CCDA, Cisco

Help All Candidates Pass Cisco 200-310 Vce at First Attempt

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200-310 Vce

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Update KingDump 200-310  Vce CCDA Exam Questions

Question No : 3

Which technology allows remote networks to be connected via site-to-site tunnels?
A. IPsec VPN
B. AnyConnect VPN
C. SSL VPN
D. EasyConnect VPN
Answer: A

Question No : 4

A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices.
What routing configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a private line
failure?
A. floating static entry
B. EIGRP variance
C. bandwidth metric
D. OSPF maximum paths
Answer: A

Question No : 5

Which two Cisco products can be used in a data center to support OTV technology?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
C. Cisco ASR 1000 Series Routers
D. Cisco ASR 9000 Series Routers
E. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series Switches
Answer: B,C

Question No : 6

When there is a need for immunity to EMI for connecting locations that are greater than
100 meters apart, which two solutions can be utilized? (Choose two.)
A. multimode fiber
B. Fibre Channel
C. HVDC transmission lines
D. single-mode fiber
E. serial RS-232
F. Gigabit Ethernet 1000BASE-CX
Answer: A,D 

Question No : 7

What is the maximum RIPv2 hop count for a reachable route?
A. 13
B. 14
C. 15
D. 16
Answer: C

Question No : 8             200-355 dumps

Which statement is true about the Cisco NAC Appliance?
A. recognizes users, their devices, and their roles in the network
B. does not offer audit and reporting features
C. must be placed inline with other network devices
D. does not recognize guest users
Answer: A

Question No : 9

A design engineer must send management information messages across the public
internet. What solution provides a secure and encrypted method for passing these
messages?
A. SNMP v3
B. NetFlow v9
C. Syslog Traps
D. Secure Shell v2
E. SNMP v2
Answer: A

Question No : 10

What are two components of the Build phase in the Cisco Design Lifecycle? (Choose two.)
A. Migration
B. Deployment
C. Optimization
D. Design
E. Configuration
Answer: A,B

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200-310 Vce

200-310 Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions practice exam

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CompTIA, Security+

In the past few years, CompTIA SY0-401 exam questions and answers has become an influenced computer skills certification exam. However, how to pass CompTIA SY0-401 Questions and answers quickly and simply? Our ITCertMaster can always help you solve this problem quickly. In Lead4sure we provide the CompTIA SY0-401 dumps questions and answers training tools to help you pass the exam successfully. The CompTIA SY0-401 pdf questions and answers training tools contains the latest studied materials of the exam supplied by IT experts.

SY0-401 exam

QUESTION 65
Ann is a member of the Sales group. She needs to collaborate with Joe, a member of the IT group, to edit a file. Currently, the file has the following permissions: Ann: read/write
Sales Group: read
IT Group: no access
If a discretionary access control list is in place for the files owned by Ann, which of the following would be the BEST way to share the file with Joe?
A. Add Joe to the Sales group.
B. Have the system administrator give Joe full access to the file.
C. Give Joe the appropriate access to the file directly.
D. Remove Joe from the IT group and add him to the Sales group.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 66
A company would like to take electronic orders from a partner; however, they are concerned that a non-authorized person may send an order. The legal department asks if there is a solution that provides non-repudiation. Which of the following would meet the requirements of this scenario?
A. Encryption
B. Digital signatures
C. Steganography
D. Hashing
E. Perfect forward secrecy
Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 67
The Chief Security Officer (CSO) is contacted by a first responder. The CSO assigns a handler. Which of the following is occurring?
A. Unannounced audit response
B. Incident response process
C. Business continuity planning
D. Unified threat management
E. Disaster recovery process
Correct Answer: B Explanation  70-697 exam
QUESTION 68
An organization must implement controls to protect the confidentiality of its most sensitive data. The company is currently using a central storage system and group based access control for its sensitive information. Which of the following controls can further secure the data in the central storage system?
A. Data encryption
B. Patching the system
C. Digital signatures
D. File hashing
Correct Answer: A Explanation QUESTION 69
A network administrator, Joe, arrives at his new job to find that none of the users have changed their network passwords since they were initially hired. Joe wants to have everyone change their passwords immediately. Which of the following policies should be enforced to initiate a password change?
A. Password expiration
B. Password reuse
C. Password recovery
D. Password disablement
Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 70
Ann, a security administrator at a call center, has been experiencing problems with users intentionally installing unapproved and occasionally malicious software on their computers. Due to the nature of their jobs, Ann cannot change their permissions. Which of the following would BEST alleviate her concerns?
A. Deploy a HIDS suite on the users’ computers to prevent application installation.
B. Maintain the baseline posture at the highest OS patch level.
C. Enable the pop-up blockers on the users’ browsers to prevent malware.
D. Create an approved application list and block anything not on it.
Correct Answer: D Explanation

SY0-401 exam
QUESTION 71
Which of the following should be used to authenticate and log connections from wireless users connecting with EAP-TLS?
A. Kerberos
B. LDAP
C. SAML
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 72
A security administrator is auditing a database server to ensure the correct security measures are in place to protect the data. Some of the fields consist of people’s first name, last name, home address, date of birth and mothers last name. Which of the following describes this type of data?
A. PII

B. PCI
C. Low
D. Public
Correct Answer: A Explanation: http://sy0-401dumps.deviantart.com/journal/Get-Up-to-Date-Lead4pass-SY0-401-Dumps-652614282
QUESTION 73
Which of the following would be MOST appropriate if an organization’s requirements mandate complete

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200-105

Cisco, ICND2

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200-105 VCE

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Share some CCNA Routing and Switching 200-105 exam questions and answers below.
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Answer: B

Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.
Answer: B,D,E

200-105 VCE

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CCNA Wireless, Cisco

200-355 Dumps

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Certified Internal, IIA

Flydumps provides the guaranteed preparation material to boost up your confidence in IIA-CIA-PART3 exam.Successful candidates have provided their reviews about our guaranteed IIA-CIA-PART3 preparation material, you can come to realize the real worth of our featured products through overviewing the reviews and testimonials: https://www.pass4itsure.com/iia-cia-part3.html

IIA-CIA-PART3 exam

QUESTION 140
The problem just described is best approached by use of which quantitative method?
A. Integrated autoregressive-moving average (ARIMA) modeling.
B. Exponential smoothing, multiple parameters.
C. Queuing theory.
D. Linear programming.
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Two basic costs are involved in queuing (waiting-line) models: (1) the cost of providing service (including facility costs and operating costs), and (2) the cost of idle resources waiting in line. The latter may be a direct cost if paid employees are waiting, or an opportunity cost in the caseof waiting customers. The objective of the queuing theory is to minimize the total cost of the system, including both service and waiting costs, for a given rate of arrivals. This minimization occurs at the point where the cost of waiting is balanced by the cost of providing service.
QUESTION 141
Sales representatives for a manufacturing company are reimbursed for 100% of their cellular telephone bills. Cellular telephone costs vary significantly from representative to representative and from month to month, complicating the budgeting and forecasting processes. Management has requested that the internal auditors develop a method for controlling these costs. Which of the following would most appropriately be included in the scope of the consulting project?
A. Control self-assessment involving sales representatives.
B. Benchmarking with other cellular telephone users.
C. Business process review of procurement and payables routines.
D. Performance measurement and design of the budgeting and forecasting processes.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A business process review (BPR) assesses the performance of administrative, financial, and other processes, such as those within the procurement and payables functions. BPR considers process effectiveness and efficiency, including the presence of appropriate controls, to mitigate business risk. It seeks to achieve improvements in such critical measures of performance as cost, quality, service, speed, and customer satisfaction. Because the objective is to control cellular phone costs, BPR is the appropriate tool.
QUESTION 142
An investment company is attempting to allocate its available funds between two investment alternatives, equities and bonds, which differ in terms of expected return and risk. The company would like to minimize its risk while earning an expected return of at least 10% and investing no more than 70% in either of the investment alternatives. An appropriate technique for allocating its funds between equities and bonds is:
A. Linear programming.
B. Capital budgeting.
C. Differential analysis.
D. Queuing theory.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:  c2020-703 exam
Explanation:
Linear programming is a mathematical technique for planning resource allocation that optimizes a given objective function that is subject to certain constraints. In this case, the maximum investment is constrained by a 70% limit on either investment choice.
QUESTION 143
Which of the following will allow a manufacturer with limited resources to maximize profits?
A. The Delphi technique.
B. Exponential smoothing.
C. Regression analysis.
D. Linear programming.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference: http://www.itcertlab.com/2016-download-ccna-100-101-pdf-files.html
Explanation:
Linear programming is a mathematical technique for planning resource allocation that optimizes a given objective function subject to certain constraints. Thus, it maximizes a revenue or profit function or minimizes a cost function, subject to constraints. For example, constraints may be limited (scarce) resources or minimum/maximum levels of production, performance, etc. In business, linear programming is used for planning resource allocations. Managers are often faced with problems of selecting the most profitable or least costly way to use available resources.
QUESTION 144
A traditional quality control process in manufacturing consists of mass inspection of goods only at the end of a production process. A major deficiency of the traditional control process is that:
A. It is expensive to do the inspections at the end of the process.
B. It is not possible to rework defective items.
C. It is not 100% effective.
D. It does not focus on improving the entire production process.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The process used to produce the goods is not thoroughly reviewed and evaluated for efficiency and effectiveness. Preventing defects and increasing efficiency by improving the production process raises quality standards and decreases costs.

IIA-CIA-PART3 exam
QUESTION 145
If a manufacturer has established a limit on the number of defects that are tolerable in the final assembly of its product, which of the following quality control procedures should be employed?
I.Inspect completed goods for compliance with established tolerances.
II. Review sales returns for defects not detected during the final inspection process.
III. Compare materials and machinery specifications with original product designs.
IV.
Establish a quality circle that includes management and subordinates to discuss labor efficiency.

A.
I, III, and IV

B.
II and III only

C.
I, II, and III

D.
III and IV only
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Inspecting goods after completion of the production process and counting defective goods returned by customers are product quality procedures. They measure the level of product conformance with customer expectations. Verifying materials and machinery specifications are process quality procedures because they emphasize the inputs to the process and the process itself.
QUESTION 146
The most important component of quality control is:
A. Ensuring goods and services conform to the design specifications.
B. Satisfying upper management.
C. Conforming with ISO-9000 specifications.
D. Determining the appropriate timing of inspections.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The intent of quality control is to ensure that goods and services conform to the design specifications. Whether the focus is on feedforward, feedback, or concurrent control, the emphasis is on ensuring product or service conformity.
QUESTION 147
Management of a company is attempting to build a reputation as a world-class manufacturer of quality products. Which of the following measures would not be used by the firm to measure quality?
A. The percentage of shipments returned by customers because of poor quality.
B. The number of parts shipped per day.
C. The number of defective parts per million.
D. The percentage of products passing quality tests the first time.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference: http://www.exampass.net/cisco-352-001-pdf.html
Explanation:
The number of parts shipped per day would most likely be used as a measure of the effectiveness and efficiency of shipping procedures, not the quality of the product. This measure does not consider how many of the parts are defective.
QUESTION 148
Which of the following is not an appropriate measure of quality?
A. Market share.
B. Delivery performance.
C. Customer satisfaction.
D. Raw materials costs.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Emphasizing lower input costs may result in more defective output, and higher input costs may or may not reflect the procurement of better raw materials. Financial measures are thus mostly unsuitable for measuring quality.
QUESTION 149
Which of the following criteria would be most useful to a sales department manager in evaluating the performance of the manager’s customer-service group?
A. The customer is always right.
B. Customer complaints should be processed promptly
C. Employees should maintain a positive attitude when dealing with customers.
D. All customer inquiries should be answered within 7 days of receipt.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A criterion that requires all customer inquiries to be answered within 7 days of receiptpermits accurate measurement of performance. The quantitative and specific
nature of the appraisal using thisstandard avoids the vagueness, subjectivity, and personal bias that may afflict other forms of personnelevaluations.

QUESTION 150

An example of an internal nonfinancial benchmark is:
A. The labor rate of comparably skilled employees at a major competitor’s plant.
B. The average actual cost per pound of a specific product at the company’s most efficient plant.
C. A US $50,000 limit on the cost of employee training programs at each of the company’s plants.
D. The percentage of customer orders delivered on time at the company’s most efficient plant.
Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Benchmarking is a continuous evaluation of the practices of the best organizations in their class and the adaptation of processes to reflect the best of these practices. It requires analysis and measurement of key outputs against those of the best organizations. This procedure also involves identifying the underlying key actions and causes that contribute to the performance difference. The percentage of orders delivered on time at the company’s most efficient plant is an example of an internal nonfinancial benchmark.

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CCNP Data Center, Cisco

Cisco 642-999 exam tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism.The main purpose of Cisco 642-999 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge,give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real Cisco 642-999 exam exam certification. http://www.pass4itsure.com/642-999.html

642-999 Dumps

Overview
Exam Number: 642-999
Associated Certifications: CCNP Data Center, Cisco Data Center Unified Computing Design Specialist, Cisco Data Center Unified Computing Support Specialist.
Duration: 90 minutes (65-75 questions)
Available Languages: English
Registration: Pearson VUE
Exam Policies: Read current policies and requirements
Exam Tutorial: Review type of exam questions
Register for Course: DCUCI v5.0 course and other offerings  200-120 vce

Exam Description
The 642-999 Dumps (DCUCI v5.0) Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing exam validates a candidate’s knowledge of implementing Cisco data center unified computing, including the setup of a computing environment in a standalone and rack-mountable configuration, provisioning of storage resources, backup, management functions, and deployment of a virtualized network. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCI v5.0) course.

642-999 Dumps

The 642-999 Dumps DCUCI Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing exam is associated with the CCNP® DC certification and with the Cisco Unified Computing Support Specialist. This 90-minute, 65−75 question exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing. Concepts like setup of the computing environment in a standalone and rack-mountable configuration, provisioning of storage resources, backup, management functions and deployment of a virtualized environment are covered by this exam. The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

Recommended 642-999 Dumps Training
The following course is the recommended training for this exam:
Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCI v5.0)
Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCI) E-Learning

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IBM, IBM Certified Solution Developer

C9530-404 Preparation, C9530-404 Dumps – IT-Tests.com offers real exam questions and answers for the IT certification exam of C9530-404 Preparation, you may have trouble in preparing for the IBM certification C9530-404 Preparation, Guaranteed CCDP certification C9530-404 Preparation proven by Cisco certified IT, Microsoft Dumps C9530-404 Preparation Collection, IT dumps provides update free of charge in one year! 1 / 3 Exam: C9530-404 Preparation Title: Version: Demo Administration of Storage Foundation and HA 6.0 for Windows, C9530-404 Preparation dumps PDF file is downloadable and is able to print out as hardcopy, Help Microsoft Celebrate 20 C9530-404 Preparation Years of Certification, such quality anywhere C9530-404 Preparation in the market, Get Updated Pass4sure c2040-406 Dumps Practice Test Questions C9530-404 Preparation Answers at Discount Price.

C9530-404 Exam

  • Exam Code: C9530-404
  • Exam Name: IBM Integration Bus V9.0, Solution Development
  • C9530-404 Study Guide Total Q&A: 48 Questions and Answers
  • Last Update: 2016-09-03

C9530-404 Exam Details : https://www.pass4itsure.com/c9530-404.html

NO.1 A company needs to implement a generic gateway application which accepts COBOL input messages using WebSphere MQ transport. The first 15 bytes of each input message represents a common header for all messages. The 15 bytes header is used to determine the message type, length and routing information.
Which domain parser should the solution developer set in the input node to accomplish this?
A. MIME
B. DataObject
C. BLOB
D. JSON
Answer: C

NO.2 When using the IBM built-in node to output a file using WebSphere MQ Managed File Transfer, which message tree must be used to override the node properties?
A. LocalEnvironment.WrittenDestination.FTE
B. Environment.Destination.FTE
C. Environment.Destination.File
D. LocalEnvironment.Destination.FTE
Answer: A

NO.3 A solution developer is defining a DFDL model for a file that defines a purchase order. A field in the header, ItemCount, defines the number of purchase order items contained in the purchase order. The schema model is defined as shown below. What modification must the developer make to the model to ensure that the number of items in the purchase order is equal to the value in ItemCount?

A. Set theOccursCountKindproperty forItemstoExpressionand set the expression
to{../Header/ItemCount}.
B. Set theOccursCountKindproperty toImplicit.
C. Add an Assert toItemsthat tests that items is less than or equal toItemCount.
D. Add a variable instance to thesequenceelement that counts the number ofItemsrecords.
Answer: B

NO.4 A solution developer needs to create a broker archive to deploy an application on an integration server. During this process, the solution developer can add a flow as a .mgsflow or .cmf file. The solution developer decides to use .mgsflow. Which node is allowed in the flow?
A. A user-defined node that is created from a subflow.
B. A subflow node that represents a subflow that is defined in a.msgflowfile.
C. A WebSphere Message Broker Version 7.0 Mapping node.
D. A user-defined node that is created from a Java implementation.
Answer: A

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CCNA, Cisco

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200-120 vce

QUESTION 88
Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?
A. FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69
B. FE81::280f:512b:e14f:3d69
C. FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69
D. FE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 89
The network administrator is asked to configure 113 point-to-point links. Which IP addressing scheme defines the address range and subnet mask that meet the requirement and waste the fewest subnet and host addresses?
A. 10.10.0.0/16 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
B. 10.10.0.0/18 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
C. 10.10.1.0/24 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
D. 10.10.0.0/23 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
E. 10.10.1.0/25 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 90
A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?
A. It checks the configuration register.
B. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server.
C. It loads the first image file in flash memory.
D. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 91
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the meaning of the output MTU 1500 bytes?
A. The maximum number of bytes that can traverse this interface per second is 1500.
B. The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
C. The maximum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
D. The minimum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
E. The maximum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
F. The maximum frame size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 92
On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs?
A. a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch
B. a router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch
C. a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches
D. a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 93
Which command displays CPU utilization?
A. show protocols
B. show process
C. show system
D. show version

Correct Answer: B

200-120 vce

QUESTION 94
What two things will a router do when running a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. Send periodic updates regardless of topology changes.
B. Send entire routing table to all routers in the routing domain.
C. Use the shortest-path algorithm to the determine best path.
D. Update the routing table based on updates from their neighbors.
E. Maintain the topology of the entire network in its database.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 95
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 96
Refer to the exhibit.
Cisco 200-120 Exam The technician wants to upload a new IOS in the router while keeping the existing IOS. What is the maximum size of an IOS file that could be loaded if the original IOS is also kept in flash?

A. 3 MB
B. 4 MB
C. 5 MB
D. 7 MB
E. 8 MB

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 97
Refer to the exhibit.

The two exhibited devices are the only Cisco devices on the network. The serial network between
Cisco 200-120 Exam the two devices has a mask of 255.255.255.252. Given the output that is shown, what three statements are true of these devices? (Choose three.)
A. The Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.1.
B. The Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.2.
C. The London router is a Cisco 2610.
D. The Manchester router is a Cisco 2610.
E. The CDP information was received on port Serial0/0 of the Manchester router.
F. The CDP information was sent by port Serial0/0 of the London router.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 98
If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? (Choose two.)
A. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
B. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 99
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 100
Refer to the exhibit.

A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:
City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)
A. FastEthernet0 /0
B. FastEthernet0 /1
C. Serial0/0
D. Serial0/1.102
E. Serial0/1.103
F. Serial0/1.104

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 101
Cisco 200-120 Exam Refer to the exhibit.

The Lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The administrator would like to reduce the size of the routing table on the Central router. Which partial routing table entry in the Central router represents a route summary that represents the LANs in Phoenix but no additional subnets?
A. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.0.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
B. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.2.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
C. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.2.2.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
D. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.4.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
E. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.4.4.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
F. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.4.4.4 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 102
Cisco 200-120 Exam Refer to the graphic.

A static route to the 10.5.6.0/24 network is to be configured on the HFD router. Which commands will accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 fa0/0
B. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 10.5.4.6
C. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0
D. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 10.5.4.6
E. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 0.0.0.255 10.5.6.0
F. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 255.255.255.0 10.5.6.0

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 103
Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two.)
A. the amount of available ROM
B. the amount of available flash and RAM memory
C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router
D. show version
E. show processes
F. show running-config

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 104
Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router?
A. show reload
B. show boot
C. show running-config
D. show version
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 105
Which command would you use on a Cisco router to verify the Layer 3 path to a host?
A. tracert address
B. traceroute address
C. telnet address
D. ssh address
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 106
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 107
Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. It supports VLSM.
B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.
C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.
D. It increases routing overhead on the network.
E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.
F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 108
Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configures a new router and enters the copy startup-config running-config command on the router. The network administrator powers down the router and sets it up at a remote location. When the router starts, it enters the system configuration dialog as shown. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The network administrator failed to save the configuration.
B. The configuration register is set to 0x2100.
C. The boot system flash command is missing from the configuration.
D. The configuration register is set to 0x2102.
E. The router is configured with the boot system startup command.

Correct Answer: A

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IBM, IBM Certified Administrator

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C2020-703 Practice Questions
Vendor Name: IBM
Exam code: C2020-703
Exam Name: IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Administrator

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Question: 1

You want to deploy a new application using dimension calculations in Performance Modeler. The application will be deployed in distributed mode. Which two configuration parameters should be applied? (Choose two.)

  1. PersistentFeeders=T
  2. AllowSeparateNandCRules=T
  3. DistributedPlanningOutputDir=.\tunit
  4. LoggingDirectory=. . \log

Answer: B, C  

Question: 2

Support has requested that the customer increase the logging in their tm1s-log.properties file.

Where is this file found?

  1. In the same directory as the tm1 install
  2. In the same directory as the web.config file
  3. In the same directory as the tm1s.cfg file
  4. In the same directoryasthetm1p.ini file

Answer: C   

Question: 3

Which two TM1 Objects are potential data sources for a TurboIntegrator process? (Choose two.)

  1. Rule File
  2. Dimension Subset
  3. Cube View
  4. Application Folder

Answer: B, C   

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NOTE
In Windows, instances
do not really have an instance owner, but the name of the instance, i.e., DB2, will be used in place of the instance owner¡¯s ID.
Because more than one database can be created on the same drive or directory, each database must have its own unique subdirectory. Under the NODExxxx directory, there will be an SQLxxxxx directory for every database that was created on the drive/directory. For example, there are two databases, MYDB and SAMPLE, that were both created on the C: drive on Windows, so there will be two directories: SQL00001 and SQL00002.
To determine under which directory the database was created, enter the command LIST DATABASE DIRECTORY ON C:. This will produce output like the following:
Database 1 entry:

Database alias Database name Database directoryDatabase release level
Comment

Directory entry typeCatalog database partiDatabase partition num
Database 2 entry:

Database alias Database name Database directoryDatabase release level
Comment

Directory entry typeCatalog database partiDatabase partition num
In the example above, the database SAMPLE would have been created in the SQL00001 directory, and the database MYDB would have been created in the SQL00002 directory under the NODExxxx directory.
Under the database¡¯s SQL0000x directory, DB2 will create one directory for each of the three default table spaces, unless the table spaces were defined to use different containers in the CREATE DATABASE command.
By default, the system catalog table space will use the directory SQLT0000.0, the system temporary table space will use the directory SQLT0001.0, and the default user table space (USERSPACE1) will use the directory SQLT0002.0.
There is also a subdirectory named SQLOGDIR to hold the database log files. This location can be changed once the database has been created.
Given the following command, execute in the instance named db2inst1.
create database sample o
On the Linux or UNIX server where database partition 0 is defined, the following directory structures are created:
/database/db2inst1/NODE0/database/db2inst1/NODE0
On the server where database partition 1 is defined, the following directory structures are created:
/database/db2inst1/NODE0/database/db2inst1/NODE0
These directories would be created as illustrated in Figure 1.3.
Figure 1.3. Directory
structure for multi-
partitioned database.
If a second database is created in the same instance (i.e., db2inst1) on the same path using the command:
create database sample o
the directory structure would then look like Figure
1.4.
Figure 1.4. Directory structure for two databases in a multi-partitioned database.

NOTE
The sqldbdir directory contains the database
directory, i.e., a listing of all databases that are in the drive / path.
Table Spaces

A table space is a logical entity used to define where tables and indexes will be stored within a database. All DB2 tables and indexes reside in table spaces, allowing complete control over where the table and index data are physically stored.
A table space can be created using one or more underlying physical storage devices called containers. This provides the ability to create a physical database design that provides optimal performance in any physical environment.
Details about the table spaces in a database can be obtained using:
1. GET SNAPSHOT FOR TABLESPACES ON <database name>

LIST TABLESPACES
Containers

A table space is a logical database entity; table space containers are the physical storage associated with a table space. A container definition depends on the type of table space being created and can be defined as an operating system directory, a logical device/drive name, or a file.
When a table space is created, it must have at least one container associated with it. A single table space can contain multiple containers, but a container can belong to only one table space.
Details about a table space¡¯s containers can be obtained using the LIST TABLESPACE CONTAINERS FOR x command, where x is the table space¡¯s ID. A table space¡¯s ID can be found using the LIST TABLESPACES command and searching for the table space of interest.
NOTE
In general, containers must reside on local disks and cannot be created on LAN-redirected drives, NFS-mounted file systems, or GPFS file systems.
Extents
The basic unit of storage in a DB2 database is the
page, and pages can be different sizes. When pages are written to disk, they are grouped into contiguous ranges called extents. The extent size for a table space is specified for the table space when it is created and cannot be changed.
The DFT_EXTENT_SZ database configuration parameter specifies the default extent size for all table spaces in the database. This value can be overridden when the table space is created, using the EXTENTSIZE parameter of the CREATE TABLESPACE statement.
When a table space is created with more than one container, DB2 will write the data to the containers in a round-robin fashion. DB2 will fill an extent in one container, then fill an extent in the next container, and so on, until it has written an extent in all of the containers in the table space. DB2 will then fill the second extent in the first container, and so on.
However, this may change if containers are added or removed using the ALTER TABLESPACE command.
In Figure 1.5, the first extent (Extent 0) is written to Container 0, Extent 1 is written to Container 1, Extent 2 is written to Container 2. At this point, there is one extent in each of the containers, so DB2 will go back to the first container and add the next extent. Therefore, Extent 3 is written to Container 0, Extent 4 is written to Container 1, and so on, as more data is added.
Figure 1.5. Extents written to containers.

NOTE
The first extent (extent 0) for each object can start in different containers. Not all objects start in container
0.
Creating Table Spaces

Creating a table space within a database assigns the specified containers to the table space and records the table space and container definitions and attributes in the database. When creating a table space, it is important to consider the following:

What type of data the table space will hold Regular dataData or Index Large/Long data Temporary data What management type will be used System Managed Space (SMS) Database Managed Space

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