at line 12 with the following code segment:[OutputCache(Duration = 3600, VaryByParam = “none”, Location = OutputCacheLocation.Client, NoStore = true)]
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: They report delays in seeing the latest game results. This is the output of the GetResults() function. We decrease the Duration in the cache for this function from 3600 to 30. This is one line 12.
A: They report seeing other user’s name when they sign in to the application. This is the output of the GetUserInfo() function. We should change the OutputCacheLocation of the caching of this function from Server to Client. This is on line 7. Note: The OutputCacheLocation.Client option indicates that the content should be cached at the requesting client. Any requests for the same resource made from the same client within the expiry period, will be served out the client’s cache, without a network request being made to the server. The OutputCacheLocation.Server option indicates that the content will be cached at the origin server. This content will be served for subsequent requests made by the initial client and any other client requesting the same resource within the expiry period. References:

QUESTION 11
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application.
The application must allow users to enter HTML in a feedback text box only.
You need to disable request validation. What should you do?
A. Use the HttpRequest.Form property to read the unvalidated form value.
B. Apply and set the Validatelnput attribute on the controller action to FALSE.
C. Use the HttpRequest.Unvalidated property to read the unvalidated form value.
D. Apply and set the CausesValidation attribute on the controller action to FALSE.
70-486 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The HttpRequest.Unvalidated Property provides access to HTTP request values without triggering request validation.

QUESTION 12
You are designing a distributed application that runs on the Windows Azure platform.
The application must store a small amount of insecure global information that does not change frequently.
You need to configure the application to meet the requirements. Which server-side state management option should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows Azure application state
B. SQL Azure
C. Profile properties of the Windows Azure application
D. Windows Azure session state
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SQL Database provides a relational database management system for Windows Azure and is based on SQL Server technology. With a SQL Database instance, you can easily provision and deploy relational database solutions to the cloud, and take advantage of a distributed data center that provides enterprise-class availability, scalability, and security with the benefits of built-in data protection and self-healing.
Incorrect:
Not A: Application State does not exist in Azure. Not C: Profile properties stores personal, not global, information. Not D: Session state is not global. Session states handles user information such as cookies, hidden fields, and query strings are some client-side options to tracking user state

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3.0 Cisco Data Center Networking Technologies 26%
  • 3.1 Describe, configure, and verify FEX connectivity
  • 3.2 Describe, configure, and verify basic vPC features
  • 3.3 Describe, configure, and verify FabricPath
  • 3.4 Describe, configure, and verify unified switch ports
  • 3.5 Describe the features and benefits of Unified Fabric
  • 3.6 Describe and explain the use of role-based access control within the data center infrastructure
4.0 Automation and Orchestration 15%
  • 4.1 Explain the purpose and value of using APIs
  • 4.2 Describe the basic concepts of cloud computing
  • 4.3 Describe the basic functions of a Cisco UCS Director
  • 4.3.a Management
  • 4.3.b Orchestration
  • 4.3.c Multitenancy
  • 4.3.d Chargeback
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200-155 Dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam ()Q&As

1. You have assembled and installed a Hitachi Thunder 9570V?subsystemRK and a RKA into a 19 inch rack. The system parameters have also been configured. The customer now needs to use port 0A in order to connect HP-UX with a LUN 0 and Solaris with a LUN 0 on the same port. Which two will enable this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. install the LUN SECURITY license
B. create two host groups on port 0A
C. install the LUN-MANAGEMENT license
D. configure port 0A to work in HP-UX mode
200-155 exam Answer: BC

2. What is the operational humidity requirement at a site when installing a Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem?
A. 5% to 90% B.
8% to 80% C.
10% to 75% D.
10% to 90%
Answer: B

3. Which statement is true about cache slots on the Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem?
A. Each controller has two cache slots and each slot can hold 1GB DIMMS for a maximum of 2GB per controller.
B. Each controller has two cache slots and each slot can hold 512MB or 1GB DIMMS for a maximum of 1GB or 2GB per controller.
C. Each controller has four cache slots and each slot can hold 512MB or 1GB DIMMS for a maximum of 2 GB or 4GB per controller.
D. Each controller has four cache slots and each slot can hold 256MB or 512MB DIMMS for a maximum of 1 GB or 2 GB per controller.
200-155 dumps Answer: B

4. Which component on the first RKA is used to connect to the RK in a Hitachi Thunder 9570V?Series subsystem?
A. PDB
B. ENC unit
C. Controller unit
D. AC Power Unit
Answer: B

5. You are connected to a Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem using Hitachi?Resource Manager GUI. You have created LUNs for 12D+1P RAID group, and now you want to set up one spare disk. Given the following steps:
A.select Settings-> Logical Settings
B. select Settings-> Configuration Settings
C. select the Logical Settings tab D.select Settings-> Logical Unit-> Set Spare Drive E.select the disk that you want to set up as spare F.select the Spare Drive tab
A. B, F, E
B. B, F, G
C. D, C, E
D. F, C, G
200-155  pdf Answer: B

6. Ten LUNs must be recognized by the QLogic HBA on Microsoft Windows 2000 Server which is connected to a Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem. What is the system parameter that needs to be set up?
A. in the modify Host Group option, select CCHS mode in Standard mode
B. in the modify Host Group option, select CCHS mode in Host connection mode
C. in the modify Host Group option, select HISUP2 mode in Host connection mode
D. in the modify Host Group option, select HISUP mode in Host connection mode 2 Answer: D

7. You are using the Hitachi?Resource Manager GUI for the first time. You want to change to a different mode from default mode. What is the first thing you should do, before changing to a different mode?
A. go to Add-> Password and add the password
B. go to Add-> Change Mode and select the mode
C. go to Settings-> Password and register the password
D. go to Settings-> Change Properties and set the mode option to other modes
200-155  vce Answer: C

8. A customer has Sun Netra Servers mounted on a Hitachi Data Systems?19 inch rack. You need to mount a RK and a RKA on the same rack. What is the amps/PS rating you need to use for both the RK and RKA together in order to ensure that the PDU is not overloaded when two power supplies are used on both the RK and the RKA and the source is 100V?
A. 3.20
B. 5.10
C. 6.30
D. 10.20
Answer: C

9. What is the vibration tolerance of a Hitachi Thunder 9570?subsystem in operation, if installed near large generators located on the floor above or below the subsystem?
A. 2.5 m/s2 or less
B. 3.0 m/s2 or less
C. 3.5 m/s2 or less
D. 4.0 m/s2 or less
200-155  exam Answer:A

10. A customer has purchased a floor model of a Hitachi Thunder 9570V?Series subsystem set up as RK + RKA + H2H Deskside Kit. Which two connections between the RK and the RKA are valid? (Choose two.)
A. HSSDC#0 on Controller#0 of RK is connected to HSSDC#0 on ENC Unit#0 of RKA and HSSDC#1 on Controller#0 of RK is connected to HSSDC#1 on ENC Unit#0 of RKA.
B. HSSDC#0 on Controller#0 of RK is connected to HSSDC#1 on ENC Unit#0 of RKA and HSSDC#1 on Controller#0 of RK is connected to HSSDC#0 on ENC Unit#0 of RKA.
C. HSSDC#0 on Controller#1 of RK is connected to HSSDC#0 on ENC Unit#1 of RKA and HSSDC#1 on Controller#1 of RK is connected to HSSDC#1 on ENC Unit#1 of RKA.
D. HSSDC#0 on Controller#1 of RK is connected to HSSDC#1 on ENC Unit#1 of RKA and HSSDC#1 on Controller#1 of RK is connected to HSSDC#0 on ENC Unit#1 of RKA. Answer:AC

11. You are performing a Microprogram install for a customer on their Hitachi Thunder 9570V?Series subsystem. You receive message code RBA000 on the Web Access information messages. What does this message indicate?
A. Installation failed.
B. Installation failed in a part of the drive.
C. Downgrade check result was “Not Good.”
D. There was another system when installation was started.
200-155 dumps Answer: C

12. Which three operating systems can be used to install and run HDLM? (Choose three.)
A. AIX
B. OS/2
C. HP-UX
D. VxWorks
E. Microsoft Windows 2000
Answer:ACE

13. What is the maximum distance between a host and a Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem, when using short-wave Fibre Channel cable operating at data transfer speed of 200MB/s?
A. 100 meters
B. 200 meters
C. 300 meters
D. 400 meters
200-155 pdf Answer: C

14. What do you use to capture Simple or CTL Alarm trace information?
A. HiCommand
B. Web Access
C. Hitachi?Resource Manager CLI
D. Hitachi?Resource Manager GUI
Answer: B

15. You are connected to a Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem using a browser. How can you enter into Maintenance mode on it?
A. press the Soft Reset button on both the controllers
B. press the Rotary Set switch on the rear of the frame
C. click “Go to Maintenance Mode” button on the left pane of the browser
D. enter the IP address of the subsystem in the address field of the browser
200-155 vce Answer:A

16. Which of the following parts can be downgraded while the 9500V is online?
A. RKA
B. Drive
C. Cache
D. Controller
Answer: B

17. Frame Relay adopts ( ) as the switching method.
A.Routing
B.Circuit switching
C.Fast switching
D.Packet switching
200-155  exam Answer: D

18. A network protocol is a set of rules and conventions that prescribe how network devices inter-communicate. The communication parties shall understand and abide the protocol. ( )
T.True
F.False
Answer: T

19. Which layer of the OSI reference model implements encryption. ( )
A.Physical layer
B.Transport layer
C.Session layer
D.Presentation layer
200-155  dumps Answer: D

20. Both the transport layer and the data link layer perform error check. ( )
T.True
F.False
Answer: t

21. Common routing protocols are ( ).
A.IPX
B.OSPF
C.RIP
D.IP
200-155 pdf Answer: bc

22. To test the gateways that a packet will pass through from the source host to the destination, use the command ( ) in the H3C COMWARE command line.
A.ping
B.tracert
C.show path
D.display path
Answer: b

23. What algorithm is adopted in PPP CHAP authentication? ( )
A.MD5
B.DES
C.RSA
D.SHA
200-155  vce Answer: a

24. Two routers are in back-to-back connection with the following configuration. Can they communicate
with each other? ( )
[Router1] display current-configuration
#
sysname Router1
#
FTP server enable
#
l2tp domain suffix-separator @
#
radius scheme system
#
domain system
#
local-user admin
password cipher .]@USE=B,53Q=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.NM(0=0\)*5WWQ=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.N
service-type telnet terminal
level 3
service-type ftp local
user h3c password
simple h3c service
type ppp
#
interface Aux0
async mode flow
#
interface Serial0/0
link-protocol ppp
ppp authentication-mode chap
ppp chap user h3c
ip address 10.0.0.1 255.255.255.0
#
interface NULL0
#
user-interface con 0
user-interface aux 0
user-interface vty 0 4
authentication-mode none
user privilege level 3
#
return
[Router2] display current-configuration
#
sysname Router2
#
FTP server enable
#
l2tp domain suffix-separator @
#
radius scheme system
#
domain system
#
local-user admin
password cipher .]@USE=B,53Q=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.NM(0=0\)*5WWQ=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.N
service-type telnet terminal
level 3
service-type ftp local
user h3c password
simple 3com service
type ppp
#
interface Aux0
async mode flow
#
interface Serial0/0
clock DTECLK1
link-protocol ppp
ppp authentication-mode chap
ppp chap user h3c
ip address 10.0.0.2 255.255.255.0
#
interface NULL0
#
user-interface con 0
user-interface aux 0
user-interface vty 0 4
authentication-mode none
user privilege level 3
#
return
A.Yes
B.No
C.No decision can be made, for there is not enough information.
Answer: b
9. If the user data exceeds the Bc (committed burst ) in a frame relay network, the exceeding data will be
dropped. ( )
T.True
F.False
Answer: f

25. Two routers are in back-to-back connection with the following configuration. Can they communicate
with each other? ( )
[Router1]display current-configuration
#
sysname Router1
#
FTP server enable
#
l2tp domain suffix-separator @
#
fr switching#
radius scheme system
#
domain system
#
local-user admin
password cipher .]@USE=B,53Q=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.NM(0=0\)*5WWQ=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.N
service-type telnet terminal
level 3
service-type ftp
#
interface Aux0
async mode flow
#
interface Ethernet0/0
ip address dhcp-alloc
#
interface Ethernet0/1
ip address dhcp-alloc
#
interface Serial0/0
link-protocol fr
fr interface-type dce
#
interface Serial0/0.1 p2p
fr dlci 20
ip address 10.0.0.1 255.255.255.0
#
interface NULL0
#
user-interface con 0
user-interface aux 0
user-interface vty 0 4
authentication-mode none
user privilege level 3
#
return
[Router2]display current-configuration
#
sysname Router2
#
FTP server enable
#
l2tp domain suffix-separator @
#
radius scheme system
#
domain system
#
local-user admin
password cipher .]@USE=B,53Q=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.NM(0=0\)*5WWQ=^Q`MAF4<<“TX$_S#6.N
service-type telnet terminal
level 3
service-type ftp
#
interface Aux0
async mode flow
#
interface Ethernet0/0
ip address dhcp-alloc
#
interface Ethernet0/1
ip address dhcp-alloc
#
interface Serial0/0
clock DTECLK1
link-protocol fr
#
interface Serial0/0.1 p2p
fr dlci 20
ip address 10.0.0.2 255.255.255.0
#
interface NULL0
#
user-interface con 0
user-interface aux 0
user-interface vty 0 4
authentication-mode none
user privilege level 3
#
return
A.Yes
B.No
C.No decision can be made, for there is not enough information.
200-155  exam Answer: a

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