CCIE, Cisco

How can I get latest questions of Cisco 400-251 exam? The CCIE Security Written Exam (v5.0) (400-251 CCIE Security) exam is a 120 minutes (90 – 110 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCIE Security certification. 100% pass guarantee Cisco 400-251 dumps CCIE Security exam test questions Youtube study guides online. “CCIE Security Written Exam (v5.0)” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 400-251 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 400-251 exam. Its design is closely linked to today’s rapidly changing IT market. Before the exam, you use pertinence Cisco certification 400-251 CCIE Security questions and answers pdf that we provide, and in a short time you’ll have a lot of harvest.Pass4itsure is the only website which is able to supply all your needed information about Cisco certification https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-251.html dumps exam.

[2018-2-NEWS Cisco 400-251 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWN3NKQ2VvYmxCMDg

[2018-2-NEWS Cisco 400-351 Dumps From Google Drive]:  https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWbVlmaEVvUmZqT2c

400-251 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-251 Dumps Exam (6-26)Q&As

QUESTION 6
Which two statements about the DES algorithm are true? (Choose two)
A. The DES algorithm is based on asymmetric cryptography.
B. The DES algorithm is a stream cipher.
C. The DES algorithm is based on symmetric cryptography.
D. The DES algorithm encrypts a block of 128 bits.
E. The DES algorithm uses a 56-bit key.
400-251 exam 
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7
Which of these is a core function of the risk assessment process? (Choose one.)
A. performing regular network upgrades
B. performing network optimization
C. performing network posture validation
D. establishing network baselines
E. prioritizing network roll-outs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What is the name of the unique tool/feature in cisco security manager that is used to merge an access list based on the source/destination IP address service or combination of these to provide a manageable view of access policies?
A. merge rule tool
B. policy simplification tool
C. rule grouping tool

D. object group tool
E. combine rule tool
400-251 dumps 
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about the ISO are true? (Choose two)
A. The ISO is a government-based organization.
B. The ISO has three membership categories: member, correspondent, and subscribers.
C. Only member bodies have voting rights.
D. Correspondent bodies are small countries with their own standards organization.
E. Subscriber members are individual organizations.
Correct Answer: BC

Question: 10
You want department administrators to perform some basic administrative tasks that require them to be able to access the Central Management Console (CMC). How will you give the department administrators the right to be able to grant access to the CMC to other administrators in their own departments?
A. In the Organize Objects area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to “Edit this object”.

B. In the Manage BusinessObjects Applications area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to “Full control”.
C. In the Manage Settings area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to “Modify the rights users have to this object”.
D. In the Manage BusinessObjects Applications area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to “Modify the rights users have to this object”.
400-251 pdf 
Answer: D

Question: 11
A user who has always scheduled objects for the Marketing department is leaving your company. Which method should you use in the Central Management Console (CMC) to ensure that all recurring instances owned by this user remain in effect but become owned by the Administrator?
A. Disable the departing user then click on the Transfer recurring instances to button and select the Administrator. Click OK.
B. Delete the departing user; all recurring instances automatically transfer to the Administrator.
C. Open each recurring instance on the object’s History tab then click on Schedule for and select Administrator. Ensure that the instance will use the same recurrence pattern and parameter values. Delete the departing user when all instances have been duplicated.
D. Download details of all the instances then log on to the CMC as Administrator and schedule them using the same recurrence patterns and parameter values. Delete the departing user when all instances have been duplicated.
Answer: B

Question: 12
Which statement describes the role of BusinessObjects Enterprise within the Business Objects Business Intelligence (BI) suite of products?
A. Allows you to analyze and interact with data from both relational and OLAP data sources.
B. Provides you with an open, scalable platform that supports all of your BI tools and applications.
C. Provides you with a process for accessing data, formatting it and delivering it as information to various users.
D. Allows you to integrate, transform and deliver enterprise data from any source.
400-251 vce 
Answer: B

Question: 13
Select two true statements from below. (Choose two.)
A. You cannot copy Calendar objects in CMC > Calendars area of administration.
B. You can create your own Calendars in BusinessObjects Enterprise; you have to use the pre build business calendars only.
C. You can schedule Web Intelligence documents based on an existing calendar.
D. Calendars can be created in InfoView.
Answer: B, C

Question: 14
What steps should you follow to make Report A run automatically every day upon the successful completion of Report B?
A. Working in InfoView, create a new schedule-based event. Schedule Report B to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to trigger on completion window. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to wait for window.
B. Working in the Central Management Console, create a new schedule-based event. Schedule Report B to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to trigger on completion window. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new schedule based event to the Events to wait for window.
C. Working in the Central Management Console, create a new custom event. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new custom event to the Events to wait for window. After Report B runs successfully, trigger the custom event in the Central Management Console.
D. Working in InfoView, create a new custom event. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new custom event to the Events to wait for window. After Report B runs successfully, trigger the custom event in the Central Management Console.
400-251 exam 
Answer: B

Question: 15
The InfoView is mostly used for which of the following tasks:
A. Mostly for administering content
B. Exclusively for viewing reports
C. Viewing information about reports (Encyclopedia and Discussions)
D. Accessing information and some limited content administration
Answer: D

Question: 16
Once you grant the right to an application value (e.g. Print Documents set to Grant) to a user/group on a specific application (e.g. Desktop Intelligence), you will still be able to grant that right (e.g. print) to one Desktop Intelligence document but not the other Desktop Intelligence document.
A. True
B. False
400-251 dumps 
Answer: B

Question: 17
Your user groups have different functional needs and your managers would rather employ a more complicated user group structure than create additional folder levels. What approach should you use to create a content plan that combines logical report organization and functional user access levels?
A. Use the logical-functional group method.
B. Grant each user advanced rights to each object.
C. Use the functional-folder method.
D. Create a logical content plan.
Answer: A

Question: 18
Which two statements are true when you make changes to the report properties of a published Crystal Report object using the Central Management Console (CMC)? (Choose two.)
A. The report file stored in the Input File Report Server (FRS) is modified.
B. The report file stored in the Input File Report Server (FRS) is not modified.
C. The changes are written to the Central Management Server (CMS) system database.
D. The changes are not written to the Central Management Server (CMS) system database.
400-251 pdf 
Answer: B, C

Question: 19
How do you disable anonymous access in BusinessObjects Enterprise?
A. Within InfoView uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
B. Within Central Management Console (CMC) disable Guest account.
C. Within Central Configuration Manager (CCM) uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
D. Within Central Management Console (CMC) uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
Answer: B

Question: 20
Assume you are using InfoView and need to locate a specific Web Intelligence report, but you cannot remember its name. There are 15 Web Intelligence reports in the system and you have access to all root-level folders. What would be the best way to locate the report?
A. Browse the folders and categories
B. Filter
C. Report off the CMS database
D. Use the Advanced feature of the Search function
400-251 vce 
Answer: D

Question: 21
A Web Intelligence document is a report object that is created from a universe data source over the web through the InfoView interface. A Web Intelligence document can be published to the BusinessObjects Enterprise environment in one or more ways. Select the best answer from the list below.
A. Web Intelligence documents can be published by using Save As in InfoView through the Organize Objects or Folders areas of the Central Management Console or by using the BusinessObjects Publishing Wizard.
B. Web Intelligence documents can be published only by using Save As in InfoView because they only exist inside the BusinessObjects Enterprise environment.
C. Web Intelligence documents can be published by using Save As in InfoView or through the Organize Objects or Folders areas of the Central Management Console.
Answer: B

Question: 22
Which three authentication systems does the BusinessObjects Enterprise support with Single Sign-On (SSO) feature? (Choose three.)
A. Windows NT
B. Windows NT with SiteMinder
C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) with SiteMinder

D. Windows Active Directory (AD)
400-251 exam 
Answer: A, C, D

Question: 23
Which three benefits can users realize from a well-designed content and system management plan? (Choose three.)
A. User license counts are never exceeded.
B. Only required information appears in report objects.
C. Locating reports and other objects is simple.
D. Information is current.
Answer: B, C, D

Question: 24
Which three problems can users encounter as a result of a poorly-designed content and system management plan? (Choose three.)
A. Required information is not visible in report objects.
B. Named user license counts are exceeded.
C. Information is not current.
D. Reports and other objects take too long to locate.
400-251 dumps 
Answer: A, C, D

Question: 25
What are two of the major steps that you must perform when creating a logical content plan for your BusinessObjects Enterprise implementation? (Choose two.)
A. Create BusinessObjects Enterprise server groups based on geographical considerations.
B. Specify group access levels for folders and objects.
C. Organize users into functional groups.
D. Create profiles for encyclopedia distribution.
Answer: B, C

Question: 26
When you move a folder, the objects within are also moved. What happens to the folder’s object rights?
A. The folder rights are set to the default View for Everyone.
B. The folder rights are set to the default Full Control for the Administrators group.
C. The folder retains the object rights of the original.
D. The folder inherits the object rights set on the new parent folder.
400-251 pdf 
Answer: C
 400-251 dumps

See What Our Customers Are Saying:

We at Pass4itsure are committed to our customer’s success. There are 50,000+ customers who used this preparation material for the preparation of various certification exams and this number of customers is enough for new candidates to trust in these products.Our Cisco 400-251 dumps are created with utmost care and professionalism. We utilize the experience and knowledge of a team of industry professionals from leading organizations all over the world.
400-251 dumps
Pass4itsure is a website which can help you quickly pass the Cisco certification 400-251 dumps exam. Pass4itsure Cisco certification 400-251 CCIE Security questions and answers pdf is designed and ready by Pass4itsure IT experts. “CCIE Security Written Exam (v5.0)”, also known as 400-251 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 400-251 dumps exam questions answers are updated (520 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 400-251 dumps is CCIE Security. Pass4itsure Cisco certification https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-251.html dumps CCIE Security questions and answers pdf help you take advantage of the continuous development of technology to improve the ability to solve problems, and improve your job satisfaction.

Read More Youtube: https://youtu.be/YbeaZVr6TIo
pass4itsure 400-251 dumps
Compared with other brands, Pass4itsure has up to dated exam information, affordable price, instant exam PDF files downloaded, error correction, unlimited install,etc. Such as Pass4itsure Cisco 400-251 Dumps Exam Test Questions, Sale Latest Cisco 400-251 Dumps Study Guides Is What You Need To Take, We Help You Pass CCIE Security Written Exam (v5.0).  Simple and Easy! To take advantage of the guarantee, simply contact Customer Support, requesting the exam you would like to claim. Pass4itsure guarantee insures your success otherwise get your MONEYBACK!

 

CCIE, Cisco

What should I practice to have a good preparation in Cisco 400-101 dumps exam? The CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam (400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching) exam is a 120 Minutes (90 – 110 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with CCIE Routing and Switching certification. Most popular Cisco 400-101 dumps CCIE Routing and Switching exam demo Youtube try with low price. “CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 400-101 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 400-101 exam. Interactive practice test that can be downloaded and installed on any Windows Operating System. Interactive practice test operates as a realistic simulation of the real Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert Routing and Switching https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-101.html dumps certification exam.

[2018-1-NEWS Cisco 400-101 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWczJDVzl1SUJLWms

[2018-1-NEWS Cisco 400-151 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWbTFibUcwbXBkZms
400-101 dumps
Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-101 Dumps Exam (20-33)Q&As:
Question No : 20 – (Topic 1) Which circumstance can cause packet loss due to a microburst?
A. slow convergence
B. a blocked spanning-tree port
C. process switching
D. insufficient buffers
400-101 exam 
Answer: D
Explanation:
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the network. Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shown as accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative of receive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to data bursts coming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds).

Question No : 21 – (Topic 1)
Which three features require Cisco Express Forwarding? (Choose three.)
A. NBAR
B. AutoQoS
C. fragmentation
D. MPLS
E. UplinkFast
F. BackboneFast
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QoS Features That Require CEF
These class-based QoS features are supported only on routers that run CEF.
•Network Based Application Recognition (NBAR) provides intelligent network classification. For more information, refer to Network Based Application Recognition.
• The AutoQoS -VoIP feature simplifies and speeds up the implementation and provisioning of QoS for VoIP traffic. This feature is enabled with the help of the auto qos voip command. CEF must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC before the auto qos command can be used. For more information about this feature and its prerequisites, refer to AutoQoS – VoIP.
Why Is CEF Needed in MPLS Networks?
Concerning MPLS, CEF is special for a certain reason; otherwise, this book would not explicitly cover it. Labeled packets that enter the router are switched according to the label forwarding information base (LFIB) on the router. IP packets that enter the router are switched according to the CEF table on the router. Regardless of whether the packet is switched according to the LFIB or the CEF table, the outgoing packet can be a labeled packet or an IP packet

Question No : 22 – (Topic 1) Which option is the most effective action to avoid packet loss due to microbursts?
A. Implement larger buffers.
B. Install a faster CPU.
C. Install a faster network interface.
D. Configure a larger tx-ring size.
400-101 dumps 
Answer: A
Explanation:
You can’t avoid or prevent them as such without modifying the sending host’s application/network stack so it smoothes out the bursts. However, you can manage microbursts by tuning the size of receive buffers / rings to absorb occasional microbursts.
Question No : 23 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps Which statement about the debug behavior of the device is true?
A. The device debugs all IP events for 172.16.129.4.
B. The device sends all debugging information for 172.16.129.4.
C. The device sends only NTP debugging information to 172.16.129.4.
D. The device sends debugging information every five seconds.
Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
Which statement about the effect of this configuration is true ?
A. The 192.168.2.1/24 network is summarized and advertised as 192.168.2.0/24
B. The 192.168.2.1/32 network appears in the route table on R1 ,but it is missing from its OSPF database.
C. The 192.168.2.1/32 network is missing from the OSPF database and the route table on R1.
D. The 192.168.2.1/32 network appears in the Rl OSPF database , but it is missing from its route table.
400-101 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
What is wrong with the configuration of this tunnel interface ?
A. ISATAP tunnels cannot use the EUI-64 address format.
B. The tunnel source of an ISATAP tunnel must always point to a loopback interface.
C. Router advertisements are disabled on this tunnel interface.
D. No tunnel destination has been specified.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 26
Which two statements about IGMP filtering are true?
A. It eliminates the need for a multicast RP.
B. It can be implemented on Layer-3 routed ports using the ipigmp access-list command.
C. It allows Anycast RP to operate within a single AS.
D. It supports IGMPv3 traffic only
E. It can be implemented on Layer-2 switchports using IGMP profiles.
400-101 vce 
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
What are two ways DHCPv6 guard can mitigate man-in-the-middle attacks?
A. An interface in the server device role can use ACLs to filter authorized servers.
B. An interface in the server device role can drop all DHCPv6 server messages.
C. An interface in the client device role can use ACLs to filter authorized servers.
D. An interface in the server device role can use prefix-lists to filter authorized DCHP reply messages.
E. An interface in the client device role blocks all DCHPv6 server messages by default.
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 28
You are the project manager of the BHG Project. You are creating a network diagram as shown in the figure:
Mary, a project team member, reports that an identified risk is likely to happen in the project that will affect the completion date of Activity D . She reports that the risk event will likely cause the duration of the activity to increase by six days. If this happens what is the earliest the project can complete?
A. 32 days
B. 29 days
C. 27 days
D. 26 days
400-101 exam 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If Activity D increases by six days, the duration of the project will not change. There is 11 days of float available for Activity D so it may delay by six days without affecting the project end date. What is float? Float or total float (TF) is the total amount of time that a schedule activity may be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project finish date, or violating a schedule constraint. It is calculated by using the critical path method technique and determining the difference between the early finish dates and late finish dates.
Answer options A, B, and C are incorrect. These are not valid answers for the question.

QUESTION 29
Sam is the project manager of the NQQ project. He and the project team have completed the stakeholder identification process for his project. What is the main output of the identify stakeholders process?
A. Communications management plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Requirements
D. Stakeholder management strategy
400-101 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to the PMBOK, the main output of the identify stakeholders process is the stakeholder register. The stakeholder register is a project management document that contains a list of the stakeholders associated with the project. It assesses how they are involved in the project and identifies what role they play in the organization. The information in this document can be very perceptive and is meant for limited exchange only. It also contains relevant information about the stakeholders, such as their requirements, expectations, and influence on the project. Answer option A is incorrect. The communications management plan is an output of communications planning. Answer option D is incorrect. The stakeholder management strategy is an output of stakeholder identification, but it is not the main output. Answer option C is incorrect. Requirements are not an output of the stakeholder identification process.

QUESTION 30
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Management has asked you not to communicate performance unless the CPI is less than 0.96 or the SPI dips below 0.98. What type of report would you create for management, if these instances develop in your project?
A. Cost variance report
B. Exceptions report
C. Performance management report
D. Schedule variance report

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The best answer is simply an exception report. An exception report refers and documents the major mistakes, mishaps, and goofs. In other words, it itemizes the important and critically significant piece of documentation that is vital to the proper and effective functioning of a project. It does not document what has gone right, but rather documents what has gone wrong. Answer option C is incorrect. A performance management report is not a valid project management report. Answer option A is incorrect. The question is asked about cost and schedule so this answer would not be appropriate for both the cost and the schedule. Answer option D is incorrect. The question is asked about cost and schedule so this answer would not be appropriate for both the cost and the schedule.

QUESTION 31
You are the project manager of the HQQ Project. Your project is running late by ten percent of where you should be at this time. Management is concerned. Considering that the project has a BAC of $567,899, you are thirty percent complete, and you have spent $179,450. What is this project’s to- complete performance index based on the current BAC?
A. 1.02
B. 0.010
C. 0.75
D. 0.95
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This project is not performing well on schedule, but moderately well on costs. The project’s TCPI based on the current BAC is 1.02. To-complete Performance Index (TCPI) is the measured projection of the anticipated performance required to achieve either the BAC or the EAC. TCPI indicates the future required cost efficiency needed to achieve a target EAC (Estimate At Complete).Once approved, the EAC supersedes the BAC as the cost performance goal. Any significant difference between TCPI and the CPI needed to meet the EAC should be accounted for by management in their forecast of the final cost. The formula for TCPI is as follows:
TCPI = {(BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC)}
Answer option D is incorrect. 0.95 is the project’s TCPI value based on the estimate at completion. Answer option C is incorrect. 0.75 is the project’s schedule performance index. Answer option B is incorrect. 0.010 is not a valid calculation.

QUESTION 32
Andy works as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. He is developing the schedule for the project. There are eight tools and techniques that a project manager can use to develop the project schedule. Which of the following is a tool and technique for the Schedule Development process?
A. Schedule compression
B. Reserve analysis
C. Variance analysis
D. Expert judgment
400-101 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Schedule compression is a tool used as part of the Schedule Development process. The tools and techniques for schedule development are as follows:
Schedule network analysis
Critical path method
Critical chain method
Resource leveling
What-if scenario analysis
Applying leads and lags
Schedule compression
Scheduling tool
Answer options D, B, and C are incorrect. These are not tools and techniques for schedule development.

QUESTION 33
You are the project manager for your organization. You have recorded the following duration estimates for an activity in your project: optimistic 20, most likely 45, pessimistic 90. What time will you record for this activity?
A. 48
B. 20o, 45m, 90p
C. 90
D. 45
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This is an example of a three-point estimate. A three-point estimate records the optimistic, most likely, and the pessimistic duration, and then records an average for the predicted duration Three-point estimate is a way to enhance the accuracy of activity duration estimates. This concept is originated with the Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT). PERT charts the following three estimates: Most likely (TM): The duration of activity based on realistic factors such as resources assigned, interruptions, etc. Optimistic (TO): The activity duration based on the best-case scenario Pessimistic (TP): The activity duration based on the worst-case scenario The expected (TE) activity duration is a weighted average of these three estimates:
TE = (TO + 4TM + TP) / 6 Duration estimates based on the above equations (sometimes simple average of the three estimates is also used) provide more accuracy. It can be calculated as follows:
TE = ( 20 + 45*4 + 90) / 6
= 290/6
=48
Answer options B, C, and D are incorrect. These are not the valid answers for this question.

400-101 dumps

Pass4itsure allows the candidate to determine their strength and area of 400-101 dumps practice. “CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam”, also known as 400-101 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 400-101 dumps exam questions answers are updated (399 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 400-101 dumps is CCIE Routing and Switching. One time purchase you can get the 400-101 practice tests and PDF. Pass4itsure provides a totally secure platform for Cisco 400-101 exam. With the help of the practice test software, the candidate can check their https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-101.html dumps exam preparation progress and can improve their Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert Routing and Switching Certification Exam.

Read More Youtube: https://youtu.be/PyNCK41BG10

CCNA Cyber Ops, Cisco

Who has the valid new Cisco 210-255 dumps exam? The Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations (210-255 SECOPS) exam is a 90 Minutes (60 – 70 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNA Cyber Ops certification. Latest valid Cisco 210-255 dumps SECOPS exam questions with verified 210–255 dumps pdf-answers video training.”Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 210-255 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 210-255 exam.

Cisco certified professionals must try to validate their skills and knowledge about Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations exam. For this https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-255.html dumps exam is the most suitable one. It not only validates your knowledge but also prepare you to face the complex challenges in IT field. Here, candidates can get Cisco 210-255 questions answers that are prepared by the expert faculty.

[2017-12-NEWS Cisco 210-255 Dumps From Google Drive]:  https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWOXlNazlKRi1GcFU

[2017-12-NEWS Cisco 200-150 Dumps From Google Drive]:  https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWTi1YUDlKM3U3R1U

210-255 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-255 Dumps Exam Q&As:

1.Where are the properties for the Event Server stored?
A.In the boot.ini file on the machine where the Event Server is running
B.In the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C.In the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) bootstrap file
D.In the Event Server service properties
210-255 exam Answer:B
2.Which three are benefits to the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)? (Choose three.)
A.Security
B.Administrative accessibility
C.Email notification
D.Reliability
Answer:A B D
3.Which web language was used to develop InfoView?
A.Perl
B.Java
C.PHP
D.C++
210-255 dumps Answer:B
4.How do you set-up a configuration template for a Web Intelligence Processing Server?
A.Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to the Server Template area and click on Add New Template.
B.Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to properties of the specific server and click on Add New Template.
C.Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to the Server Template area and click on Set Configuration Template.
D.Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to properties of the specific server and click on Set Configuration Template.
Answer:D
5.Which type of file does the replication process use to transfer content?
A.BIAR
B.REP
C.Binary
D.BOMain
210-255 pdf Answer:A
6.Which replication object would you schedule?
A.Replication Job
B.Replication List
C.Replication Connection
D.Replication Package
Answer:A
7.Which three application servers can you deploy Web Archive (WAR) files to using wdeploy? (Choose three.)
A.Oracle Containers for J2EE
B.SAP Netweaver

C.JRun
D.Sun Java Application Server
210-255 vce Answer:A B D
8.Which directory is the bootstrap file saved in by default on the Windows platform?
A.Web Services
B.Logging
C.FileStore
D.Win32_x86
Answer:D
9.Four users in the Human Resources department and six users in the Finance department need to edit existing Web Intelligence documents. How would you set-up a secure folder structure for the different departments so that each group of users can edit existing Web Intelligence documents?
A.Modify advanced rights on all groups.
B.Apply a predefined access level to all folders.
C.Create a custom access level and apply it to all folders.
D.Modify advanced rights on a top level folder.
210-255 exam Answer:C
10.What do you see when you view a Crystal Report instance that has both saved data and two successful instances?
A.The latest data from the database
B.The oldest data from the database
C.The oldest successful instance
D.The newest successful instance
Answer:D
11.A user belongs to both Group 1 and Group 2 and you want that user to see a specific folder. What folder security settings would you use to enable the user to view the folder?
A.Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2 and also not specified for the Everyone group
B.Set the view right to denied for Group 1 and granted for Group 2
C.Set the view right to not specified for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2
D.Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and denied for Group 2
E.Create a custom access level and grant for Group 1 and deny for Group 2
210-255 dumps Answer:A
12.What action would the Deployment Diagnostic Tool take when an InfoObject exists in the Central Management Server (CMS) system database, but the corresponding file cannot be found in the File Repository Server (FRS)?
A.Remove the InfoObject from the Central Management Server (CMS) system database, unless otherwise specified.
B.Create a blank report as a placeholder.
C.Notify the user to republish the object.
D.Reassign the InfoObject to a new file.
Answer:A
13.What is the difference between one-way replication and two-way replication?
A.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
  content only travels from Destination site to Origin site.
B.In one-way replication, content only travels from Destination site to Origin site. In two-way replication, content can travel from Origin site to Destination site, or from Destination site to Origin site.
C.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication, content also travels only from Origin site to Destination site but this operation can happen more than once.
D.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication, content also travels from Origin site to Destination site but this operation can happen more than once.
210-255 pdf Answer:D
14.Which statement is true of a single Replication Job?
A.Has two or more origin sites and no destination sites
B.Has only one origin site and only one destination site
C.Has one or more origin sites and only one destination site
D.Has one or more origin sites and possibly many destination sites
Answer:B
15.You are migrating content into a new system. Which task must you perform to maintain the system integrity (CUID)?
A.Define the LDAP configuration
B.List the groups to be migrated
C.Define custom security settings
D.List the active content folders
210-255 vce Answer:A
16.Which three parameters can you specify in the command line for wdeploy? (Choose three.)
A.Web Server Type
B.CMS Administrator Username
C.Deployment Parameters
D.Deployment Actions
Answer:A C D
17.In which two locations could you configure the port numbers for the local Central Management Server (CMS)? (Choose two.)
A.In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Startup tab for the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)
B.In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Configuration tab for the CMS
C.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Server settings for the CMS
D.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) settings
210-255 exam Answer:A C
18.Which servers should you examine if you are unable to schedule a Web Intelligence document? (Choose three.)
A.Web Intelligence Processing Server
B.Connection Server
C.Adaptive Job Server
D.Output File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer:A C D
19.How do you change the system database properties for the Central Management Server (CMS)?
A.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is
  pointing to the remote CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Configuration tab.
B.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is pointing to the local CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Startup tab.
C.Select the CMS in the Central Management Console (CMC), stop the service and go to the Configuration tab.
D.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA), which is pointing to the local CMS, stop the service and go to the Configuration tab.
210-255 dumps Answer:D
20.Where do you configure the Login action for Desktop Intelligence users in a 3-tier mode?
A.Under Settings in the Desktop Intelligence client
B.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence Cache Server
C.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Central Management Server (CMS)
D.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence application
Answer:C
21. As the Global Administrator of a CA Performance Management instance that hosts three tenants, you are only able to see two of the five available SNMP profiles. Why are you unable to view all five profiles?
A. Because in this instance,two profiles are associated with the tenant you are currently administering
B. Because Global Administrators typically need to refresh the screen before the full set of profiles appear
C. Because the Global Administrator must change an entry in the SNMP_549.xml file to see all SNMP profiles
D. Because the tenant administrators must change the permission of the SNMP profiles that they manage to enable the Global Administrator to see them
210-255 pdf Answer: A
22. If you register a Data Aggregator data source, a system group named Collections will appear in
CA Performance Center. Which feature characterizes collections?
A. They are always modifiable.
B. They are generally only used for report organization.
C. They are not tenant-specific but are always global in scope.
D. They are primarily used to control monitoring behavior using rules specified in monitoring
profiles.
Answer: A
23. When you create or edit a monitoring profile, you can use the Change Detection Rate option to set the frequency at which the Data Aggregator checks for changes. When you set the rate of detection, the Automatically Update Metric Families check box is selected by default. What happens if you clear this check box?
A. The Change Detection Rate field will no longer be editable.
B. The automatic updating of metric families will continue unless you also change settings for  specific metric families.
C. The Data Aggregator will continue to automatically monitor new components but will no longer retire old components.
D. The Events Display dashboard will need to be monitored and updates will need to be performed manually on the Polled Metric Families page.
210-255 vce Answer: D
24. How do you launch the New Vendor Certification wizard?
A. On the Inventory tab,right-click a device and click Import MIB.
B. In the Data Aggregator source,on the Vendor Certifications page,click New.
C. Use Web Services to import the vendor NIB and assign it to a particular metric family.
D. On the Vendor Certification dashboard,right-click an unassigned vendor certification and assign it to an unsupported device.
Answer: B
25. Which statement is FALSE?
A. The groups assigned to your user account determine the data you can view on dashboards.
B. A best practice is to create groups to meet strategicIT objectives rather than business objectives.
C. In the Groups tree,Service Provider Global Groups contain items not explicitly associated with a tenant IP domain.
D. Users can use the section of the Groups tree below their permission groups to change the data
context for summary or group dashboards.
210-255 exam Answer: B

210-255 dumps

This study guide is designed as per Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations test engine with free 210-255 dumps. Choose the most eligible site that offers the online services of for all type of CCNA Cyber Ops 210-255 practice exam and Cisco 210-255 test questions. It is quite obvious that passing this Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations exam is not a simple piece of paper writing. It needs extreme expert choice along with great https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-255.html dumps proficiency.

Cisco 210-255 Dumps Youtube:  https://youtu.be/aShIWlc0bSM

IBM, IBM News

IBM launched its first POWER9 system, which positioned as “AI and cognitive workloads of a game-changing power station” – The benefits of artificial intelligence and cognitive computing and based on the same architecture as the Department of Energy’s Coral supercomputer summit and Sylar. The new system also supports the Nvlink 2.0 and OPENCAPI protocols, which provide up to 10x of PCI 3.0 maximum bandwidth based on x86 systems.  According to Sumit Gupta, vice president of of AI and HPC within IBM’s Cognitive Systems business unit think tha The  design concept the POWER9 is that it will work as a peer processor for a peer or other processor. Whether it’s a GPU accelerator, an FPGA, or any other accelerator on the market, our goal is to provide links and hooks so that all these accelerators can be developed equally on the server.

IBM

The new AC922 server is on two Power9 CPUs between four and six Nvidia Tesla V100 Nvlink GPU. The AC922 extends many of the design elements introduced in the Power8 “Minsky” box and focuses on enabling connections to a range of accelerators (Nvidia GPU, ASIC, FPGA, and PCIe connected devices)-using a series of interfaces. Power9 the consistency introduced by CAPI and Nvlink 2.0 is another key enabler code. AC922 solves these problems, allowing accelerated applications to use system memory as GPU memory. This reduces latency and simplifies programming by eliminating data movement and location requirements. The AC922 server can be configured with either four or six Nvidia Volta V100 GPUs. According to IBM, a four GPU air-cooled version will be available December 22 and both four- and six-GPU water-cooled options are expected to follow in the second quarter of 2018.

Thousands of AC922 nodes, along with storage and network connectivity, drive about 200 in Oak Ridge and 120 1.271 of 1.271. As King pointed out in our interview, only one of the original CORAL contractors is fulfilling its mission to deliver a “pre-exascale” supercomputer to the collaboration of US labs. Sano praised “IBM’s progress in the development of the latest energy technologies” and said that “the POWER9 Opencapi Bus and high-capacity memory feature allow for further innovation opportunities in Google data center.”

IBM

IBM is also being leveraged by Google, and it’s working with partner Rackspace to build a server called Zaius Power9 processor. IBM do see their strong appeal, but there are many other factors that are working. They have solutions that, after a very fast-growing AI space, our solution will be done after the open source database NoSQL the data center and Have announced cooperation with Nutanix to hyperconverged space which  see the HyperScale market as “a good capacity opportunity”, and clearly aware of the impact of bulk pricing on the traditional server market. So we have a lot of different elements that drive the number and opportunities of power servers on our Linux, including of course SAP’s Hannah.

IBM will also sell POWER9 chips through its openpower ecosystem, which now contains 300 members. Three versions of the POWER9 chip will be deployed in 2019. There will be an amplified processor, which is a traditional chip for AIX and high-end space, and then another that will provide more acceleration with enhanced memory and built-in other features; we’re working with other memory providers.

Before the Power8 began to fall in the second year, Capabilities like Nutanix and building Powerai and other software-based solutions have led to some bounce, which is still negative. The pricing or at least price perception is a problem with Power8. For traditional market, I think pricing is competitive; for some of the new markets we’re trying to get into, such as the Hyperscaler data center, I think we have some work to do. It’s really a TCO and a price-performance competitiveness versus price only. And we think we’re going to have a much better price performance competitiveness with Power9 in the hyperscalers and some of the low-end Linux spaces that are really the new market.

IBM

We are very confident that we are building a lot of workloads on top of this architecture, we will see more growth, Power9 positive growth, powerai with Nutanix some other workloads we’ve put it there, it won’t be the only reason for a hardware. This will be the bulk of the software features we build on the platform and support more new workloads. In the next two or three years–it’s a huge hockey stick–we’ve built and designed POWER9 markets, especially for that market Over the next few months and years, more power9-based servers will follow IBM and its ecosystem partners.

IBM
Read More IBM News:https://www.hpcwire.com/2017/12/06/ibm-begins-power9-rollout-backing-doe-google/

Microsoft, Windows Server 2012

Has anyone taken Microsoft 70-411 dumps? “Administering Windows Server 2012” also known as 70-411 exam, is a Microsoft certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Latest Microsoft 70 411 dumps practice exam questions for MCSE certification with Youtube study guide. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-411 dumps exam questions answers are updated (234 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 70-411 dumps is Windows Server 2012. Test your preparation for 70-411 Microsoft MCSE Certification exam with these actual https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-411.html dumps questions below. Practice questions are a sure method to validate ones preparation for actual certification exam.

Exam Code: 70-411
Exam Name: Administering Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 234

[2017-11-NEWS Other Microsoft 70-742 Dumps From Google Drive]:  https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWZDZVWjB6Wno5dzg

[2017-11-NEWS Other Microsoft 70-743 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWeGVCOE9QRi1EaWs

70-411 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-411 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to configure Server1 to create an entry in an event log when the processor usage exceeds 60 percent. Which type of data collector should you create?
A. An event trace data collector
B. A performance counter alert
C. A performance counter data collector
D. A configuration data collector
70-411 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Your company deploys a new Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The first domain controller in the forest runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The forest contains a domain controller named DC10. On DC10, the disk that contains the SYSVOL folder fails. You replace the failed disk. You stop the Distributed File System (DFS) Replication service. You restore the SYSVOL folder. You need to perform a non-authoritative synchronization of SYSVOL on DC10. Which tool should you use before you start the DFS Replication service on DC10?
A. Dfsgui.msc
B. Dfsmgmt.msc
C. Adsiedit.msc
D. Ldp
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 P.2. Server1 has the Network Policy and Access Services server role installed. Your company’s security policy requires that certificate-based authentication must be used by some network services.
You need to identify which Network Policy Server (NPS) authentication methods comply with the security policy.
Which two authentication methods should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. MS-CHAP
B. PEAP-MS-CHAP v2
C. Chap
D. EAP-TLS
E. MS-CHAP v2
70-411 dumps Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 4
You have a cluster named Cluster1 that contains two nodes. Both nodes run Windows Server 2012 R2. Cluster1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You configure a custom service on VM1 named Service1. You need to ensure that VM1 will be moved to a different node if Service1 fails. Which cmdlet should you run on Cluster1?
A. Add-ClusterVmMonitoredItem
B. Add-ClusterGenericServiceRole
C. Set-ClusterResourceDependency
D. Enable VmResourceMetering
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and fabrikam.com. All of the DNS servers in both of the domains run Windows Server 2012 R2. The network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2. Server1 hosts an Active Directory integrated zone for contoso.com. Server2 hosts an Active Directory-integrated zone for fabrikam.com. Server1 and Server2 connect to each other by using a WAN link. Client computers that connect to Server1 for name resolution cannot resolve names in fabrikam.com. You need to configure Server1 to resolve names in fabrikam.com. The solution must NOT require that changes be made to the fabrikam.com zone on Server2. What should you create?
A. A trust anchor
B. A stub zone
C. A zone delegation
D. A secondary zone
70-411 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains 10 domain controllers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You plan to create a new Active Directory-integrated zone named contoso.com. You need to ensure that the new zone will be replicated to only four of the domain controllers. What should you do first?
A. Create an application directory partition.
B. Create an Active Directory connection object.
C. Create an Active Directory site link.
D. Change the zone replication scope.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Windows Server Update Services server role installed. Server1 stores update files locally in C:\Updates.  You need to change the location in which the update files are stored to D:\Updates. What should you do?
A. From the Update Services console, run the Windows Server Update Services Configuration Wizard.
B. From a command prompt, run wsusutil.exe and specify the movecontent parameter.
C. From the Update Services console, configure the Update Files and Languages option.
D. From a command prompt, run wsusutil.exe and specify the export parameter.
70-411 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Remote Access server role installed. On Server1, you create a network policy named Policy1. You need to configure Policy1 to ensure that users are added to a VLAN. Which attributes should you add to Policy1?
A. Tunnel-Tag, Tunnel-Password, Tunnel-Medium-Type, and Tunnel-Preference
B. Tunnel-Tag, Tunnel-Server-Auth-ID, Tunnel-Preference, and Tunnel-Pvt-Group-ID
C. Tunnel-Type, Tunnel-Tag, Tunnel-Medium-Type, and Tunnel-Pvt-Group-ID
D. Tunnel-Type, Tunnel-Password, Tunnel-Server-Auth-ID, and Tunnel-Pvt-Group-ID
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains domain controllers that run Windows Server 2008, Windows Server 2008 R2 Windows Server 2012, and Windows Server 2012 R2. A domain controller named DC1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2. DC1 is backed up daily. During routine maintenance, you delete a group named Group1. You need to recover Group1 and identify the names of the users who were members of Group1 prior to its deletion. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do first?
A. Perform an authoritative restore of Group1.
B. Mount the most recent Active Directory backup.
C. Use the Recycle Bin to restore Group1.
D. Reactivate the tombstone of Group1.
70-411 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You enable and configure Routing and Remote Access (RRAS) on Server1. You create a user account named User1. You need to ensure that User1 can establish VPN connections to Server1. What should you do?
A. Modify the members of the Remote Management Users group.
B. Add a RADIUS client.
C. Modify the Dial-in setting of User1.
D. Create a connection request policy.
Correct Answer: C

These 70-411 dumps Microsoft MCSE Certification exam questions are all a small selection of questions. If you want to practice more questions for actual https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-411.html dumps exam use the links the end of this document.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/hbtUHekRVos

Microsoft, Microsoft SharePoint Applications

How can I get valid Microsoft 70-488 dumps study guide for passing the Microsoft exam? “Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions” is the name of Microsoft 70-488 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. New updated Microsoft 70-488 dumps certification exam video with latest version pdf&vce. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-488 dumps exam questions answers are updated (131 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 70-488 dumps is Microsoft SharePoint Applications. Microsoft Pass4itsure is the industry leader known for quality and reliability of its Computer Technology Industry Association practice exam and other https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-488.html dumps resources.

Exam Code: 70-488
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions
Q&As: 131

[2017-11-NEWS Microsoft 70-488 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWWlNMMFR1Nm82b0E

[2017-11-NEWS Microsoft 70-346 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWUW5ITWJYd1lUZHc

70-488 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-488 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 73
S5600 control panel box must be safe FC hard disk or SSD hard disk (S5300 and S5500 control
box control boxes do not have this requirement), control box, hard disk drives and other types of
hard disk box for SATA hard drives or FC drives or SSD drives.
A. True
B. False
70-488 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 74
How many hard drives to create a complete RAID5 requires at least?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 75
SSDs Compared to traditional mechanical hard drives advantages excluding Which?
A. Higher IOPS
B. Larger capacity
C. Low noise
D. Less prone to mechanical wear
70-488 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 76
Upgrade for S5000 need to upgrade SES, and then upgrade the controller software
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 77
In S5000T product features can be completed without interruption of business are. (Choose three)
A. Expand storage capacity
B. Hardware module upgrades
C. Online Upgrade
D. A copy of the full amount LUN
70-488 pdf Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 78
Full range of products in accordance with the storage location and classification, which of the
following products do not belong to the network storage products? (Choose two)
A. S2600
B. CSS
C. iNVS
D. S5000 S5000T
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 79
After storing the file import license, you need to reboot the array
A. True
B. False
70-488 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 80
After the windows system scan to LUN storage resources, you first need to initialize the LUN
space operations.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 81
Network storage system includes morphological SAS, NAS, SAN.
A. True
B. False
70-488 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 82
Fibre Channel protocol support topology what? (Choose three)
A. Point
B. Switched
C. Hybrid
D. Arbitrated loop
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 83
The following are journaled file system? (Choose three)
A. fat32
B. ntfs
C. jfs
D. xfs
70-488 dumps Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 84
In S5000T, for example, the principle of fault diagnosis for storage devices: (Choose three)
A. First diagnosis of external factors,internal factors after diagnosis.
B. First diagnosis overall,partial diagnosis.
C. First analysis of high-level alarm,low level alarm after analysis.
D. First check service after checking storage
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 85
S5000T redundant disk array control module includes box: (Choose three)
A. Backplane Modules
B. Controller Module
C. The battery module
D. Power – Fan Module
70-488 pdf Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 86
Optical fiber cables, including: (Choose three)
A. Core
B. Cladding
C. Shield
D. Cover
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 87
iSCSI host adapter (HBA) is responsible for implementing iSCSI layer and the TCP / IP protocol
stack functionality
A. True
B. False
70-488 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 88
About SUSE 10.0 under the open iSCSI service operation is correct: (Choose three)
A. rcopen-iscsi start
B. / etc / init.d / open-iscsi stop
C. / etc / init.d / open-iscsi status
D. / etc / init.d / iscsi restart
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 89
In the same RAID group, allowing simultaneous failure of two members of the panel and still full
RAID -level data may have () (Choose three)
A. RAID1
B. RAID 6
C. RAID 5
D. RAID01
70-488 exam Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 90
Master Boot Record (MBR) partition supports a maximum volume of 2 PB
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 91
NAS server does not support the agreement are:
A. ftp
B. iSCSI
C. CIFS
D. NFS
70-488 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 92
The role of multi- path software: (Choose three)
A. High Availability
B. Load Balancing
C. Active I / O path testing and automatic path to recovery
D. Improve reading array cache hit rate
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 93
Linux mount the file system under which command?
A. umount
B. mount
C. mout
D. unmount
70-488 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 94
In the same S5000T storage system, you cannot set multiple hot spare
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 95
The following hardware instead of using the FC protocol to communicate is:
A. iSCSI card
B. FC drives
C. FC switch
D. FC HBA card
70-488 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 96
Which of the following operating systems are Linux system? (Choose three)
A. WSS
B. SLES
C. RHEL
D. CentOS
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 97
RAID5 disk utilization levels of RAID group (N: number of member disks):
A. N / (N-1)
B. 100%
C. (N-1) / N
D. 1 / (2N)
70-488 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 98
SAN storage system power down operations require strict accordance with the instructions, the
power-up sequence is generally: hard disk storage box – storage control box – switch – server ;
under the power-up sequence is generally: Confirm hosting business stop – next server power –
switch power off – the control box under the power – the hard frame power ;
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 99
If the S2600 is full with 12 hard drives, it is recommended to configure several RAID group
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
70-488 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 100
The old version has been installed on the application server UltraPath for Windows; a new version
of UltraPath for Windows can perform an upgrade installation directly
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 101
Direct Connect networking advantages S5000T description right there () (Choose two)
A. Network build low cost;
B. Proprietary data channel can ensure maximum throughput applications between servers and
storage devices
C. Not fully utilize the storage capacity of the device is connected
D. Multiple servers to share data on the disk array
70-488 pdf Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 102
Which of the following documents are Open-iSCSI default configuration file:
A. / etc / iscsi / iscsid.conf
B. / etc / iscsi / initiatorname.iscsi
C. / etc / iscsi / send_targets
D. / etc / iscsi / nodes
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 103
T3200/T3500 G2 does not support cascading, networking is very simple, two business
management network port and an Ethernet port to connect to the switch via the network cable.
A. True
B. False
70-488 vce Answer: A

At Pass4itsure senior specialists and experts from all-over join to engineer state of the art Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions 70-488 dumps practice testing software, Questions and Answers and like products for your best exam preparation. Our practice exam covers all the technical skills and knowledge required to successfully complete your Microsoft https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-488.html dumps certification, all that at industry low cost.
Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/-_BHXZPHYww

CompTIA, Security+

Is CompTIA SY0-101 dumps exam really hard? “SECURITY+ CERTIFICATION” is the name of CompTIA SY0-101 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real CompTIA exam. Free download real CompTIA Security+ SY0-101 dumps exam q&as 100% pass with a high score youtube training. Pass4itsure CompTIA SY0-101 dumps exam questions answers are updated (600 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of SY0-101 dumps is CompTIA Security+. The qualification can come up along with the considerable https://www.pass4itsure.com/SY0-101.html dumps practice test clearing techniques that provides an easy way to pave the difficult task.

Exam Code: SY0-101
Exam Name: SECURITY+ CERTIFICATION
Q&As: 600

[2017-11-NEWS CompTIA SY0-101 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1UbxjiLfwbMkhK-tJZXxrgjaZN6Qh3VBH

[2017-11-NEWS JK0-016 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1N4BFOCf4jtaow1miQwWkz4UhXkZ2I1Za

SY0-101 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate CompTIA SY0-101 Dumps Exam Q&As:

1. A VPN typically provides a remote access link from one host to another over:
A. an intranet.
B. a modem.
C. a network interface card.
D. the Internet.
SY0-101 exam Answer: D
2. IPSec uses which of the following protocols to provide traffic security? (Select TWO).
A. SSH
B. AH
C. PPTP
D. SSL E.
L2TP
F. Encapsulating Security Protocol (ESP)
Answer: BF
3. The employees at a company are using instant messaging on company networked computers. The
MOST important security issue to address when using instant messaging is that instant messaging:
A. communications are a drain on bandwidth.
B. communications are open and unprotected.
C. has no common protocol.
D. uses weak encryption.
SY0-101 dumps Answer: B
4. Which of the following would be BEST to do when network file sharing is needed? (Select TWO).
A. Allow read permissions only for unauthenticated users.
B. Create local users who have no access to the shares.
C. Allow access to administrators only.
D. Place the share on a different volume than the operating system.

E. Set a disk quota.
Answer: DE
5. Which of the following programming techniques should be used to prevent buffer overflow attacks?
A. Input validation
B. Nested loops
C. Signed applets
D. Automatic updates
SY0-101 pdf Answer:A
6. A large company wants to deploy an FTP server to support file transfers between business customers
and partners. Which of the following should the security specialist consider before making these changes?
A. FTP can be deployed on an isolated server but is unencrypted.
B. FTP can consume significant bandwidth.
C. FTP facilitates business-to-business file transfers and has few risks.
D. FTP transfers data in an unencrypted format.
Answer: D
7. WEP uses which of the following stream ciphers?
A. RC2
B. RC4
C. IKE
D. 3DES
SY0-101 vce Answer: B
8. A common tool used for wireless sniffing and war driving is:
A. S/MIME.
B. Sam Spade.
C. NetStumbler.

D. NESSUS.
Answer: C
9. Which of the following is a common type of attack on web servers?
A. Birthday
B. Buffer overflow
C. Spam
D. Brute force
SY0-101 exam Answer: B
10. Which of the following would be needed to ensure that a user who has received an email cannot claim
that the email was not received?
A. Anti-aliasing
B. Data integrity
C. Asymmetric cryptography
D. Non-repudiation
Answer: D
11. Spam is considered a problem even when deleted before being opened because spam:
A. verifies the validity of an email address.
B. corrupts the mail file.
C. wastes company bandwidth.
D. installs Trojan horse viruses.
SY0-101 dumps Answer: C
12. In order to secure web-based communications, SSL uses: (Select TWO).
A. PPP.
B. IPSec.
C. Public-key cryptography.
D. Blowfish encryption.

E. Symmetric cryptography.
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP).
Answer: CE
13. A URL for an Internet site begins with ‘https:’ rather than ‘http:’ which is an indication that this web site
uses:
A. Kerberos.
B. PGP.
C. PKI.
D. SSL.
SY0-101 pdf Answer: D
14. To reduce vulnerabilities on a web server, an administrator should adopt which of the following
preventative measures?
A. Use packet sniffing software on all inbound communications.
B. Apply the most recent manufacturer updates and patches to the server.
C. Enable auditing on the web server and periodically review the audit logs.
D. Block all Domain Name Service (DNS) requests coming into the server.
Answer: B
15. A VPN is needed for users to connect to a remote site and the VPN must be transparent to the user.
Which of the following VPN models would be BEST to use?
A. Gateway to Gateway
B. Host to Host
C. Host to Gateway
D. Gateway to Host
SY0-101 vce Answer:A
16. A web page becomes unresponsive whenever the embedded calendar control is used. Which of the
following types of vulnerabilities is occurring?
A. Common Gateway Interface (CGI)

B. ActiveX
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Cookies
Answer: B
17. A company is upgrading the network and needs to reduce the ability of users on the same floor and
network segment to see each other’s traffic. Which of the following network devices should be used?
A. Router
B. Hub
C. Switch
D. Firewall
SY0-101 exam Answer: C
18. Which of the following would be the MOST important reason to apply updates?
A. Software is a licensed product and the license will expire if not updated.
B. Software is a supported product and vendors won’t support the product if the latest version is not
installed.
C. Software is a productivity facilitator and as new functionality is available the functionality must be
enabled.
D. Software is inherently insecure and as new vulnerabilities are found the vulnerabilities must be fixed.
Answer: D
19. Which of the following types of firewalls provides inspection at layer 7 of the OSI model?
A. Application-proxy
B. Network address translation (NAT)
C. Packet filters
D. Stateful inspection
SY0-101 dumps Answer:A
20. A company implements an SMTP server on their firewall. This implementation would violate which of
the following security principles?

A. Keep the solution simple.
B. Use a device as intended.
C. Create an in-depth defense.
D. Address internal threats.
Answer: B

Considering there are unlimited tutorials and guess exam sheets are accessible; that is leading to developing the success ratio and reduces the opportunities of failure. SY0-101 dumps at qualification had been launched to boost the efficiency and manageability of based mostly software’s, the company has launched many https://www.pass4itsure.com/SY0-101.html dumps answers to update the know-how.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/Uoh8VPqEj20

CCNA Security, Cisco

What’s new with Cisco 210-260 dumps exam materials? “Implementing Cisco Network Security” is the name of Cisco 210-260 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Most popular Cisco CCNA 210-260 dumps pdf and vce with the Youtube knowledge and skills online. Pass4itsure Cisco 210-260 dumps exam questions answers are updated (310 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 210-260 dumps is CCNA Security. Preparation of Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-260.html dumps question and answers tests goes best among the students all around the world who are interesting in giving the real Cisco Implementing Cisco Network Security whenever they want.

Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

[2017-10-NEWS Cisco 210-260 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWU0xad3NvRWR4Qzg

[2017-10-NEWS Cisco 200-155 Dumps  From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWNHFtR0VqbXVEeUU

210-260 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-260 Dumps Exam Q&As:

DEMO
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps

What is the effect of the given command sequence?
A. It configures IKE Phase 1.
B. It configures a site-to-site VPN tunnel.
C. It configures a crypto policy with a key size of 14400.
D. It configures IPSec Phase 2.
210-260 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
What hash type does Cisco use to validate the integrity of downloaded images?
A. Sha1
B. Sha2
C. Md5
D. Md1
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
What security feature allows a private IP address to access the Internet by translating it to a public
address?
A. NAT
B. hairpinning
C. Trusted Network Detection
D. Certification Authority
210-260 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4. In SAS ETL Studio, what is stored as a metadata identity?
A. the location of the SAS Metadata Server
B. the libraries containing the data in the warehouse
C. a user or a group of users of the metadata environment
D. a list of the warehouse server names and port numbers
Answer: C
QUESTION  5. In SAS ETL Studio, when checking in objects from a project repository to a change-managed
repository, which objects are checked in?

A. all objects
B. the selected objects only
C. grouped objects and their associated objects
D. the selected objects and all associated objects
210-260 pdf Answer:A
QUESTION  6. In SAS ETL Studio, which alert actions can be selected from the Status Handling tab as a property of
the job? I.Send email. II.Abort the process. III.Send the entry to a dataset. IV.Call a macro from a SAS
Autocall Library.
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II, III and IV
Answer: D
QUESTION  7. In SAS ETL Studio, what can be used to register a metadata object in the Process Library? I.the
Metadata Importer II.the Metadata Transformer III.the Transformation Importer
IV.the Transformation Generator
A. II only
B. IV only
C. I and II
D. III and IV
210-260 vce Answer: D

QUESTION 8. In PGP, there are two conditions that can be present to provide for the validity of a certificate. What
are these two conditions?
A.The certificate has been digitally signed by your local trusted root Certificate Authority.
B.The certificate is digitally signed by at least one completely trusted key holder, who has a valid
certificate.
C.The certificate is digitally signed by at least two of the marginally trusted key holders, who have valid
certificates.
D.The certificate has been digitally signed by the sender trusted root Certificate Authority.
E.The certificate is digitally signed by the sender, who is authenticated by your local Certificate Authority.
Answer: BC
QUESTION  9. What is the average size of a biometric template?
A.Between 10 and 100 KB
B.Between 100 and 500 KB
C.Less than 1 KB
D.Less than 3 bytes
E.Between 500 KB and 1 MB
210-260 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION  10. Based on the provided image, what type of certification path will be used in this network?
A.Nested certification path
B.Hierarchical certification path
C.Functional certification path
D.Mesh certification path
E.Bridged certification path
Answer: D
QUESTION 11. When an OCSP responder provides a digitally signed response for each of the certificates sent to it by
the relying party in the original request, its reply consists of the certificate identifier, one of three status
values and a validity interval. What are the three status values?
A.Okay, Not Okay, Revoked
B.This Update, Next Update, Future Update
C.Good, Revoked, Unknown
D.Issuer Public Key, Hash of the Private Key, Unknown
E.Issuer Private Key, Thumbprint of the Public Key, Unknown
Answer: C
QUESTION 12. What format is used to list the information that is contained in the Issuer field of an X.509 digital

certificate?
A.FQDN
B.X.500 CN
C.CA Name
D.X.500 DN
E.Position of the CA in the CA hierarchy
210-260 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION 13. There are many certificate templates built into Windows 2000 Certificate Servers. Which of the
following user templates are valid for client authentication?
A.Smart Card Logon
B.Domain Controller
C.Authenticated Session
D.IPSec (Offline Request)
E.Smart Card User
Answer: ACE
QUESTION 14. One of the many extensions in an X.509 digital certificate is called the SubjectKeyIdentifier. What is
this extension used for?
A.The extension is used to verify the SubjectPrivateKeyInfo
B.The extension is used to match the hashes of the SubjectKeyAlgorithm
C.The extension is used only when the certificate is used for code signing from a defined Subject
D.The extension is used when matching the hash value of the public key on the certificate
E.The extension is used only if the certificate is sent from a Root CA
210-260 pdf 
Answer: D
QUESTION 15. Which of the following are hash algorithms?
A.MD5
B.SHA
C.RSA

D.3DES
E.AES
Answer: AB
QUESTION NO: 16
Which RAID level is the most commonly used for file servers, application server, web server,
databases, and other transaction-oriented applications?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 3
C. RAID 4
D. RAID 5
210-260 vce 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 17
Which utility typically enables abstraction of storage within a server?
A. Switch zoning
B. Logical Volume Manager (LVM)
C. SAN appliance
D. SMI-S Monitoring Tool
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
Your current backup solution includes a backup server and six tape drives within a tape library.
The routers are connected to the SAN and the servers are zoned on the SAN to see the array.
The server sends a set of commands to the tape routes causing the routers to talk directly to the
volumes and copy them to the tape drives. Which backup infrastructure type would describe this
process?
A. D2D (disc-to-disk)
B. 3PC (3rd party copy)
C. SSO (shared storage option)
D. D2R2T (disk to route to tape)
210-260 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 19
Which Security method is used to insure that a particular host only has access to a particular
LUN?
A. port binding
B. hard zoning
C. soft zoning
D. LUN masking
Answer: D

Cisco 210-260 exam tests preparation is that there are so many Cisco 210-260 dumps websites for the Implementing Cisco Network Security exam that have been offering their help for the 210-260 exam students for free, so that they dont have to hire any tutor or go to the academies to prepare for the Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-260.html dumps exams.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/kWu7ntHP4UE

Fortinet, Network Security

Who has the valid new Fortinet NSE5 dumps?  “Fortinet Network Security Expert 5 Written Exam (500)” is the name of Fortinet NSE5 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Fortinet exam. Latest Fortinet NSE5 dumps exams video questions and answers Fortinet Network Security Expert 5 are the best materials. Pass4itsure Fortinet NSE5 dumps exam questions answers are updated (239 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of NSE5 dumps is Network Security. All of Pass4itsure Fortinet NSE5 practice test, NSE5 exam sample questions and https://www.pass4itsure.com/nse5.html dumps free demo are always updated and accurate.

Exam Code: NSE5
Exam Name: Fortinet Network Security Expert 5 Written Exam (500)
Q&As: 239

[2017-10-NEWS Fortinet NSE5 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWeXdmUFlvak1HYzg

[2017-10-NEWS Fortinet NSE7 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWZWliMnJlRkFoUlU

NSE5 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Fortinet NSE5 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 53
There are eight traffic priority classes. Which of the following priorities would you recommend for
voice in an 802.1p VLAN?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 6
D. 7
NSE5 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 54
A technician has been trying to determine whether or not the e-mail service is operating on an
SIP-enabled device. She issues the following command from a terminal:
telnet gateway.ctpcertified.com 25
What is the result of this command?
A. The Telnet client will try to access the SMTP port on gateway.ctpcertified.com.
B. She will be presented with a login prompt via the SSH protocol.
C. The Telnet client will try to access the Telnet port for 25 seconds on gateway.ctpcertified.com.
D. The Telnet client will try to access the standard SNMP port of gateway.ctpcertified.com.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 55
You have just installed a wireless access point that you plan to use for voice and video calls.
Which settings can you put in place to enable you to prioritize multiple traffic streams?
A. Larger MTU and SYN packet settings
B. MAC address filtering and RADIUS settings
C. WME and/or multiple SSID entries
D. Multiple default gateways and switches
NSE5 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 56
What type of Network Address Translation (NAT) is the least restrictive?
A. Symmetric
B. Full cone
C. Restricted cone
D. Port restricted cone
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 57
What are the four access categories defined by Wireless Multimedia Extensions (WME), in order
from highest to lowest priority?
A. Connectionless, Connection-Oriented, Standard and SIP
B. TCP, UDP, IP and H.323
C. Voice, Video, Best Effort and Background
D. TCP, UDP, IP and SIP
NSE5 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 58
You are troubleshooting a problem in which several IP phones cannot access an SIP proxy. You
have been told that all SIP proxies and clients in the company are using the standard port as a
default. When you view the various configuration screens, you see the following information:
– DNS server: dns1.ctpcertified.com
– DHCP: Auto.
– SIP proxy: sipproxy.ctpcertified.com: 8080
– IP address: 192.168.2.33
– Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0
What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. The wrong DNS server has been specified.
B. DHCP settings are not configured correctly.
C. The wrong subnet mask has been specified.
D. The wrong port number is specified in the proxy server.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 59
An SIP proxy server has the following IP configuration:
172.80.54.23/20
Which is the correct address for the network containing this server?
A. 172.80.54.0
B. 172.43.63.18
C. 172.80.48.0
D. 172.80.64.0
NSE5 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 60
Which of the following will allow you to avoid deploying NAT traversal workarounds?
A. Use a custom subnet mask for all external network devices.
B. Deploy a CSU/DSU.
C. Use registered IP addresses for all devices.
D. Use private IP addresses for all devices.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 61
You have installed 100 IP phones in a new subnet. None of the phones in this new subnet can
receive IP addresses from the company DHCP server that resides on a separate subnet. Which of
the following can you implement to solve this problem the most easily and securely?
A. Enable 802.1p on the Layer 2 switch.
B. Enable BOOTP forwarding on the router.
C. Place the DHCP server on the default VLAN.
D. Upgrade the DHCP server.
NSE5 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 62
Voice call quality drops at certain times of the day. You discover that this is usually when high
amounts of e-mail and Web traffic occur across several LANs in your company. Which action can
you take to solve this problem?
A. Implement H.323.
B. Implement SIP.
C. Implement QoS.
D. Implement MGCP.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 63
Given a 21st century Ethernet network, which of the following must be used by both an 802.11i
WiFi card and an IP-enabled PBX network adapter?
A. A Virtual LAN Identifier (VID)
B. A Secure Set Identifier (SSID) entry
C. A Media Access Control (MAC) address
D. A Canonical Format Indicator (CFI) entry
NSE5 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 64
The IP phones for the sales department reside in Subnet A, while the IP PBX resides in Subnet B
of the same network. All network switches and routers are properly configured. A technician
visiting the sales department is having problems registering the sales department phones with the
IP PBX. The technician can ping each phone from within Subnet A, but not from outside the
subnet. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this problem?
A. The router does not have access control lists enabled.
B. The IP phones are configured with an incorrect subnet mask.
C. The cables connecting the IP phones are Category 5, rather than Category 5e.
D. The MAC addresses for the phones have not yet been registered with the IP PBX.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 65
You are implementing an IPsec VPN for voice calls. These calls will pass from one corporate
firewall to another. Both firewalls use Network Address Translation (NAT). Which form of IPsec will
you implement?
A. Tunnel mode using the AH security protocol
B. Transport mode using the AH security protocol
C. Tunnel mode using the ESP security protocol
D. Transport mode using the ESP security protocol
NSE5 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 66
Which element of a convergent network does a connection-hijacking attack typically exploit?
A. Soft phones
B. Wireless network radio frequencies
C. The TCP three-way handshake
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 67
What algorithm is usually selected when voice is companded at 64 Kbps in all parts of the world
except North America and Japan?
A. A-Law
B. Mu-Law
C. G.711
D. G.729a
NSE5 vce Answer: A

You will not find better Fortinet NSE5 dumps than Pass4itsure’s Fortinet NSE5 Study Materials and Fortinet NSE5 Training Practice Test. So use Pass4itsure online https://www.pass4itsure.com/nse5.html dumps training practice test today and get on your road of success. With Pass4itsure, you can pass NSE5 Fortinet Network Security Expert 5 Written Exam (500) exam easily.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/xpZvIGz_IH8

CCNP Routing and Switching, Cisco

Anyone who has done Cisco 300-135 dumps? “Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks” is the name of Cisco 300-135 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Most popular Cisco TSHOOT 300-135 dumps pdf actual test for download. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-135 dumps exam questions answers are updated (118 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 300-135 dumps is CCNP Routing and Switching. Pass4itsure dumps has high hit rate that will help you to pass Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-135.html dumps training online at the first attempt, which is a proven fact.

Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

[2017-10-NEWS Cisco 300-135 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWVjNzVmpXTDBzU00

[2017-10-NEWS 1Y0-A20 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWU1NoR1FFRWNsU0k

300-135 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-135 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 27
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
class B { int val;
public:
B(int v):val(v){}
int getV() const {return val;} bool operator < (const B & v) const { return val<v.val;} };
ostream & operator <<(ostream & out, const B & v) { out<<v.getV(); return out;}
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
int main() {
B t1[]={3,2,4,1,5};
B t2[]={5,6,8,2,1};
vector<B> v1(10,0);
sort(t1, t1+5);
sort(t2, t2+5);
set_symmetric_difference(t2,t2+5,t1,t1+5,v1.begin());
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), Out<B>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;
}

Program outputs:
A. 6 8 3 4 0 0 0 0 0 0
B. 3 4 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
C. 6 8 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
D. compilation error
E. 3 4 6 8 0 0 0 0 0 0
300-135 exam Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 28
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <functional>
using namespace std;
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
int main() {
int t[]={3,2,4,1,5,6,10,8,7,9};
vector<int> v1(t, t+10);
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), bind2nd(plus<int>(), 1));
for_each(v1.rbegin(), v1.rend(), Out<int>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;

}
Program outputs:
A. 3 2 4 1 5 6 10 8 7 9
B. 4 3 5 2 6 7 11 9 8 10
C. 9 7 8 10 6 5 1 4 2 3
D. 10 8 9 11 7 6 2 5 3 4
E. compilation error
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 29
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
class B { int val;
public:
B(int v=0):val(v){}
int getV() const {return val;}
operator int () const { return val;} };
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
struct Add {

B operator()(B & a, B & b) { return a+b; }};
int main() {
int t[]={1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10};
vector<B> v1(t, t+10);
vector<B> v2(10);
transform(v1.begin(), v1.end(), v2.begin(), bind1st(1,Add()));
for_each(v2.rbegin(), v2.rend(), Out<B>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
C. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
D. 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2
E. compilation error
300-135 dumps Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 30
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
int main () {
int t[] = {1,2,3,2,3,5,1,2,7,3,2,1,10, 4,4,5};

vector<int> v (t,t+15);
int number = count(v.begin(), v.end(), 2);
cout<< number<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 0
E. compilation error
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 31
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <deque>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <set>
using namespace std;
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; }
};

bool Compare(char a, char b) { return tolower(a) < tolower(b);}
int main() {
char s[]={“qwerty”};
char t1[]={“ert”};
char t2[]={“ERT”};
sort(s, s+6);
cout<<includes(s,s+6, t1,t1+3, Compare)<<” “<<includes(s,s+6, t2,t2+3, Compare)<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 0 0
B. 0 1
C. 1 0
D. 1 1
300-135 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 32
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
int main ()
{
std::vector<int>v1;
v1.push_back(10);
return 0;
}

A. compilation fails due to error in line 2
B. compilation fails due to error in line 5
C. exception is thrown during run time
D. code compiles and executes successfully
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 33
What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <set>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
int main(){
int t[] ={ 3, 4, 2, 1, 6, 5, 7, 9, 8, 0 };
vector<int>v(t, t+10);
set<int> s1(v.begin(),v.end());
s1.insert(v.begin(),v.end());
bool found = s1.find(7);
if (found){
cout<<“Element found!\n”;
}else {
cout<<“Element not found!\n”;
}
return 0;
}
A. program will display “Element found!”
B. program will display “Element not found!\n
C. code will not compile
D. changing type of variable found to int will make this code compile
300-135 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
#include <set>
using namespace std;
void myfunction(int i) {
cout << ” ” << i;
}
bool classifier(int v) {
return v%2==0;
}
int main() {
int t[] = { 1, 5, 2, 5, 2, 4, 4, 3, 3, 1 };
vector<int> v1(t, t+10);
set<int> s1(t, t+10);
replace(v1.begin(), v1.end(),classifier, 10);
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), myfunction);
return 0;

}
Program outputs:
A. 1 5 10 5 10 10 10 3 3 1
B. 1 5 2 5 2 4 4 3 3 1
C. compilation error
D. 10 10 2 10 2 4 4 10 10 10
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 35
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <deque>
#include <list>
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main ()
{
list<int>l1;
deque<int>d1;
for(int i=0; i<5; i++)
{
l1.push_back(i);l1.push_front(i);
d1.push_back(i);d1.push_front(i);
}
for(int i=0; i<d1.size(); i++)
{
cout<<d1[i]<<” “<<l1[i]<<” “;

}
cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
A. program displays 4 4 3 3 2 2 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4
B. runtime exception
C. compilation error due to line 11
D. compilation error due to line 12
E. compilation error due to line 16
300-135 exam Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 36
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <deque>
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main ()
{
int t[] = { 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 };
vector<int> v1(t, t + 10);
deque<int> d1(v1.begin(), v1.end());
deque<int> d2;
d2 = d1;
d2.insert(d1.rbegin(), 10);

for(int i = 0; i<d1.size(); i++)
{
cout<<d1[i]<<” “;
}
return 0;
}
A. program outputs: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B. program outputs: 10 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
C. program outputs: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
D. compilation error
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 37
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
cout<<100<<” “;
cout.setf(ios::hex);
cout<<100<<” “;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 100 64
B. 100 0x64
C. 0x64 0x64
D. 64 0x64
E. 100 100
300-135 dumps Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 38
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
cout.setf(ios::hex, ios::basefield);
cout<<100<<” “;
cout.flags(ios::showbase);
cout<<100<<” “;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 64 64
B. 64 0x64
C. 0x64 0x64
D. 64 100
E. compilation error
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
int main () {
int t[] = {1,2,3,2,3,5,1,2,7,3,2,1,10, 4,4,5};
vector<int> v (t,t+15);
vector<int>::iterator it = search_n(v.begin(), v.end(), 4, 2);
cout<< it?v.begin()<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 10
B. 3
C. 1
D. 15
E. compilation error
300-135 pdf Answer: D

So, the quality of Pass4itsure 300-135 dumps practice test is 100% guarantee and Pass4itsure https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-135.html dumps torrent is the most trusted exam materials.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/K2S9iwgc3BY