CCNA Data Center, Cisco

Exam Code: 640-916
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
640-916 Latest Dumps Total Q&A: 182 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2017-01-16
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Exam A QUESTION 1
1. By what percentage is the congestion window reduced when the typical TCP congestion avoidance process is engaged due to congestion
A. 100 %
B. 75 %
C. 50 %
D. 12 %
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
2. Which is the correct port type for a Fibre Channel HBA connected to a Fibre Channel hub?
A. NP_Port
B. E_Port
C. N_Port
D. NL_Port

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
3. What is the benefit of a modular data center design?
A. ease of management
B. doesn’t require configuration
C. resilience
D. one size fits all

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
4. What information do bridges and switches use to forward data?
A. destination MAC address
B. destination IP address
C. they send all data to all ports, save port it was received on
D. destination hostname

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
5. What do the following commands accomplish? N100v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N100v-VSM(config-port-prof)# state enabled
A. Pushes the port profile named VMdata to the VMware vcenter server on the Nexus N1000v-VSM
B. Displays the configuration of the port profile named VMdata
C. Resets the port profile named VMdata to default settings
D. Deletes the port profile VMdata

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
6. What interface provides heartbeat messages between the VEM and VSM?
A. packet
B. backplane
C. management
D. control

Correct Answer: D   sy0-401 vce
QUESTION 7
7. Which is not a basic state of an Ethernet interface on a UCS Fabric Interconnect?
A. uplink
B. enabled
C. server
D. unconfigured
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
8. On a Fibre Channel network, what is an example of a control between initiators and targets?
A. ARP
B. zoning
C. Media Access Control
D. Fibre Channel fencing

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
9. Which Nexus 2000-Series Fabric Extender does NOT support connections to both Nexus 5000 Series switches and Nexus 7000 Series Switches
A. Nexus 2248TP
B. Nexus 2232PP
C. Nexus 2248TP-E

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
10. What is the port mapping for a Fibre Channel HBA connected to a MDS Fibre Channel switch?
A. N Port to S Port
B. H Port to S Port
C. N Port to F Port
D. H Port to N Port

Correct Answer: C

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CCNA, Cisco

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Update 200-125 Simple Questions Latest Practice Test Questions VCE PDF Dumps

Qustion No. 1

— (Topic 4)

Refer to the exhibit.
When running OSPF, what would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?
A. The loopback addresses are on different subnets.
B. The values of the dead timers on the routers are different.
C. Route summarization is enabled on both routers.
D. The process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router B.

Answer: B

Qustion No. 2
— (Topic 6)
Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch? (Choose two.)
A. SW1#show port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
B. SW1#show switchport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
C. SW1#show running-config
D. SW1#show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12
E. SW1#show switchport port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12
Answer: C,D   070-410 exam

 

Question 3
DRAG DROP
Refer to the exhibit. PC_1 is exchanging packets with the FTP server. Consider the packets as they leave RouterB interface Fa0/1 towards Router
A. Drag the correct frame and packet addresses to their place in the table.

200-125 Dumps

Answer:
Source Mac Address    Destnaton Mac Address    Source IP address    Destnaton MAC
address
MAC 0000.0c89.3333    MAC 0000.0c89.9999     IP 172.16.34.250     IP 172.16.21.7

 

Question 4
DRAG DROP
Match the terms on the lef with the appropriate OSI layer on the right. (Not all optons are used.)

200-125 Dumps

 Answer:200-125 Dumps

 

Qustion No.5
CORRECT TEXT — (Topic 7)
Answer: Corp1#conf t
Corp1(config)# access-list 128 permit tcp host 192.168.240.1 host 172.22.141.26 eq www
Corp1(config)# access-list 128 deny tcp any host 172.22.141.26 eq www
Corp1(config)# access-list 128 permit ip any any
Corp1(config)#int fa0/1
Corp1(config-if)#ip access-group 128 out
Corp1(config-if)#end
Corp1#copy run startup-config

 

Qustion No. 6
— (Topic 5)
Which three features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2?
A. Message Integrity
B. Compression
C. Authentication
D. Encryption
E. Error Detection
Answer: A,C,D

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CompTIA, Security+

Real and Updated Exam Questions & Answers

comptia-security-sy0401-practice-test-questions-2-638

SY0-401 VCE

Question 28
Which of the following controls should critical application servers implement to protect themselves from other potentially compromised application services?
A. NIPS
B. Content filter
C. NIDS
D. Host-based firewalls
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Question 29
Which of the following is a directional antenna that can be used in point-to-point or point-to-multi-point WiFi communication systems? (Select TWO).
A. Backfire
B. Dipole
C. Omni
D. PTZ
E. Dish
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 30
A large bank has moved back office operations offshore to another country with lower wage costs in an attempt to improve profit and productivity. Which of the following would be a customer concern if the offshore staff had direct access to their data?
A. Service level agreements
B. Interoperability agreements
C. Privacy considerations
D. Data ownership
Correct Answer: C   200-355 dumps

Question 31
Which of the following are examples of detective controls?
A. Biometrics, motion sensors and mantraps.
B. Audit, firewall, anti-virus and biometrics.
C. Motion sensors, intruder alarm and audit.
D. Intruder alarm, mantraps and firewall.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Which of the following attacks impact the availability of a system? (Select TWO).
A. Smurf
B. Phishing
C. Spim
D. DDoS
E. Spoofing
Correct Answer: A, D

QUESTION 33
Which of the following types of technologies is used by security and research personnel for identification and analysis of new security threats in a networked environment by using false data/hosts for information collection?
A. Honeynet
B. Vulnerability scanner
C. Port scanner
D. Protocol analyzer
Correct Answer: A

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RedHat, RHCSA

EX200 vce

    • Exam Code: EX200
    • Exam Name: Red Hat Certified System Administrator – RHCSA
    • EX200 Real Questions Total Q&A: 24 Questions and Answers
    • Last Update: 2017-01-09
    • Description: The RHCSA® Exam (EX200) tests candidates’ knowledge, skills, and ability in areas of system administration common across a wide range of environments and deployment scenarios.
    • Target audience: Experienced Red Hat Enterprise Linux system administrators seeking validation of their skills.
    • Prerequisite: Red Hat recommends a combination of Red Hat System Administration I and Red Hat System Administration II courses or equivalent experience.
    • Length: 2.5 hours
    • Website: http://www.examsbus.com/EX200.html

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QUESTION 57
In Mac OS X Server v10.4, Directory Services replication lets you ________.
A. replicate data between a Mac OS X Server computer and a Mac OS X client computer
B. synchronize directory data between an Open Directory server and an Active Directory server
C. configure access controls to directory structures and file systems on a remote Mac OS X Server
D. maintain a duplicate of the current contents of the LDAP and Password Servers, and the Kerberos key distribution center (KDC) on a remote Mac OS X Server

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 58
Which statement about passwords for local user accounts in Mac OS X v10.4 is true?
A. A crypt password can be 32 bytes in length; a shadow password has no length limitation.
B. DirectoryService is the authoritative authentication agent for crypt and shadow passwords.
C. Shadow passwords are created for a user account when the option is specified in System Preferences.
D. A crypt password is accessible by anyone using the computer; a shadow password is only accessible by the System Administrator (root).

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 59
When referring to an LDAP directory, what is the schema?
A. The method for replicating data between servers
B. The address in the directory at which searches start
C. The set of rules that describes the structure of the data in the directory
D. The set of definitions created in Directory Access that map the LDAP attributes to Open Directory attributes

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 60
Which statement about the dscl command line utility is true?
A. dscl makes requests through lookupd.
B. dscl has a plug-in architecture for compatibility.
C. dscl makes requests through DirectoryService.
D. dscl can be run when the computer is in single-user mode.

Correct Answer: C  070-410 exam

QUESTION 61
Click the Exhibit button and examine the partial mount record, then answer the question below.
You use dscl to view a mount record provided by an LDAP server. How is the share point mounted?
A. statically, using NFS
B. statically, using AFP
C. dynamically, using AFP
D. dynamically, using NFS

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
By default, which agent does lookupd check first to resolve a machine name?
A. NIAgent
B. DSAgent
C. DNSAgent
D. CacheAgent
E. BonjourAgent

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63
Which THREE authentication methods are supported by the Password Server? (Choose THREE.)
A. SSL
B. PGP
C. APOP
D. LUHN-10
E. CRAM-MD5
F. NT LAN Manager

Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 64
Which statement is NOT true of Password Server replication in Mac OS X Server v10.4?
A. Password Server engages in a multimaster replication scheme.
B. Conflicts in the Password Server database replicas are resolved using slapd.access.
C. The replication process is entirely encrypted between each Password Server process.
D. Password Server refers to /var/db/authserver/authserverreplicas to determine if the last synchronization was successful.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
Which information is included in a ticket-granting ticket (TGT) from the key distribution center (KDC)?
A. the public key for the KDC
B. the time the TGT was issued
C. the user account crypt password
D. the service key for all supported kerberized services
Correct Answer: B

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CCDA, Cisco

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Update KingDump 200-310  Vce CCDA Exam Questions

Question No : 3

Which technology allows remote networks to be connected via site-to-site tunnels?
A. IPsec VPN
B. AnyConnect VPN
C. SSL VPN
D. EasyConnect VPN
Answer: A

Question No : 4

A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices.
What routing configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a private line
failure?
A. floating static entry
B. EIGRP variance
C. bandwidth metric
D. OSPF maximum paths
Answer: A

Question No : 5

Which two Cisco products can be used in a data center to support OTV technology?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
C. Cisco ASR 1000 Series Routers
D. Cisco ASR 9000 Series Routers
E. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series Switches
Answer: B,C

Question No : 6

When there is a need for immunity to EMI for connecting locations that are greater than
100 meters apart, which two solutions can be utilized? (Choose two.)
A. multimode fiber
B. Fibre Channel
C. HVDC transmission lines
D. single-mode fiber
E. serial RS-232
F. Gigabit Ethernet 1000BASE-CX
Answer: A,D 

Question No : 7

What is the maximum RIPv2 hop count for a reachable route?
A. 13
B. 14
C. 15
D. 16
Answer: C

Question No : 8             200-355 dumps

Which statement is true about the Cisco NAC Appliance?
A. recognizes users, their devices, and their roles in the network
B. does not offer audit and reporting features
C. must be placed inline with other network devices
D. does not recognize guest users
Answer: A

Question No : 9

A design engineer must send management information messages across the public
internet. What solution provides a secure and encrypted method for passing these
messages?
A. SNMP v3
B. NetFlow v9
C. Syslog Traps
D. Secure Shell v2
E. SNMP v2
Answer: A

Question No : 10

What are two components of the Build phase in the Cisco Design Lifecycle? (Choose two.)
A. Migration
B. Deployment
C. Optimization
D. Design
E. Configuration
Answer: A,B

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CompTIA, Security+

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SY0-401 exam

QUESTION 65
Ann is a member of the Sales group. She needs to collaborate with Joe, a member of the IT group, to edit a file. Currently, the file has the following permissions: Ann: read/write
Sales Group: read
IT Group: no access
If a discretionary access control list is in place for the files owned by Ann, which of the following would be the BEST way to share the file with Joe?
A. Add Joe to the Sales group.
B. Have the system administrator give Joe full access to the file.
C. Give Joe the appropriate access to the file directly.
D. Remove Joe from the IT group and add him to the Sales group.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 66
A company would like to take electronic orders from a partner; however, they are concerned that a non-authorized person may send an order. The legal department asks if there is a solution that provides non-repudiation. Which of the following would meet the requirements of this scenario?
A. Encryption
B. Digital signatures
C. Steganography
D. Hashing
E. Perfect forward secrecy
Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 67
The Chief Security Officer (CSO) is contacted by a first responder. The CSO assigns a handler. Which of the following is occurring?
A. Unannounced audit response
B. Incident response process
C. Business continuity planning
D. Unified threat management
E. Disaster recovery process
Correct Answer: B Explanation  70-697 exam
QUESTION 68
An organization must implement controls to protect the confidentiality of its most sensitive data. The company is currently using a central storage system and group based access control for its sensitive information. Which of the following controls can further secure the data in the central storage system?
A. Data encryption
B. Patching the system
C. Digital signatures
D. File hashing
Correct Answer: A Explanation QUESTION 69
A network administrator, Joe, arrives at his new job to find that none of the users have changed their network passwords since they were initially hired. Joe wants to have everyone change their passwords immediately. Which of the following policies should be enforced to initiate a password change?
A. Password expiration
B. Password reuse
C. Password recovery
D. Password disablement
Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 70
Ann, a security administrator at a call center, has been experiencing problems with users intentionally installing unapproved and occasionally malicious software on their computers. Due to the nature of their jobs, Ann cannot change their permissions. Which of the following would BEST alleviate her concerns?
A. Deploy a HIDS suite on the users’ computers to prevent application installation.
B. Maintain the baseline posture at the highest OS patch level.
C. Enable the pop-up blockers on the users’ browsers to prevent malware.
D. Create an approved application list and block anything not on it.
Correct Answer: D Explanation

SY0-401 exam
QUESTION 71
Which of the following should be used to authenticate and log connections from wireless users connecting with EAP-TLS?
A. Kerberos
B. LDAP
C. SAML
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 72
A security administrator is auditing a database server to ensure the correct security measures are in place to protect the data. Some of the fields consist of people’s first name, last name, home address, date of birth and mothers last name. Which of the following describes this type of data?
A. PII

B. PCI
C. Low
D. Public
Correct Answer: A Explanation: http://sy0-401dumps.deviantart.com/journal/Get-Up-to-Date-Lead4pass-SY0-401-Dumps-652614282
QUESTION 73
Which of the following would be MOST appropriate if an organization’s requirements mandate complete

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200-105

Cisco, ICND2

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Share some CCNA Routing and Switching 200-105 exam questions and answers below.
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Answer: B

Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.
Answer: B,D,E

200-105 VCE

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CCNA Wireless, Cisco

200-355 Dumps

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Certified Internal, IIA

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IIA-CIA-PART3 exam

QUESTION 140
The problem just described is best approached by use of which quantitative method?
A. Integrated autoregressive-moving average (ARIMA) modeling.
B. Exponential smoothing, multiple parameters.
C. Queuing theory.
D. Linear programming.
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Two basic costs are involved in queuing (waiting-line) models: (1) the cost of providing service (including facility costs and operating costs), and (2) the cost of idle resources waiting in line. The latter may be a direct cost if paid employees are waiting, or an opportunity cost in the caseof waiting customers. The objective of the queuing theory is to minimize the total cost of the system, including both service and waiting costs, for a given rate of arrivals. This minimization occurs at the point where the cost of waiting is balanced by the cost of providing service.
QUESTION 141
Sales representatives for a manufacturing company are reimbursed for 100% of their cellular telephone bills. Cellular telephone costs vary significantly from representative to representative and from month to month, complicating the budgeting and forecasting processes. Management has requested that the internal auditors develop a method for controlling these costs. Which of the following would most appropriately be included in the scope of the consulting project?
A. Control self-assessment involving sales representatives.
B. Benchmarking with other cellular telephone users.
C. Business process review of procurement and payables routines.
D. Performance measurement and design of the budgeting and forecasting processes.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A business process review (BPR) assesses the performance of administrative, financial, and other processes, such as those within the procurement and payables functions. BPR considers process effectiveness and efficiency, including the presence of appropriate controls, to mitigate business risk. It seeks to achieve improvements in such critical measures of performance as cost, quality, service, speed, and customer satisfaction. Because the objective is to control cellular phone costs, BPR is the appropriate tool.
QUESTION 142
An investment company is attempting to allocate its available funds between two investment alternatives, equities and bonds, which differ in terms of expected return and risk. The company would like to minimize its risk while earning an expected return of at least 10% and investing no more than 70% in either of the investment alternatives. An appropriate technique for allocating its funds between equities and bonds is:
A. Linear programming.
B. Capital budgeting.
C. Differential analysis.
D. Queuing theory.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:  c2020-703 exam
Explanation:
Linear programming is a mathematical technique for planning resource allocation that optimizes a given objective function that is subject to certain constraints. In this case, the maximum investment is constrained by a 70% limit on either investment choice.
QUESTION 143
Which of the following will allow a manufacturer with limited resources to maximize profits?
A. The Delphi technique.
B. Exponential smoothing.
C. Regression analysis.
D. Linear programming.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference: http://www.itcertlab.com/2016-download-ccna-100-101-pdf-files.html
Explanation:
Linear programming is a mathematical technique for planning resource allocation that optimizes a given objective function subject to certain constraints. Thus, it maximizes a revenue or profit function or minimizes a cost function, subject to constraints. For example, constraints may be limited (scarce) resources or minimum/maximum levels of production, performance, etc. In business, linear programming is used for planning resource allocations. Managers are often faced with problems of selecting the most profitable or least costly way to use available resources.
QUESTION 144
A traditional quality control process in manufacturing consists of mass inspection of goods only at the end of a production process. A major deficiency of the traditional control process is that:
A. It is expensive to do the inspections at the end of the process.
B. It is not possible to rework defective items.
C. It is not 100% effective.
D. It does not focus on improving the entire production process.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The process used to produce the goods is not thoroughly reviewed and evaluated for efficiency and effectiveness. Preventing defects and increasing efficiency by improving the production process raises quality standards and decreases costs.

IIA-CIA-PART3 exam
QUESTION 145
If a manufacturer has established a limit on the number of defects that are tolerable in the final assembly of its product, which of the following quality control procedures should be employed?
I.Inspect completed goods for compliance with established tolerances.
II. Review sales returns for defects not detected during the final inspection process.
III. Compare materials and machinery specifications with original product designs.
IV.
Establish a quality circle that includes management and subordinates to discuss labor efficiency.

A.
I, III, and IV

B.
II and III only

C.
I, II, and III

D.
III and IV only
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Inspecting goods after completion of the production process and counting defective goods returned by customers are product quality procedures. They measure the level of product conformance with customer expectations. Verifying materials and machinery specifications are process quality procedures because they emphasize the inputs to the process and the process itself.
QUESTION 146
The most important component of quality control is:
A. Ensuring goods and services conform to the design specifications.
B. Satisfying upper management.
C. Conforming with ISO-9000 specifications.
D. Determining the appropriate timing of inspections.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The intent of quality control is to ensure that goods and services conform to the design specifications. Whether the focus is on feedforward, feedback, or concurrent control, the emphasis is on ensuring product or service conformity.
QUESTION 147
Management of a company is attempting to build a reputation as a world-class manufacturer of quality products. Which of the following measures would not be used by the firm to measure quality?
A. The percentage of shipments returned by customers because of poor quality.
B. The number of parts shipped per day.
C. The number of defective parts per million.
D. The percentage of products passing quality tests the first time.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference: http://www.exampass.net/cisco-352-001-pdf.html
Explanation:
The number of parts shipped per day would most likely be used as a measure of the effectiveness and efficiency of shipping procedures, not the quality of the product. This measure does not consider how many of the parts are defective.
QUESTION 148
Which of the following is not an appropriate measure of quality?
A. Market share.
B. Delivery performance.
C. Customer satisfaction.
D. Raw materials costs.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Emphasizing lower input costs may result in more defective output, and higher input costs may or may not reflect the procurement of better raw materials. Financial measures are thus mostly unsuitable for measuring quality.
QUESTION 149
Which of the following criteria would be most useful to a sales department manager in evaluating the performance of the manager’s customer-service group?
A. The customer is always right.
B. Customer complaints should be processed promptly
C. Employees should maintain a positive attitude when dealing with customers.
D. All customer inquiries should be answered within 7 days of receipt.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A criterion that requires all customer inquiries to be answered within 7 days of receiptpermits accurate measurement of performance. The quantitative and specific
nature of the appraisal using thisstandard avoids the vagueness, subjectivity, and personal bias that may afflict other forms of personnelevaluations.

QUESTION 150

An example of an internal nonfinancial benchmark is:
A. The labor rate of comparably skilled employees at a major competitor’s plant.
B. The average actual cost per pound of a specific product at the company’s most efficient plant.
C. A US $50,000 limit on the cost of employee training programs at each of the company’s plants.
D. The percentage of customer orders delivered on time at the company’s most efficient plant.
Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Benchmarking is a continuous evaluation of the practices of the best organizations in their class and the adaptation of processes to reflect the best of these practices. It requires analysis and measurement of key outputs against those of the best organizations. This procedure also involves identifying the underlying key actions and causes that contribute to the performance difference. The percentage of orders delivered on time at the company’s most efficient plant is an example of an internal nonfinancial benchmark.

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CCNP Data Center, Cisco

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642-999 Dumps

Overview
Exam Number: 642-999
Associated Certifications: CCNP Data Center, Cisco Data Center Unified Computing Design Specialist, Cisco Data Center Unified Computing Support Specialist.
Duration: 90 minutes (65-75 questions)
Available Languages: English
Registration: Pearson VUE
Exam Policies: Read current policies and requirements
Exam Tutorial: Review type of exam questions
Register for Course: DCUCI v5.0 course and other offerings  200-120 vce

Exam Description
The 642-999 Dumps (DCUCI v5.0) Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing exam validates a candidate’s knowledge of implementing Cisco data center unified computing, including the setup of a computing environment in a standalone and rack-mountable configuration, provisioning of storage resources, backup, management functions, and deployment of a virtualized network. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCI v5.0) course.

642-999 Dumps

The 642-999 Dumps DCUCI Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing exam is associated with the CCNP® DC certification and with the Cisco Unified Computing Support Specialist. This 90-minute, 65−75 question exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing. Concepts like setup of the computing environment in a standalone and rack-mountable configuration, provisioning of storage resources, backup, management functions and deployment of a virtualized environment are covered by this exam. The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

Recommended 642-999 Dumps Training
The following course is the recommended training for this exam:
Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCI v5.0)
Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCI) E-Learning

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