Microsoft, Microsoft SharePoint Applications

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Exam Code: 70-488
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions
Q&As: 131

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QUESTION NO: 73
S5600 control panel box must be safe FC hard disk or SSD hard disk (S5300 and S5500 control
box control boxes do not have this requirement), control box, hard disk drives and other types of
hard disk box for SATA hard drives or FC drives or SSD drives.
A. True
B. False
70-488 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 74
How many hard drives to create a complete RAID5 requires at least?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 75
SSDs Compared to traditional mechanical hard drives advantages excluding Which?
A. Higher IOPS
B. Larger capacity
C. Low noise
D. Less prone to mechanical wear
70-488 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 76
Upgrade for S5000 need to upgrade SES, and then upgrade the controller software
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 77
In S5000T product features can be completed without interruption of business are. (Choose three)
A. Expand storage capacity
B. Hardware module upgrades
C. Online Upgrade
D. A copy of the full amount LUN
70-488 pdf Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 78
Full range of products in accordance with the storage location and classification, which of the
following products do not belong to the network storage products? (Choose two)
A. S2600
B. CSS
C. iNVS
D. S5000 S5000T
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 79
After storing the file import license, you need to reboot the array
A. True
B. False
70-488 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 80
After the windows system scan to LUN storage resources, you first need to initialize the LUN
space operations.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 81
Network storage system includes morphological SAS, NAS, SAN.
A. True
B. False
70-488 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 82
Fibre Channel protocol support topology what? (Choose three)
A. Point
B. Switched
C. Hybrid
D. Arbitrated loop
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 83
The following are journaled file system? (Choose three)
A. fat32
B. ntfs
C. jfs
D. xfs
70-488 dumps Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 84
In S5000T, for example, the principle of fault diagnosis for storage devices: (Choose three)
A. First diagnosis of external factors,internal factors after diagnosis.
B. First diagnosis overall,partial diagnosis.
C. First analysis of high-level alarm,low level alarm after analysis.
D. First check service after checking storage
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 85
S5000T redundant disk array control module includes box: (Choose three)
A. Backplane Modules
B. Controller Module
C. The battery module
D. Power – Fan Module
70-488 pdf Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 86
Optical fiber cables, including: (Choose three)
A. Core
B. Cladding
C. Shield
D. Cover
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 87
iSCSI host adapter (HBA) is responsible for implementing iSCSI layer and the TCP / IP protocol
stack functionality
A. True
B. False
70-488 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 88
About SUSE 10.0 under the open iSCSI service operation is correct: (Choose three)
A. rcopen-iscsi start
B. / etc / init.d / open-iscsi stop
C. / etc / init.d / open-iscsi status
D. / etc / init.d / iscsi restart
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 89
In the same RAID group, allowing simultaneous failure of two members of the panel and still full
RAID -level data may have () (Choose three)
A. RAID1
B. RAID 6
C. RAID 5
D. RAID01
70-488 exam Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 90
Master Boot Record (MBR) partition supports a maximum volume of 2 PB
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 91
NAS server does not support the agreement are:
A. ftp
B. iSCSI
C. CIFS
D. NFS
70-488 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 92
The role of multi- path software: (Choose three)
A. High Availability
B. Load Balancing
C. Active I / O path testing and automatic path to recovery
D. Improve reading array cache hit rate
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 93
Linux mount the file system under which command?
A. umount
B. mount
C. mout
D. unmount
70-488 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 94
In the same S5000T storage system, you cannot set multiple hot spare
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 95
The following hardware instead of using the FC protocol to communicate is:
A. iSCSI card
B. FC drives
C. FC switch
D. FC HBA card
70-488 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 96
Which of the following operating systems are Linux system? (Choose three)
A. WSS
B. SLES
C. RHEL
D. CentOS
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 97
RAID5 disk utilization levels of RAID group (N: number of member disks):
A. N / (N-1)
B. 100%
C. (N-1) / N
D. 1 / (2N)
70-488 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 98
SAN storage system power down operations require strict accordance with the instructions, the
power-up sequence is generally: hard disk storage box – storage control box – switch – server ;
under the power-up sequence is generally: Confirm hosting business stop – next server power –
switch power off – the control box under the power – the hard frame power ;
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 99
If the S2600 is full with 12 hard drives, it is recommended to configure several RAID group
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
70-488 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 100
The old version has been installed on the application server UltraPath for Windows; a new version
of UltraPath for Windows can perform an upgrade installation directly
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 101
Direct Connect networking advantages S5000T description right there () (Choose two)
A. Network build low cost;
B. Proprietary data channel can ensure maximum throughput applications between servers and
storage devices
C. Not fully utilize the storage capacity of the device is connected
D. Multiple servers to share data on the disk array
70-488 pdf Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 102
Which of the following documents are Open-iSCSI default configuration file:
A. / etc / iscsi / iscsid.conf
B. / etc / iscsi / initiatorname.iscsi
C. / etc / iscsi / send_targets
D. / etc / iscsi / nodes
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 103
T3200/T3500 G2 does not support cascading, networking is very simple, two business
management network port and an Ethernet port to connect to the switch via the network cable.
A. True
B. False
70-488 vce Answer: A

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CompTIA, Security+

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Exam Code: SY0-101
Exam Name: SECURITY+ CERTIFICATION
Q&As: 600

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1. A VPN typically provides a remote access link from one host to another over:
A. an intranet.
B. a modem.
C. a network interface card.
D. the Internet.
SY0-101 exam Answer: D
2. IPSec uses which of the following protocols to provide traffic security? (Select TWO).
A. SSH
B. AH
C. PPTP
D. SSL E.
L2TP
F. Encapsulating Security Protocol (ESP)
Answer: BF
3. The employees at a company are using instant messaging on company networked computers. The
MOST important security issue to address when using instant messaging is that instant messaging:
A. communications are a drain on bandwidth.
B. communications are open and unprotected.
C. has no common protocol.
D. uses weak encryption.
SY0-101 dumps Answer: B
4. Which of the following would be BEST to do when network file sharing is needed? (Select TWO).
A. Allow read permissions only for unauthenticated users.
B. Create local users who have no access to the shares.
C. Allow access to administrators only.
D. Place the share on a different volume than the operating system.

E. Set a disk quota.
Answer: DE
5. Which of the following programming techniques should be used to prevent buffer overflow attacks?
A. Input validation
B. Nested loops
C. Signed applets
D. Automatic updates
SY0-101 pdf Answer:A
6. A large company wants to deploy an FTP server to support file transfers between business customers
and partners. Which of the following should the security specialist consider before making these changes?
A. FTP can be deployed on an isolated server but is unencrypted.
B. FTP can consume significant bandwidth.
C. FTP facilitates business-to-business file transfers and has few risks.
D. FTP transfers data in an unencrypted format.
Answer: D
7. WEP uses which of the following stream ciphers?
A. RC2
B. RC4
C. IKE
D. 3DES
SY0-101 vce Answer: B
8. A common tool used for wireless sniffing and war driving is:
A. S/MIME.
B. Sam Spade.
C. NetStumbler.

D. NESSUS.
Answer: C
9. Which of the following is a common type of attack on web servers?
A. Birthday
B. Buffer overflow
C. Spam
D. Brute force
SY0-101 exam Answer: B
10. Which of the following would be needed to ensure that a user who has received an email cannot claim
that the email was not received?
A. Anti-aliasing
B. Data integrity
C. Asymmetric cryptography
D. Non-repudiation
Answer: D
11. Spam is considered a problem even when deleted before being opened because spam:
A. verifies the validity of an email address.
B. corrupts the mail file.
C. wastes company bandwidth.
D. installs Trojan horse viruses.
SY0-101 dumps Answer: C
12. In order to secure web-based communications, SSL uses: (Select TWO).
A. PPP.
B. IPSec.
C. Public-key cryptography.
D. Blowfish encryption.

E. Symmetric cryptography.
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP).
Answer: CE
13. A URL for an Internet site begins with ‘https:’ rather than ‘http:’ which is an indication that this web site
uses:
A. Kerberos.
B. PGP.
C. PKI.
D. SSL.
SY0-101 pdf Answer: D
14. To reduce vulnerabilities on a web server, an administrator should adopt which of the following
preventative measures?
A. Use packet sniffing software on all inbound communications.
B. Apply the most recent manufacturer updates and patches to the server.
C. Enable auditing on the web server and periodically review the audit logs.
D. Block all Domain Name Service (DNS) requests coming into the server.
Answer: B
15. A VPN is needed for users to connect to a remote site and the VPN must be transparent to the user.
Which of the following VPN models would be BEST to use?
A. Gateway to Gateway
B. Host to Host
C. Host to Gateway
D. Gateway to Host
SY0-101 vce Answer:A
16. A web page becomes unresponsive whenever the embedded calendar control is used. Which of the
following types of vulnerabilities is occurring?
A. Common Gateway Interface (CGI)

B. ActiveX
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Cookies
Answer: B
17. A company is upgrading the network and needs to reduce the ability of users on the same floor and
network segment to see each other’s traffic. Which of the following network devices should be used?
A. Router
B. Hub
C. Switch
D. Firewall
SY0-101 exam Answer: C
18. Which of the following would be the MOST important reason to apply updates?
A. Software is a licensed product and the license will expire if not updated.
B. Software is a supported product and vendors won’t support the product if the latest version is not
installed.
C. Software is a productivity facilitator and as new functionality is available the functionality must be
enabled.
D. Software is inherently insecure and as new vulnerabilities are found the vulnerabilities must be fixed.
Answer: D
19. Which of the following types of firewalls provides inspection at layer 7 of the OSI model?
A. Application-proxy
B. Network address translation (NAT)
C. Packet filters
D. Stateful inspection
SY0-101 dumps Answer:A
20. A company implements an SMTP server on their firewall. This implementation would violate which of
the following security principles?

A. Keep the solution simple.
B. Use a device as intended.
C. Create an in-depth defense.
D. Address internal threats.
Answer: B

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CCNA Security, Cisco

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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DEMO
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps

What is the effect of the given command sequence?
A. It configures IKE Phase 1.
B. It configures a site-to-site VPN tunnel.
C. It configures a crypto policy with a key size of 14400.
D. It configures IPSec Phase 2.
210-260 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
What hash type does Cisco use to validate the integrity of downloaded images?
A. Sha1
B. Sha2
C. Md5
D. Md1
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
What security feature allows a private IP address to access the Internet by translating it to a public
address?
A. NAT
B. hairpinning
C. Trusted Network Detection
D. Certification Authority
210-260 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4. In SAS ETL Studio, what is stored as a metadata identity?
A. the location of the SAS Metadata Server
B. the libraries containing the data in the warehouse
C. a user or a group of users of the metadata environment
D. a list of the warehouse server names and port numbers
Answer: C
QUESTION  5. In SAS ETL Studio, when checking in objects from a project repository to a change-managed
repository, which objects are checked in?

A. all objects
B. the selected objects only
C. grouped objects and their associated objects
D. the selected objects and all associated objects
210-260 pdf Answer:A
QUESTION  6. In SAS ETL Studio, which alert actions can be selected from the Status Handling tab as a property of
the job? I.Send email. II.Abort the process. III.Send the entry to a dataset. IV.Call a macro from a SAS
Autocall Library.
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II, III and IV
Answer: D
QUESTION  7. In SAS ETL Studio, what can be used to register a metadata object in the Process Library? I.the
Metadata Importer II.the Metadata Transformer III.the Transformation Importer
IV.the Transformation Generator
A. II only
B. IV only
C. I and II
D. III and IV
210-260 vce Answer: D

QUESTION 8. In PGP, there are two conditions that can be present to provide for the validity of a certificate. What
are these two conditions?
A.The certificate has been digitally signed by your local trusted root Certificate Authority.
B.The certificate is digitally signed by at least one completely trusted key holder, who has a valid
certificate.
C.The certificate is digitally signed by at least two of the marginally trusted key holders, who have valid
certificates.
D.The certificate has been digitally signed by the sender trusted root Certificate Authority.
E.The certificate is digitally signed by the sender, who is authenticated by your local Certificate Authority.
Answer: BC
QUESTION  9. What is the average size of a biometric template?
A.Between 10 and 100 KB
B.Between 100 and 500 KB
C.Less than 1 KB
D.Less than 3 bytes
E.Between 500 KB and 1 MB
210-260 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION  10. Based on the provided image, what type of certification path will be used in this network?
A.Nested certification path
B.Hierarchical certification path
C.Functional certification path
D.Mesh certification path
E.Bridged certification path
Answer: D
QUESTION 11. When an OCSP responder provides a digitally signed response for each of the certificates sent to it by
the relying party in the original request, its reply consists of the certificate identifier, one of three status
values and a validity interval. What are the three status values?
A.Okay, Not Okay, Revoked
B.This Update, Next Update, Future Update
C.Good, Revoked, Unknown
D.Issuer Public Key, Hash of the Private Key, Unknown
E.Issuer Private Key, Thumbprint of the Public Key, Unknown
Answer: C
QUESTION 12. What format is used to list the information that is contained in the Issuer field of an X.509 digital

certificate?
A.FQDN
B.X.500 CN
C.CA Name
D.X.500 DN
E.Position of the CA in the CA hierarchy
210-260 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION 13. There are many certificate templates built into Windows 2000 Certificate Servers. Which of the
following user templates are valid for client authentication?
A.Smart Card Logon
B.Domain Controller
C.Authenticated Session
D.IPSec (Offline Request)
E.Smart Card User
Answer: ACE
QUESTION 14. One of the many extensions in an X.509 digital certificate is called the SubjectKeyIdentifier. What is
this extension used for?
A.The extension is used to verify the SubjectPrivateKeyInfo
B.The extension is used to match the hashes of the SubjectKeyAlgorithm
C.The extension is used only when the certificate is used for code signing from a defined Subject
D.The extension is used when matching the hash value of the public key on the certificate
E.The extension is used only if the certificate is sent from a Root CA
210-260 pdf 
Answer: D
QUESTION 15. Which of the following are hash algorithms?
A.MD5
B.SHA
C.RSA

D.3DES
E.AES
Answer: AB
QUESTION NO: 16
Which RAID level is the most commonly used for file servers, application server, web server,
databases, and other transaction-oriented applications?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 3
C. RAID 4
D. RAID 5
210-260 vce 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 17
Which utility typically enables abstraction of storage within a server?
A. Switch zoning
B. Logical Volume Manager (LVM)
C. SAN appliance
D. SMI-S Monitoring Tool
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
Your current backup solution includes a backup server and six tape drives within a tape library.
The routers are connected to the SAN and the servers are zoned on the SAN to see the array.
The server sends a set of commands to the tape routes causing the routers to talk directly to the
volumes and copy them to the tape drives. Which backup infrastructure type would describe this
process?
A. D2D (disc-to-disk)
B. 3PC (3rd party copy)
C. SSO (shared storage option)
D. D2R2T (disk to route to tape)
210-260 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 19
Which Security method is used to insure that a particular host only has access to a particular
LUN?
A. port binding
B. hard zoning
C. soft zoning
D. LUN masking
Answer: D

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Fortinet, Network Security

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Exam Code: NSE5
Exam Name: Fortinet Network Security Expert 5 Written Exam (500)
Q&As: 239

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QUESTION NO: 53
There are eight traffic priority classes. Which of the following priorities would you recommend for
voice in an 802.1p VLAN?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 6
D. 7
NSE5 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 54
A technician has been trying to determine whether or not the e-mail service is operating on an
SIP-enabled device. She issues the following command from a terminal:
telnet gateway.ctpcertified.com 25
What is the result of this command?
A. The Telnet client will try to access the SMTP port on gateway.ctpcertified.com.
B. She will be presented with a login prompt via the SSH protocol.
C. The Telnet client will try to access the Telnet port for 25 seconds on gateway.ctpcertified.com.
D. The Telnet client will try to access the standard SNMP port of gateway.ctpcertified.com.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 55
You have just installed a wireless access point that you plan to use for voice and video calls.
Which settings can you put in place to enable you to prioritize multiple traffic streams?
A. Larger MTU and SYN packet settings
B. MAC address filtering and RADIUS settings
C. WME and/or multiple SSID entries
D. Multiple default gateways and switches
NSE5 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 56
What type of Network Address Translation (NAT) is the least restrictive?
A. Symmetric
B. Full cone
C. Restricted cone
D. Port restricted cone
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 57
What are the four access categories defined by Wireless Multimedia Extensions (WME), in order
from highest to lowest priority?
A. Connectionless, Connection-Oriented, Standard and SIP
B. TCP, UDP, IP and H.323
C. Voice, Video, Best Effort and Background
D. TCP, UDP, IP and SIP
NSE5 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 58
You are troubleshooting a problem in which several IP phones cannot access an SIP proxy. You
have been told that all SIP proxies and clients in the company are using the standard port as a
default. When you view the various configuration screens, you see the following information:
– DNS server: dns1.ctpcertified.com
– DHCP: Auto.
– SIP proxy: sipproxy.ctpcertified.com: 8080
– IP address: 192.168.2.33
– Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0
What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. The wrong DNS server has been specified.
B. DHCP settings are not configured correctly.
C. The wrong subnet mask has been specified.
D. The wrong port number is specified in the proxy server.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 59
An SIP proxy server has the following IP configuration:
172.80.54.23/20
Which is the correct address for the network containing this server?
A. 172.80.54.0
B. 172.43.63.18
C. 172.80.48.0
D. 172.80.64.0
NSE5 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 60
Which of the following will allow you to avoid deploying NAT traversal workarounds?
A. Use a custom subnet mask for all external network devices.
B. Deploy a CSU/DSU.
C. Use registered IP addresses for all devices.
D. Use private IP addresses for all devices.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 61
You have installed 100 IP phones in a new subnet. None of the phones in this new subnet can
receive IP addresses from the company DHCP server that resides on a separate subnet. Which of
the following can you implement to solve this problem the most easily and securely?
A. Enable 802.1p on the Layer 2 switch.
B. Enable BOOTP forwarding on the router.
C. Place the DHCP server on the default VLAN.
D. Upgrade the DHCP server.
NSE5 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 62
Voice call quality drops at certain times of the day. You discover that this is usually when high
amounts of e-mail and Web traffic occur across several LANs in your company. Which action can
you take to solve this problem?
A. Implement H.323.
B. Implement SIP.
C. Implement QoS.
D. Implement MGCP.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 63
Given a 21st century Ethernet network, which of the following must be used by both an 802.11i
WiFi card and an IP-enabled PBX network adapter?
A. A Virtual LAN Identifier (VID)
B. A Secure Set Identifier (SSID) entry
C. A Media Access Control (MAC) address
D. A Canonical Format Indicator (CFI) entry
NSE5 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 64
The IP phones for the sales department reside in Subnet A, while the IP PBX resides in Subnet B
of the same network. All network switches and routers are properly configured. A technician
visiting the sales department is having problems registering the sales department phones with the
IP PBX. The technician can ping each phone from within Subnet A, but not from outside the
subnet. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this problem?
A. The router does not have access control lists enabled.
B. The IP phones are configured with an incorrect subnet mask.
C. The cables connecting the IP phones are Category 5, rather than Category 5e.
D. The MAC addresses for the phones have not yet been registered with the IP PBX.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 65
You are implementing an IPsec VPN for voice calls. These calls will pass from one corporate
firewall to another. Both firewalls use Network Address Translation (NAT). Which form of IPsec will
you implement?
A. Tunnel mode using the AH security protocol
B. Transport mode using the AH security protocol
C. Tunnel mode using the ESP security protocol
D. Transport mode using the ESP security protocol
NSE5 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 66
Which element of a convergent network does a connection-hijacking attack typically exploit?
A. Soft phones
B. Wireless network radio frequencies
C. The TCP three-way handshake
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 67
What algorithm is usually selected when voice is companded at 64 Kbps in all parts of the world
except North America and Japan?
A. A-Law
B. Mu-Law
C. G.711
D. G.729a
NSE5 vce Answer: A

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CCNP Routing and Switching, Cisco

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-135 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 27
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
class B { int val;
public:
B(int v):val(v){}
int getV() const {return val;} bool operator < (const B & v) const { return val<v.val;} };
ostream & operator <<(ostream & out, const B & v) { out<<v.getV(); return out;}
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
int main() {
B t1[]={3,2,4,1,5};
B t2[]={5,6,8,2,1};
vector<B> v1(10,0);
sort(t1, t1+5);
sort(t2, t2+5);
set_symmetric_difference(t2,t2+5,t1,t1+5,v1.begin());
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), Out<B>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;
}

Program outputs:
A. 6 8 3 4 0 0 0 0 0 0
B. 3 4 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
C. 6 8 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
D. compilation error
E. 3 4 6 8 0 0 0 0 0 0
300-135 exam Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 28
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <functional>
using namespace std;
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
int main() {
int t[]={3,2,4,1,5,6,10,8,7,9};
vector<int> v1(t, t+10);
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), bind2nd(plus<int>(), 1));
for_each(v1.rbegin(), v1.rend(), Out<int>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;

}
Program outputs:
A. 3 2 4 1 5 6 10 8 7 9
B. 4 3 5 2 6 7 11 9 8 10
C. 9 7 8 10 6 5 1 4 2 3
D. 10 8 9 11 7 6 2 5 3 4
E. compilation error
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 29
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
class B { int val;
public:
B(int v=0):val(v){}
int getV() const {return val;}
operator int () const { return val;} };
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
struct Add {

B operator()(B & a, B & b) { return a+b; }};
int main() {
int t[]={1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10};
vector<B> v1(t, t+10);
vector<B> v2(10);
transform(v1.begin(), v1.end(), v2.begin(), bind1st(1,Add()));
for_each(v2.rbegin(), v2.rend(), Out<B>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
C. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
D. 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2
E. compilation error
300-135 dumps Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 30
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
int main () {
int t[] = {1,2,3,2,3,5,1,2,7,3,2,1,10, 4,4,5};

vector<int> v (t,t+15);
int number = count(v.begin(), v.end(), 2);
cout<< number<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 0
E. compilation error
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 31
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <deque>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <set>
using namespace std;
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; }
};

bool Compare(char a, char b) { return tolower(a) < tolower(b);}
int main() {
char s[]={“qwerty”};
char t1[]={“ert”};
char t2[]={“ERT”};
sort(s, s+6);
cout<<includes(s,s+6, t1,t1+3, Compare)<<” “<<includes(s,s+6, t2,t2+3, Compare)<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 0 0
B. 0 1
C. 1 0
D. 1 1
300-135 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 32
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
int main ()
{
std::vector<int>v1;
v1.push_back(10);
return 0;
}

A. compilation fails due to error in line 2
B. compilation fails due to error in line 5
C. exception is thrown during run time
D. code compiles and executes successfully
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 33
What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <set>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
int main(){
int t[] ={ 3, 4, 2, 1, 6, 5, 7, 9, 8, 0 };
vector<int>v(t, t+10);
set<int> s1(v.begin(),v.end());
s1.insert(v.begin(),v.end());
bool found = s1.find(7);
if (found){
cout<<“Element found!\n”;
}else {
cout<<“Element not found!\n”;
}
return 0;
}
A. program will display “Element found!”
B. program will display “Element not found!\n
C. code will not compile
D. changing type of variable found to int will make this code compile
300-135 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
#include <set>
using namespace std;
void myfunction(int i) {
cout << ” ” << i;
}
bool classifier(int v) {
return v%2==0;
}
int main() {
int t[] = { 1, 5, 2, 5, 2, 4, 4, 3, 3, 1 };
vector<int> v1(t, t+10);
set<int> s1(t, t+10);
replace(v1.begin(), v1.end(),classifier, 10);
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), myfunction);
return 0;

}
Program outputs:
A. 1 5 10 5 10 10 10 3 3 1
B. 1 5 2 5 2 4 4 3 3 1
C. compilation error
D. 10 10 2 10 2 4 4 10 10 10
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 35
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <deque>
#include <list>
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main ()
{
list<int>l1;
deque<int>d1;
for(int i=0; i<5; i++)
{
l1.push_back(i);l1.push_front(i);
d1.push_back(i);d1.push_front(i);
}
for(int i=0; i<d1.size(); i++)
{
cout<<d1[i]<<” “<<l1[i]<<” “;

}
cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
A. program displays 4 4 3 3 2 2 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4
B. runtime exception
C. compilation error due to line 11
D. compilation error due to line 12
E. compilation error due to line 16
300-135 exam Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 36
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <deque>
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main ()
{
int t[] = { 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 };
vector<int> v1(t, t + 10);
deque<int> d1(v1.begin(), v1.end());
deque<int> d2;
d2 = d1;
d2.insert(d1.rbegin(), 10);

for(int i = 0; i<d1.size(); i++)
{
cout<<d1[i]<<” “;
}
return 0;
}
A. program outputs: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B. program outputs: 10 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
C. program outputs: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
D. compilation error
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 37
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
cout<<100<<” “;
cout.setf(ios::hex);
cout<<100<<” “;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 100 64
B. 100 0x64
C. 0x64 0x64
D. 64 0x64
E. 100 100
300-135 dumps Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 38
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
cout.setf(ios::hex, ios::basefield);
cout<<100<<” “;
cout.flags(ios::showbase);
cout<<100<<” “;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 64 64
B. 64 0x64
C. 0x64 0x64
D. 64 100
E. compilation error
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
int main () {
int t[] = {1,2,3,2,3,5,1,2,7,3,2,1,10, 4,4,5};
vector<int> v (t,t+15);
vector<int>::iterator it = search_n(v.begin(), v.end(), 4, 2);
cout<< it?v.begin()<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 10
B. 3
C. 1
D. 15
E. compilation error
300-135 pdf Answer: D

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CCIE, Cisco

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Exam Code: 400-151
Exam Name: CCIE Data Center Written Exam
Q&As: 316

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Question: 24
Given the following SAS data set ONE:
ONE
COUNTRY CITY VISIT
—————————————–
USA BOSTON 10
UK LONDON 5
USA DALLAS 10
UK MARLOW 10
USA BOSTON 20
UK LONDON 15
USA DALLAS 10
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select country, city, sum(visit) as TOTAL
from one group by country, city
order by country, total desc;
quit;
Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. COUNTRY CITY TOTAL
—————————————–
UK MARLOW 10
UK LONDON 20USA BOSTON 50
USA DALLAS 20
B. COUNTRY CITY TOTAL
—————————————-
UK LONDON 20
UK MARLOW 10
USA BOSTON 50
USA DALLAS 20
C. COUNTRY CITY TOTAL
—————————————–
USA BOSTON 50
D. COUNTRY CITY TOTAL
—————————————–
UK MARLOW 10
UK LONDON 20
USA DALLAS 20
USA BOSTON 50
400-151 exam Answer: B
Question: 25
Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO:
ONE TWO
NUM CHAR1 NUM CHAR2
——————- ————————
1 A 2 X
2 B 3 Y
4 D 5 V
The following SAS program is submitted creating the output table THREE:
data three;
set one two;
run;
THREE
NUM CHAR1 CHAR2
—————————————
1 A
2 B
4 D
2 X
3 Y
5 V
Which one of the following SQL programs creates an equivalent SAS data set THREE?
A. proc sql;
create table three as
select *
from one
outer union corr
select *
from two;
quit;B. proc sql;
create table three as
select *
from one
outer union
select *
from two;
quit;
C. proc sql;
create table three as
select *
from one
outer union
select *
quit;
D. proc sql;
create table three as
select *
from one
union corr
select *
from two;
quit;
Answer: A
Question: 26
Which one of the following automatic SAS macro variables contains the return code from a
previously executed step?
A. &RC
B. &ERR
C. &SYSRC
D. &SYSERR
400-151 dumps Answer: D
Question: 27
The SAS data set ONE has a variable X on which an index has been created. The data sets ONE
and THREE are sorted by X. Which one of the following SAS programs uses the index to select
observations from the data set ONE?
A. data two;
set three;
set one key = X;
run;
B. data two;
set three key = X;
set one;
run;
C. data two;
set one;
set three key = X;
run;
D. data two;set three;
set one (key = X);
run;
Answer: A
Question: 28
Given the following SAS data set ONE:
ONE
REP AREA COST
————————————
SMITH NORTH 100
SMITH SOUTH 200
JONES EAST 100
SMITH NORTH 300
JONES WEST 100
JONES NORTH 200
JONES NORTH 400
SMITH NORTH 400
JONES WEST 100
JONES WEST 300
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select rep, area, count(*) as TOTAL
from one group by rep, area;
quit;
Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. REP AREA COUNT
———————————————–
JONES EAST 100
JONES NORTH 600
JONES WEST 500
SMITH NORTH 800
SMITH SOUTH 200
B. REP AREA TOTAL
———————————————–
JONES EAST 100
JONES NORTH 600
JONES WEST 500
SMITH NORTH 800
SMITH SOUTH 200
C. REP AREA TOTAL
———————————————–
JONES EAST 1
JONES NORTH 2
JONES WEST 3
SMITH NORTH 3
JONES WEST 3
SMITH NORTH 3
SMITH SOUTH 1
C. REP AREA TOTALJONES EAST 1
JONES NORTH 2
JONES WEST 3
SMITH NORTH 3
SMITH SOUTH 1
SMITH NORTH 3
SMITH SOUTH 1
400-151 pdf Answer: D
Question: 29
Which one of the following SAS procedures changes a permanent format of a variable stored in a
SAS data set?
A. MODIFY
B. FORMAT
C. CONTENTS
D. DATASETS
Answer: D
Question: 30
Given the following SAS data set SASUSER.HIGHWAY:
SASUSER.HIGHWAY
STEERING SEATBELT SPEED STATUS COUNT
————————————————————————
absent no 0-29 serious 31
absent no 0-29 not 1419
absent no 30-49 serious 191
absent no 30-49 not 2004
absent no 50+ serious 216
The following SAS program is submitted:
%macro highway;
proc sql noprint;
select count(distinct status)
into :numgrp
from sasuser.highway;
%let numgrp = &numgrp;
select distinct status
into :group1-:group&numgrp
from sasuser.highway;
quit;
%do i = 1 %to &numgrp;
proc print data = sasuser.highway;
where status = “&&group&i” ;
run;
%end;
%mend;
%highway
How many reports are produced by the above program?
A. 0
B. 1C. 2
D. 5
400-151 vce Answer: C
Question: 31
Text is sent to the SAS compiler as a result of macro execution. Which one of the following SAS
System options writes that text to the log?
A. MPRINT
B. MLOGIC
C. MSOURCE
D. SOURCE2
Answer: A
Question: 32
Given the following SAS data set ONE:
ONE
CATEGORY AGE SALARY BONUS
—————————————————
M 28 200 .
M 25 100 10
F 100 50
F 25 200 10
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
create table two as
select category, salary + bonus as EARNINGS
from one; quit;
Which one of the following represents the data values stored in the data set TWO?
A. CATEGORY EARNINGS
————————————-
M 200
M 110
F 150
F 210
B. CATEGORY EARNINGS
————————————
M .
M 110
F 150
F 210
C. CATEGORY SALARY BONUS EARNINGS
—————————————————————
M 200 . 200
M 100 10 110
F 100 50 150
F 200 10 210
D. CATEGORY SALARY BONUS EARNINGS
—————————————————————
M 200 . .
M 100 10 110
M 200 . 200
M 100 10 110
F 100 50 150
F 200 10 210
400-151 exam Answer: B
Question: 33
Which one of the following SAS SORT procedure options eliminates identical consecutive
observations?
A. NODUP
B. UNIQUE
C. DISTINCT
D. NODUPKEY
Answer: A
Question: 34
The following SAS program is submitted:
data temp;
array points{3,2}_temporary_ (10,20,30,40,50,60);
score = points{2,1}
run;
Which one of the following is the value of the variable SCORE in the data set TEMP?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
400-151 dumps Answer: C
Question: 35
The following SAS FORMAT procedure is submitted:
proc format lib = sasuser;
value tempc low < 0 = ‘BELOW FREEZING’
0 < 5 = ‘COLD’
5 < 10 = ‘MILD’
10 < 15 = ‘WARM’
15 high = ‘HOT’;
run;
How is the value 10 displayed when the format TEMPC is applied?
A. 10
B. MILD
C. WARM
D. BELOW FREEZING
Answer: C
Question: 36
Which one of the following SAS programs uses the most amount of memory resources for outputbuffers?
A. data new(bufsize = 1000 bufno = 5);
set temp;
run;
B. data new(bufsize = 1000 bufno = 2);
set temp;
run;
C. data new(bufsize = 2000 bufno = 3);
set temp;
run;
D. data new(bufsize = 4000 bufno = 1);
set temp;
run;
400-151 pdf Answer: C

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Microsoft, Microsoft Specialist

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Exam Code: 70-694
Exam Name: Virtualizing Enterprise Desktops and Apps
Updated: Aug 21, 2017
Q&As: 112

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-694 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 32
Which two features of FileMaker Pro 12 require indexing in order to work? (Choose two.)
A. The List function
B. Auto-complete using existing values
C. Dynamic value lists based on FileMaker tables
D. Dynamic subsummary reports in Browse mode
E. The ExecuteSQL calculation function with a JOIN in the query
70-694 exam Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 33
Which statement is true of a container field set to Store container data externally in FileMaker Pro
12?
A. The field cannot have the Interactive content option selected in the Inspector in Layout mode.
B. Data will not be stored externally if the file is transferred to an iOS device and used via
FileMaker Go 12.
C. Externally stored container data will not be backed up by FileMaker Server 12 scheduled
backup routines.
D. Externally stored container data can be stored on a local hard drive or a Storage Area Network
(SAN) device, but cannot be stored on a Network Attached Storage (NAS) device.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 34
Given the following Relationships Graph for a FileMaker Pro 12 database, where Employee,
Manager, and Trainer are all table occurrences sharing the same source table:

Assuming the relevant fields also exist in these tables, which two sets of data can be shown in
portals without modifying the graph? (Choose two.)
A. A portal of students that have not enrolled in a class
B. A portal of trainers that have taught their own manager
C. A portal of the classes that have been attended by a manager’s team
D. A portal showing a non-repeating list of courseware titles taught by a trainer
E. A portal of classes in which a manager enrolled with one or more of the manager’s team
70-694 dumps Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
For which two is it possible to specify conditional formatting? (Choose two.)
A. A Tab panel
B. The body part of a layout
C. The title of a chart object
D. A merge symbol (e.g. « CurrrentDate »)
E. An inserted graphic formatted as a button
F. A rectangle object being used as a graphical background
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36

Which statement is true regarding layout themes in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. A Touch theme (e.g. River Touch) must be used for a layout to be compatible with iOS devices.
B. Changing a layout to the Classic theme of the Basic theme group will leave all objects and their
styles unaffected.
C. The style attributes for a new object (e.g. field or text box) added to a layout will be determined
by the layout part in which it is created
D. Changing a layout’s theme will optionally update all layouts sharing the same original theme by
choosing Update matching layouts in the Change Theme dialog.
E. Holding down the Control (Windows) or Command (Mac OS X) keys while clicking the Apply
theme styles button of the Inspector, the object styles of the currently selected object will be
applied to all objects of the same type on the layout.
70-694 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
Which statement is true regarding layout objects in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. Along with line styles, corner radius settings are set individually for each tab panel in a tab
control.
B. Fill patterns can only be applied to shapes (i.e. rectangles, rounded rectangles, and ovals) in
Layout mode.
C. A text object set as a field’s Label using the Accessibility Inspector is automatically grouped
with the field.
D. Object Effects (Engraved, Embossed, and Drop Shadow) can only be applied to fields, buttons,
or text objects.
E. An object Name set using the Inspector is the same as the object Title set using the
Accessibility Inspector and can be edited in either place.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 38
Which statement is true about portals in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. Conditional formatting can be applied to a portal row.
B. An OnObjectEnter script trigger applied to a portal will activate once for each portal row as a
user tabs from field to field across rows.
C. A portal set with only a bottom anchor containing fields set with only a top anchor will increase
row height as the layout is expanded vertically.
D. Records in a portal can become unsorted if the developer unchecks “Keep records in sorted
order” in the Portal Setup > Sort Records dialog.
E. If there are multiple portals on a layout, the Go to Portal Row [First] script step will activate the
portal closest to the top left corner of the layout.
70-694 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
The text field productCode has a script trigger set to activate OnObjectKeystroke and runs the
following script:
If [Length (File::productCode) > 7]
Exit Script [Result: 0]
Else
Set Field [File::productCode; File::productCode & “-“]
End If
The field productCode has the value of 12-1415. A user types a 6 in the field at the end of the
value.
What is the resulting value in the field after the script trigger has processed?
A. 12-1415
B. 12-1415-
C. 12-14156
D. 12-14156-
E. 12-1415-6
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40

Which two statements are true if a layout is configured with an OnRecordLoad script trigger
enabled in both Browse and Find modes? (Choose two.)
A. It will be activated by entering Find mode.
B. It will be activated by creating a new window.
C. It will be activated when records are imported.
D. It will not be activated while switching records in Table view.
70-694 exam Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 41
Which default layout theme will be chosen by FileMaker Pro 12 for layouts automatically created
when a new table is added to the file?
A. The theme of the most recently edited layout
B. The theme of the most recently viewed layout
C. The theme of the most recently created layout
D. The Classic theme of the Basic theme group
E. The Cool theme of the Classic Refined theme group
F. The Cool Gray theme of the FileMaker Millennium theme group
70-694 dumps Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
Which statement is true about the sort order of data in portals in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. The sort setting applied to the portal in Layout mode can only include fields from the portal’s
table.
B. If the relationship that defines the portal’s record set includes a Sort records setting, unindexed
fields in the sort setting will be ignored.
C. If the relationship that defines the portal’s record set includes a Sort records setting, any sort
setting applied to the portal in Layout mode will be ignored.
D. If there are multiple sorted relationships defined between the layout’s table occurrence and the
portal’s table occurrence, the portal records will be sorted based upon the relationship closest to
the portal’s table occurrence.
E. If there are multiple sorted relationships defined between the layout’s table occurrence and the
portal’s table occurrence, the portal records will combine the Sort records settings of all of those
relationships, sub-sorting by the relationships closest to the portal’s table occurrence.
Answer: D
Explanation:

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Microsoft, Windows Server 2012

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Exam Code: 070-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Aug 14, 2017
Q&As: 503

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 070-410 Dumps Exam Q&As:

16.Your NetBackup environment will consist of four media servers and a robot with
two tape drives. The media servers and the robot are SAN attaches. Each media
servers also functions as a large file server on the network.
Which three goals will be addressed by implementing the Shared Storage Option in
this environment? (Choose three)
A. minimized network traffic during the backup window
B. high performance on the four local media server backups
C. high performance on remote(network) client backups
D. improved tape drive usage among media servers.
E. improved performance data collection for backups
070-410 exam Answer: A,B,D
17.Your environment uses a SAN for disk access.
Which feature of NetBackup 5.0 Advanced Client is appropriate?

A. fast backups
B. off-host backups
C. referential backups D.
incremental backups
Answer: B
18.You are in the process of disaster recovery planning. Your focus is on the
recovery of IT systems. In your evaluation of the environment you must collect
data regarding the physical locations.
Which list contains the main categories of disasters?
A. logical (hardware-related)
logical (software-related)
environmental
B. management failures
Logical (software-related)
environmental
C. SPDFA logical(software
related) environmental(software
related) D. hardware failure
logical(software-related)
environmental
070-410 dumps Answer: D
19.You are encountering problems with host names and network connections. You have
already verified that the correct client and server host names are configured in
NetBackup.
Which commands do you use to verify name resolution on UNIX and Windows clients?
A. bpexpdate
B. bpclntcmd
C. bptest
D. bpverify
Answer: B
20.Your NetBackup environment will consist of two media servers (Server A and Server B)
and a robot with four tape drives. Each media server also functions as a large files server
on the network.
Which design best uses the available hardware?
A. configures Server A as the robot control host, configure the four drives on ServerB
B. configure Server A as the robot control host, configure two drives on each media

server
C. configures both media servers as the robot control hosts, configure the four drives on
ServerA
D. configure both media servers as the robot control hosts, configure two drives on each
media server
070-410 pdf Answer: B

21.This standard addresses restricting physical access to electronic PHI data through interface devices to
authorized users:
A. Facility Security Plan
B. Person or Entity Authentication

C. Workstation Security
D. Contingency Plan
E. Access Control
Answer: C
22.An addressable Implementation Specification of Facility Access Controls is:
A. Unauthorized Access
B. Security Configurations
C. Accountability
D. Maintenance Records
E. Media Disposal
070-410 vce Answer: D
23.This HIPAA security category covers the use of locks, keys and administrative measures used to
control access to computer systems:
A. Technical Safeguards
B. Technical Services
C. Physical Security Policy
D. Administrative Safeguards
E. Physical Safeguards
Answer: E
24.Media Re-use is a required implementation specification associated with which security standard?
A. Facility Access Controls
B. Workstation Use
C. Workstation Security
D. Device and Media Controls
E. Access Control
070-410 exam Answer: D
25.This is a standard within Physical Safeguards
A. Contingency Operations
B. Workstation Use
C. Security Incident Management
D. Disaster Recovery E. Disposal
Answer: B
26.How does EnCase verify that the evidence file contains an exact copy of the suspect hard drive? How does
EnCase verify that the evidence file contains an exact copy of the suspect’s hard drive?
A. By means of a CRC value of the suspect hard drive compared to a CRC value of the data stored in the
evidence file.By means of a CRC value of the suspect? hard drive compared to a CRC value of the data
stored in the evidence file.
B. By means of an MD5 hash of the suspect hard drive compared to an MD5 hash of the data stored in the
evidence file.By means of an MD5 hash of the suspect? hard drive compared to an MD5 hash of the data
stored in the evidence file.
C. By means of a CRC value of the evidence file itself.
D. By means of an MD5 hash value of the evidence file itself.
070-410 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
27.By default, EnCase will display the data from the end of a logical file, to the end of the cluster, in what color:
A. Red
B. Red on black
C. Black on red
D. Black
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
28.A SCSI drive is pinned as a master when it is:
A. The only drive on the computer.
B. The primary of two drives connected to one cable.
C. Whenever another drive is on the same cable and is pinned as a slave.
D. A SCSI drive is not pinned as a master.
070-410 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
29.The following GREP expression was typed in exactly as shown. Choose the answer(s) that would result. [^a-z]
Tom[^a-z]
A. Tomato
B. om? ? RP

C. Toms
D. Stomp
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
30.This question addresses the EnCase for Windows search process. If a target word is within a logical file, and it
begins in cluster 10 and ends in cluster 15 (the word is fragmented), the search:
A. Will not find it unlessile slack is checked on the search dialog box.
B. Will find it because EnCase performs a logical search.
C. Will not find it because EnCase performs a physical search only.
D. Will not find it because the letters of the keyword are not contiguous.
070-410 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
31.An evidence file was archived onto five CD-Rom disks with the third file segment on disk number three. Can
the contents of the third file segment be verified by itself while still on the CD?
A. No. Archived files are compressed and cannot be verified until un-archived.
B. No. All file segments must be put back together.
C. Yes. Any segment of an evidence file can be verified through re-computing and comparing the CRCs, even
if it is on a CD.
D. No. EnCase cannot verify files on CDs.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
32.The case file should be archived with the evidence files at the termination of a case.
A. True
B. False
070-410 exam Correct Answer:
Explanation
33.A signature analysis has been run on a case. The result “Bad Signature ” means:
A. The file signature is known and does not match a known file header.

B. The file signature is known and the file extension is known.
C. The file signature is known and does not match a known file extension.
D. The file signature is unknown and the file extension is known.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
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MCSA, Microsoft

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Exam Code: 70-743
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA: Windows Server 2016
Updated: Aug 10, 2017
Q&As: 107

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-743 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 1
What is a legally secure contract for NSN and a Customer?
A. If NSN has a long-running relationship with the customer, so a “gentlemen’s” or “verbal” agreement is
enough, especially in some countries.
B. A PO with the payment terms defined is sufficient, provided NSN had contractual relationship with the
customer in the past.
C. Terms and conditions documenting the commitments of both parties needs to be written and signed.
D. A detailed customer Purchase Order with a description of the Services Ordered is sufficient.
70-743 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
What is CaPM’s PRIMARY responsibility in the tendering process?
A. To help the Account Manager to prepare a Customer Care Contract.
B. To support the Account Manager to negotiate the Care Contract with the Customer.
C. To consult the Service Engagement Manager to ensure availability of price options for Care Services.
D. To act as the CT contact to the Care organisation and to support the CT in all tendering activities
where Care services are being considered.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
When does the Care phase start?
A. When the network, sub-network or deliverables get Customer final acceptance.
B. When the project phase is completed.
C. When the Account Manager receives the final payment from the Customer.
D. When the Care Plan has been accepted by the Customer.
70-743 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Who should NOT participate in a Care Services tender?
A. Service Product Manager.
B. Cost Manager.
C. Care Program Manager.
D. R&D Engineer.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
The following action must take place if NSN are not SOX Compliant:
A. NSN will be fined 2.5 times the annual value of the contract.
B. CT Head will be dismissed from NSN with 30 days notice.
C. A new Contract signed and Customer Purchase Order issued as soon as possible.
D. We must receive a Customer Purchase Order within 5 working days.
70-743 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
How many milestones (gates) are defined in the contract renewal process?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which of the following statements is true to be SOX Compliant in SDM-EX4-Care Contract Management?
A. NSN must have a letter of intent from the Customer’s Legal Department.
B. NSN must have a written, signed Contract and a Customer Purchase Order.
C. NSN must have a Customer Purchase Order for the actual Care we are delivering.
D. NSN must have a Contract defined in CDB and a Customer Purchase Order.
70-743 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
A customer pays for a 5-year warranty contract. What contract type is used in CDB/SAP?
A. Care Agreement.
B. Warranty Standard contract.
C. Warranty Extended contract.
D. 1st Warranty Standard and the next 4 as Warranty Extended contract.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Who approves free of charge services included in the Care Contract?
A. Care Program Manager.
B. Head of CT after consulting Sales Director.
C. Depending on NSN policy regarding discounts the person may vary.
D. Sales Director.
70-743 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
According to the contract renewal process, when should be the first contract proposal presented to the
customer ? (T = expiration time of current contract)
A. T – 4 months.
B. T – 3 months.
C. As soon as prepared.
D. T – 6 months.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
A customer has a free 3-year warranty contract. What contract type is used in CDB/SAP?
A. Care Agreement.
B. Warranty Standard contract.
C. Warranty Extended contract.
D. 1st Warranty Standard and Warranty Extended for the next 2 years.
70-743 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
In which documents are the Care service level commitments with the customer officially stated?
A. Account plan.
B. Project Plan.
C. Care Agreement.
D. Care Plan.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
What standard response times for trouble resolution and technical query should be proposed to a new
customer?
A. Response times which are defined in a Service Level Agreement between Care Services and Business
Unit / Product Line.
B. Response times in other CTs in the same country.
C. Response times which are defined in the global Care Contract Template.
D. Customer requirements.
70-743 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
A large price increase is demanded when renewing a 3rd Party Service Contract. What should be done in
this case?
A. Care Program Manager should inform the customer about higher service fee for the coming period.
B. Care Program Manager should check the existing Frame or local Agreements to see if the increase is
allowed in the 3rd party contract.
C. The Logistics Coordinator should rise a new Purchase Order for the higher value.
D. CaPM should reject the offer/invoice and just order what was agreed before.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
What is the next step after receiving a quotation for renewal of services from 3rd party suppliers?
A. Care Program Manager should contact the 3rd Party Service Manager to check the renewal options in
the existing Frame or Local Agreement.
B. Care Program Manager should ask Logistics Coordinator to raise a Purchase Order.
C. Care Program Manager should contact the Supplier to discuss further discounts.
D. Care Program Manager should contact the appropriate Product Line and ask for advice.
70-743 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
A Care Program Manager has to enable a customer’s NOLS access. Who has to be involved?
A. F&C and the CT must be involved.
B. Legal and NOLS support is required to set up a separate agreement.
C. This can be done by the Care Program Manager alone.
D. This is an administrative task handled by NOLS support.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
A contract is renewed in which the terms, conditions and price have remained the same but the scope has
changed. In order to maintain SOX compliance what should be done?
A. A simple contract extension is needed in CDB as the major terms and conditions are the same.
B. A new contract should be created in CDB as the scope has changed.
C. Terms and conditions are the same, only scope has been changed. So a simple contract extension is
all that is needed.
D. If a contract is renewed, it is mandatory to create a new contract in CDB.
70-743 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
What needs to be done if a 3rd Party Service Contract is due to expire?
A. Care Program Manager should contact the 3rd Party Service Manager and supplier representatives to
renew the contract.
B. Care Program Manger should inform Product Line.
C. Care Program Manager should inform the Customer to renew the contract directly with the supplier.
D. The Care Program Manager should inform the Service Engagement Manager.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
A contract is about to expire but there is already a PO for the next year from the customer. Is there a need
for CSDA?
A. No, because CSDA is to ensure that NSN doesn’t deliver services without money. If there is a PO
already in place before expiration, the CaPM just updates the contract end date.
B. No, because PO is in place and invoicing is uninterrupted. After getting the written consent of the CT
head and F&C Controller, contract prolongation in CDB is the next step and delivery continues.
C. Yes, CSDA is still needed because the contract is not signed. It means NSN is legally still vulnerable
and management needs to grant written approval to acknowledge the higher risk.
D. Yes, NSN needs to send a CSDA to inform higher management that a contract expired but delivery
continues as the PO is in place.
70-743 dumps Correct Answer: C

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CCNA, Cisco

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QUESTION 11
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1? 200-125 pdf
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.)
A. It uses consistent route determination.
B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.
C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.
E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.
F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 13
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Correct Answer: AB
200-125 dumps QUESTION 14
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 15
Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols?
A. transport type all
B. transport output all
C. transport preferred all
D. transport input all
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs? 200-125 dumps
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco APIC-EM
D. Cisco IOS-XE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? 200-125 pdf (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 18
Which function does IP SLA ICMP ECHO operation perform to assist with troubleshooting
A. packet-loss detection
B. congestion detection
C. hop-by-hop response time
D. one way jitter measurement
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which command can you enter to display the operational status of the network ports on a router?
A. show interface switchport
B. show ip interface brief
C. show running-config interface fastethernet 0/1
D. show interface status
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Under normal operations, cisco recommends that you configure switch ports on which vlan? 200-125 dumps
A. on the default vlan
B. on the management vlan
C. on the native vlan
D. on any vlan except the default vlan
Correct Answer: D

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